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Flashcards in Exam 4 - Practice Problems Deck (155):
1

Serology testing is really of little value in the diagnosis of Type I Diabetes. It is properly diagnosed by testing of fasting serum glucose.
a. True
b. False

a. True

2

In uncontrolled/undercontrolled SLE, C3 serum levels will be:
a. low
b. high
c. normal

a. low

3

𝛄δ T cells express:
a. CD3 only
b. CD3 and CD4
c. CD3 and CD8
d. CD16 and CD56

a. CD3 only

4

A primary antibody response is associated with ____ production
a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE

c. IgM

5

Where lymphocytes are activated by antigen:
a. primary lymphoid tissue
b. secondary lymphoid tissues

b. secondary lymphoid tissues

6

What is the maximum titer for FANA test that would still be considered normal?
a. 1:40
b. 1:80
c. 1:160
d. 1:320

b. 1:80

7

What protein expressed by T helper cells is necessary to trigger isotype-switching of a B cell?
a. B7
b. CD28
c. CD40-L
d. Fas-L

c. CD40-L

8

Multiple sclerosis has a disease association with HLA-DQ6. The relative risk for individuals with HLA-DQ6 for developing MS is 10. The incidence of MS in the U.S. population is ~1:750. What is the actual risk for someone with HLA-DQ6?
a. 1:10
b. 1:75
c. 1:750
d. 1:7500

b. 1:75

9

What is the main drawback of rapid testing for Strep Throat?
a. It is not sensitive enough
b. It is not specific enough

a. It is not sensitive enough

10

What do we call a substance mixed with a vaccine to enhance the immune response to the target antigen?
a. Adjuvant
b. Immunogen
c. Hapten

a. Adjuvant

11

What cell is a polymorphonuclear phagocyte?
a. Macrophage
b. Dendritic cell
c. Neutrophil

c. Neutrophil

12

C-reactive protein binding activates the ____ pathway of complement
a. alternative
b. lectin
c. classical

c. classical

13

When an immune response to a pathogen triggers autoimmune disease development our to cross-reactive TCR/BCR for self-antigen, this is know as ______
a. release of sequestered antigens
b. polyclonal B cell activation
c. molecular mimicry
d. paraneoplastic trigger
e. chemical happen exposure

c. molecular mimicry

14

MHC class II present peptides from:
a. endogenous sources
b. exogenous sources

b. exogenous sources

15

Process that ensures TCRs are functional:
a. positive selection
b. negative selection
c. clonal selection

a. positive selection

16

“Immediate hypersensitivity” responses are ____ hypersensitivities
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV

a. Type I

17

Interferons are most important in ____ infections
a. yeast/fungal
b. arterial
c. viral
d. parasitic

c. viral

18

Anti-CCP is a diagnostic test for:
a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Multiple sclerosis
c. Systemic lupus erythematosus

a. Rheumatoid arthritis

19

Which of the following is a monoclonal antibody therapy used to treat Rheumatoid arthritis?
a. anti-TNF-α
b. anti-IL-6
c. anti-α4-integrin
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

20

What antibody is usually the most abundant in mucus?
a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgD
c. IgE

a. IgA

21

What autocrine cytokine is necessary to maintain initial T lymphocyte activation?
a. IL-1
b. IL-2
c. IL-4
d. IL-10

b. IL-2

22

Somatic hypermutation occurs in:
a. B cells only
b. T cells only
c. B cells and T cells

a. B cells only

23

Anti-Intrinsic Factor autoantibodies are associated with what autoimmune disease?
a. Celiac disease
b. Pernicious (megaloblastic) anemia
c. Crohn’s disease

b. Pernicious (megaloblastic) anemia

24

IgG antibody immune complexes form in ____ hypersensitivity
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV

c. Type III

25

IL-4 and IL-5 are signature cytokines of:
a. Th1 cells
b. Th2 cells
c. Th17 cells
d. Treg cells

b. Th2 cells

26

The autoantibody associated with Myasthenia graves is:
a. anti-parietal cell antibody
b. anti-myelin basic protein
c. anti-acetylcholine receptor

c. anti-acetylcholine receptor

27

X-linked agammaglobulinemia is a primary immune defect of:
a. B lymphocytes
b. T lymphocytes
c. both B and T lymphocytes

a. B lymphocytes

28

A “bulls-eye” rash is associated with what disease?
a. Group A streptococcus infection
b. Lyme disease
c. Syphilis

b. Lyme disease

29

This antibody isotype sensitizes mast cells.
a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgD
e. IgE

e. IgE

30

The autoantibodies associated with Celiac disease are what isotype?
a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE

a. IgA

31

For T lymphocytes, central tolerance is generally achieved by _____, while peripheral tolerance is generally achieved by _____.
a. angery/apoptosis
b. apoptosis/anergy

b. apoptosis/anergy

32

What antibody isotype is associated with immediate hypersensitivity?
a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgD
e. IgE

e. IgE

33

TAP is necessary for loading peptide into:
a. MHC class I
b. MHC class II

a. MHC class I

34

In “reversed order” syphilis testing, what assay is run first as the “screening” test?
a. Treponemal EIA or CIA
b. RPR
c. TP-PA

a. Treponemal EIA or CIA

35

What is the most abundant cell type in germinal centers?
a. Macrophages
b. Multinucleate giant cells
c. B lymphocytes
d. T lymphocytes

c. B lymphocytes

36

Live-attenuated bacterial vaccines are:
a. 100% safe to administer in all cases
b. highly immunogenic on their own
c. only induce T-independent antibody responses

b. highly immunogenic on their own

37

Which autoimmune diseases are much more common in women than men (~9:1 ratio)?
a. Systemic lupus erythematosus
b. Grave’s disease
c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
d. All of the above

d. All of the above

38

Naive B lymphocytes must periodically interact with a ____ to stay alive.
a. bone marrow stromal cell
b. T helper lymphocyte
c. follicular dendritic cell

c. follicular dendritic cell

39

Viral subunit vaccines are:
a. aimed at producing neutralizing antibody
b. good at inducing cytotoxic T cells responses
c. 100% protective in those individuals who are vaccinated

a. aimed at producing neutralizing antibody

40

How many Ig-like domains compare a TCRβ chain?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four

b. Two

41

A chancre is associated with ____ syphilis
a. primary
b. secondary
c. latent
d. tertiary

a. primary

42

What patient sample is used to diagnose neurosyphilis?
a. Lesion fluid
b. Cerebrospinal fluid
c. Serum
d. Whole blood

b. Cerebrospinal fluid

43

Histamine release from mast cells occurs in ____ hypersensitivity responses.
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV

a. Type I

44

β2-microglobulin is
a. an amphipathic peptide that can disrupt bacterial membranes
b. part of the surrogate light chain
c. a component of MHC class I

c. a component of MHC class I

45

Drug-induced lupus is associated with which ENA?
a. Histone
b. dsDNA
c. nRNP

a. Histone

46

Group A streptococcus M protein is a virulence factor because it:
a. acts as a superantigen, causing a cytokine storm in the host
b. cleaves DNA NETs extruded by neutrophils
c. prevents C3b opsonization of the bacterial surface

c. prevents C3b opsonization of the bacterial surface

47

Which of the following pairs makes an antigen-binding domain?
a. VH +CH
b. CL + CH
c. VL + VH
d. VL + CL

c. VL + VH

48

Which antibody isotype is transported across the placenta to the baby?
a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG
d. IgD
e. IgE

c. IgG

49

In uncontrolled disease flares of RA, the erythrocyte sedimentation rate will:
a. decrease
b. increase

b. increase

50

RF is antibody against:
a. histone H1
b. dsRNA
c. Fc portion of IgG

c. Fc portion of IgG

51

Anti-cardiolipin antibody in SLE patients associates with:
a. false-positive test for syphilis
b. falsely prolonged in vitro clotting times
c. increased risk of in vivo clotting (i.e. deep vein thrombosis)

a. false-positive test for syphilis

52

Most TCR are composed of:
a. α and β chains
b. 𝛋 and 𝛌 chains
c. 𝛄 and δ chains

a. α and β chains

53

Group A streptococcus is:
a. a gram negative bacillus (rod)
b. a gram positive bacillus (rod)
c. a gram negative cocci
d. a gram positive cocci

d. a gram positive cocci

54

Drugs or other chemicals that can act as haptens often lead to ____ hypersensitivities
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV

d. Type IV

55

IgM is produced as a:
a. monomer
b. dimer
c. monomer or dimer
d. pentamer

d. pentamer

56

Which of the following is a nontreponemal test for syphilis?
a. RPR
b. TP-PA
c. FTA-ABS

a. RPR

57

The main function of IgM is
a. sensitizing for NK cell killing
b. opsonizing
c. activating complement binding

c. activating complement binding

58

Ulcerative colitis is associated with which anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody pattern?
a. cANCA
b. pANCA
c. either cANCA and pANCA

b. pANCA

59

Which assay for Group A streptococcus infection is known to be negative following Streptococcal pyoderma?
a. anti-DNase B
b. ASO test
c. streptozyme test

b. ASO test

60

A cell analyzed by flow cytometry is CD3 positive, CD4 negative, and CD8 positive. The cell is a:
a. T helper cell
b. NK cell
c. Cytotoxic T cell
d. B cell

c. Cytotoxic T cell

61

Clonal selection ultimately leads to:
a. isotype switching
b. junctional diversity
c. affinity maturation

c. affinity maturation

62

Poison ivy rash is a ____ hypersensitivity
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV

d. Type IV

63

Rheumatic fever can result following:
a. Impetigo
b. Group A streptococcal pharyngitis
c. either Impetigo or Group A streptococcal pharyngitis

????

64

Enzyme that adds N nucleotide junctional diversity to BCR and TCR
a. RSS
b. TdT
c. RAG

b. TdT

65

The “two-signal hypothesis” refers to interaction between:
a. naive T cell and an antigen-presenting cell
b. T helper cell and a B lymphocyte
c. cytotoxic T cell and a target cell

a. naive T cell and an antigen-presenting cell

66

IgA-RF and IgG-RF are less specific for Rheumatoid arthritis diagnosis than IgM-RF
a. True
b. False

b. False

67

RAG-1 and RAG-2 are necessary for:
a. MHC class I peptide loading
b. MHC class II peptide loading
c. somatic recombination
d. somatic hypermutation

c. somatic recombination

68

A B cell with a BCR that binds soluble self-antigen in the bone marrow will be induced to undergo:
a. clonal selection
b. clonal anergy
c. clonal deletion

b. clonal anergy

69

What is the appropriate FANA pattern to report when there is even staining of the entire nucleus?
a. Speckled
b. Nucleolar
c. Peripheral
d. Homogenous

d. Homogenous

70

CD4 causes TCR to interact with:
a. MHC class I
b. MHC class II

b. MHC class II

71

What are the two most common rheumatologic disease that are also autoimmune disease?

Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) and Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)

72

Define chemokines. Be sure to identify their signature amino acid sequence motifs.

Small proteins that cause cell recruitment/movement to the sources of the chemokines. A.A motif = C - C, C - X - C = C = cysteines

73

What are the two alternate names of immunoglobulin?

Antibody (Ab) and BCR

74

What does the abbreviation FANA stand for?

Fluorescent anti-nuclear antibody

75

What are HLA-DP. HLA-DQ, and HLA-DR?

Human genes coding for MHC class II proteins

76

Defects/loss of what two proteins involved in negative selection will lead to generalized autoimmunity?

FoxP3, AIRE

77

List the four main functions complement can perform for the immune system.

1. Opsonization
2. Chemoattraction
3. Anaphylatoxin
4. Direct bacterial lysis

78

What surface marker is present on B1 B lymphocytes, but not B-2 lymphocytes?

CD5

79

Which of the following cells lack (does not have) CD3 on its cell surface?
a. αβ T lymphocytes
b. 𝛄δ T lymphocytes
c. NK cells

c. NK cells

80

Myelin is the target autoantigen in:
a. Myasthenia gravis
b. Multiple sclerosis
c. Pernicious anemia

b. Multiple sclerosis

81

Polyclonal antibodies have mixed antigen-binding epitopes and affinities.
a. True
b. False

a. True

82

Changing an antibody from IgM to IgA within a single B cell would be called:
a. somatic hypermutation
b. isotope switching
c. clonal expansion

b. isotope switching

83

Toxoid subunit bacterial vaccines have which disadvantage when administered alone (not in combination with another vaccine)?
a. They do not induce T cell help
b. They can cause disease in those with primary immunodeficiency
c. They can cause Type I hypersensitivity

a. They do not induce T cell help

84

Lupus patients can have a false positive ____ test for syphilis
a. treponemal
b. nontreponemal

b. nontreponemal

85

Which of the following correctly identifies the two professional phagocytes?
a. Neutrophils and macrophages
b. Neutrophils and dendritic cells
c. Mast cells and macrophages

a. Neutrophils and macrophages

86

Which cell type must undergo positive selection?
a. B lymphocyte
b. αβ T lymphocyte
c. 𝛄δ T lymphocyte
d. both B lymphocyte and αβ T lymphocyte
e. both αβ and 𝛄δ T lymphocytes

b. αβ T lymphocyte

87

An innate immune family of small amphipathic peptides that can disrupt microbial membranes are called:
a. chemokines
b. defensins
c. α2-macroglobulins

b. defensins

88

Cardiolipin, lecithin, and cholesterol are the main components of ____ tests for syphilis
a. direct
b. nontreponemal
c. treponemal

b. nontreponemal

89

Which of the following disease associated with Group A Strep infections is due to deposition/precipitation of immune complexes of Strep exotoxins and antibody?
a. Scarlet fever
b. Rheumatic fever
c. Acute Proliferate Glomerulonephritis

c. Acute Proliferate Glomerulonephritis

90

Natural killer cells arise from which common progenitor?
a. Common erythroid megakaryocyte progenitor
b. Common lymphoid progenitor
c. Common myeloid progenitor

b. Common lymphoid progenitor

91

This hypersensitivity response is associated with serum sickness
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV

c. Type III

92

A type IV hypersensitivity response can be detected by a physician using a:
a. Delayed-type hypersensitivity response read ~48 hours after antigen administration
b. Wheal and flare response read ~15-20 minutes after antigen administration

a. Delayed-type hypersensitivity response read ~48 hours after antigen administration

93

This assay for Group A Streptococcal infection is known to give false negative test results following impetigo.
a. Anti-DNase B
b. Streptozyme
c. Anti-streptolysin O (ASO)

c. Anti-streptolysin O (ASO)

94

Which of the following helps or adds to junctional diversity of BCR and TCR?
a. TdT
b. P nucleotides
c. N nucleotides
d. all of the above

d. all of the above

95

IgA anti-tissue transglutaminase (anti-TTG) antibody is found in association with:
a. Ulcerative colitis
b. Crohn’s disease
c. Celiac disease

c. Celiac disease

96

Superantigen (such as SpeA1 of Group A strep) activate a large proportion of ____ by binding to MHC class II and Vβ proteins
a. B lymphocytes
b. T lymphocytes
c. macrophages

b. T lymphocytes

97

Which of the following helps to activate B lymphocytes?
a. Th1
b. Th2
c. Tc

b. Th2

TFH is the better answer

98

A screening test for allergies in an individual would be:
a. injection of histamine to test for immediate response
b. whole blood eosinophil percentage
c. total serum IgE concentration

c. total serum IgE concentration

99

he hypersensitivity associated with acute histamine release
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV

a. Type I

100

MHC class II proteins present peptides derived from ____ sources
a. endogenous
b. exogenous

b. exogenous

101

Which of the following is not a primary lymphoid tissue?
a. Thymus
b. Bone marrow
c. Spleen

c. Spleen

102

A “bulls-eye” rash is associated with:
a. Borrellia burgdorferi infection
b. Treponema pallidum infection
c. Sun exposure in a patient with Lupus

a. Borrellia burgdorferi infection

103

C1qrs binding/activation triggers initiation of the ____ complement pathway
a. alternative
b. lectin
c. classical

c. classical

104

Lupus is a ___ hypersensitivity
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV

c. Type III

105

What cells control the homeostasis of the B lymphocyte pool in the body?
a. Dendritic cells
b. T helper cells
c. Follicular dendritic cells

c. Follicular dendritic cells

106

he antibody isotype involved in Type I hypersensitivities
a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE

e. IgE

107

The process of splicing together V, D, and J gene segments is called:
a. somatic hypermutation
b. somatic recombination
c. isotype switching

b. somatic recombination

108

C3bBb is within the ____ pathway of complement activation
a. alternative
b. lectin
c. classical

a. alternative

109

Which of the following is a nontreponemal test for syphilis?
a. FTA-ABS
b. TP-PA
c. RPR

c. RPR

110

The antigen isotype normally present at the highest concentration in mucus
a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE

a. IgA

111

What is the appropriate patient specimen for diagnosis of neurosyphilis with the VDRL assay?
a. Serum
b. Plasma
c. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

c. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

112

The anti-CCP assay is useful in diagnosis/screening for:
a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Secondary Syphilis infection
c. Lyme disease

a. Rheumatoid arthritis

113

The most common monoclonal antibody therapy approved to treat Rheumatoid arthritis blocks ____
a. IL-6
b. TNF-α
c. IL-2

b. TNF-α

114

Which of the following is a requirement for a “good” antigen?
a. Low molecular weight
b. Lack of molecular complexity/variability
c. Foreign/taxonomically distant from host

c. Foreign/taxonomically distant from host

115

Which of the following can act as an opsonin?
a. Antibody
b. Complement
c. Both antibody and complement

c. Both antibody and complement

116

What is the main drawback of live-attenuated viral vaccines?
a. They do not induce Tc immunity
b. They are not effective in 100% of the population
c. They are dangerous to those with cell-mediated immunodeficiency

c. They are dangerous to those with cell-mediated immunodeficiency

117

Which of the following can cause false positive test results for Lyme disease?
a. Infectious mononucleosis
b. Pregnancy
c. Varicella-Zoster virus infection

a. Infectious mononucleosis

118

Interferons are most important in combating ____ infections
a. bacterial
b. viral
c. parasite
d. fungal

b. viral

119

RhoGAM is used to prevent:
a. infections in premature infants lacking mother’s passive antibody protection
b. inflammatory joint destruction in Rheumatoid arthritis
c. hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn due to Rh incompatibility

c. hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn due to Rh incompatibility

120

Which of the following laboratory test results would increase in a Rheumatoid Arthritis patient successfully treated with anti-inflammatory drugs?
a. Serum C3
b. Serum CRP
c. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

a. Serum C3

121

Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) deficiency is associated with:
a. Anti-intrinsic factor antibody
b. Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibody
c. Anti-21-hydroxylase antibody

a. Anti-intrinsic factor antibody

122

What antibody isotype is associated with a primary immune response?
a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgM

c. IgM

123

The FANA is the best screening test for:
a. Rheumatic fever
b. Rheumatoid arthritis
c. Systemic lupus erythematosus

c. Systemic lupus erythematosus

124

“Linked recognition” is important for maximal activation of:
a. Naive T lymphocytes
b. T-dependent B lymphocyte responses
c. Viral immunity by macrophages and NK cells

b. T-dependent B lymphocyte responses

125

Mast cell degranulation in response to antigen binding to IgE triggers this hypersensitivity response
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV

a. Type I

126

MHC is used to activate:
a. B lymphocytes
b. T lymphocytes
c. NK cells

b. T lymphocytes

127

Which of the following is a polymorphonuclear leukocyte?
a. Neutrophil
b. Macrophage
c. Lymphocyte

a. Neutrophil

128

M protein is a virulence factor of Group A strep that blocks:
a. phagocytosis by preventing C3b deposition
b. respiratory burst by phagocytes
c. type I IFN production by epithelial cells

a. phagocytosis by preventing C3b deposition

129

Th1 cells have which T cell co-receptor?
a. CD4
b. CD8

a. CD4

130

Drug-induced lupus is associated with which specific ENA only?
a. Anti-histone
b. Anti-RNP
c. Anti-dsDNA

a. Anti-histone

131

Monoclonal antibodies are produced by:
a. M cells
b. Granulomas
c. Hybridomas

c. Hybridomas

132

β2-microglobulin is part of:
a. B cell co-receptor complex
b. MHC class I
c. Complement membrane attack complex

b. MHC class I

133

Which of the following is not responsible for autoimmune disease initiation/pathology?
a. CD4+ T cells
b. CD8+ T cells
c. NK cells
d. B cells

c. NK cells

134

Pancreatic β-cell destruction by Tc causes which autoimmune disorder?
a. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
b. Addison’s disease
c. Celiac disease

a. Type 1 diabetes mellitus

135

RAG enzyme complexes recognize and bind to RSS to initiate somatic recombination in both B cells and T cells
a. True
b. False

a. True

136

Poison ivy rash/burns in sensitive individuals are ____ hypersensitivity responses
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV

d. Type IV

137

Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin (TSI) is measured in possible diagnosis of:
a. Addison’s disease
b. Grave’s disease
c. Hashimoto’s Chronic Autoimmune Thyroiditis

b. Grave’s disease

138

The antibody isotype that is transported across the placenta to deliver passive immunity for a newborn
a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE

b. IgG

139

Viral subunit vaccines are best for inducing what kind of immune protection?
a. Neutralizing antibody to surface antigens
b. Cell-mediated immunity
c. A combination of neutralizing antibody and cell-mediated immunity

a. Neutralizing antibody to surface antigens

140

What percent of individual must generally be vaccinated order to induce herd immunity in a population?
a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 95%

c. 95%

141

RF is autoantibody to:
a. Joint proteins
b. Constant domain of IgG
c. Heart muscle

b. Constant domain of IgG

142

The most abundant antibody present in plasma.
a. IgA
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE

b. IgG

143

What two protein compose the surrogate light chain?
a. VpreB and 𝛌5
b. Igα and Igβ
c. RAG-1 and RAG-2

a. VpreB and 𝛌5

144

Which of the following macrophage-produced cytokines activates NK cells?
a. IL-1β
b. IL-6
c. IL-12

c. IL-12

145

In general, which type of assay loses sensitivity in tertiary syphilis?
a. Direct
b. Nontreponemal
c. Treponemal

b. Nontreponemal

146

A small chemical that can create a new novel self-antigen by binding to a protein side-chain is called a/an:
a. Adjuvant
b. Hapten
c. Immunogen

b. Hapten

147

A colorimetric assay for antibody to a Streptococcal enzyme
a. Anti-streptolysin O (ASO)
b. Steptozyme
c. Anti-DNase B

c. Anti-DNase B

148

The main (most abundant) cell type in follicles are:
a. Macrophages
b. B lymphocytes
c. T lymphocytes

b. B lymphocytes

149

List two different CD molecules/proteins that would be present on all B lymphocytes.

CD19, CD20, CD21

150

What is FoxP3, and what is its function?

Transcription factor that controls Treg CD4+ T cell phenotype

151

List two proteins produced by an “acute phase response” and the organ/tissue that produces them.

CRP, C3, C4, fibrinogen…
Produced by liver

152

Compare and contrast innate and adaptive immune responses, including level of specificity of antigen recognition, ability following exposure, speed of response, and amount of variability of antigen recognition.

Innate: low level of antigen specificity, no improvement during response, takes hours to respond, low (set) variability in antigen recognition

Adaptive: high level of antigen specificity, improvement during response, can take days to weeks to have a response, unlimited variability in antigen recognition

153

Why are certain HLA alleles associated with an increased or decreased relative risk for autoimmunity?

Whether they have the ability to present self-peptide or not

154

What is a “lag phase”?

Delay in measurable Ab production during a primary immune response

155

What are 𝛋 (kappa) and 𝛌 (lambda) chains?

Light chains of antibody (either one or the other is used)