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Flashcards in EXAM FOUR Deck (157):
1

The majority of drugs are absorbed from the GI tract by the process of

passive lipid diffusion

2

Dexamethasone (Decadron)

is used for the diagnosis of Cushing's syndrome

3

Which of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of acute adrenocorticol insufficiency?

fludrocortisone (Florinef)

4

Which of the following drugs is used for the long-term mgmt of hypothyroidism?

levothyroxine (Synthroid, L-T4)

5

Which of the following is the drug of choice for the treatment of thyroid storm?

propranolol (inderal)

6

Tamoxifen (Nolvadex)

is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)

7

Which of the following contraceptives increases the risk of thrombus formation?

the transdermal patch containing ethinyl estradiol and norelgestromin (Ortho evra)

8

Clomiphene citrate

induces ovulation

9

Which of the following drugs prevents osteoporosis in postmenopausal women?

raloxifene (Evista)

10

Dexamethasone (Decadron)

ALL (is used for the diagnosis of Cushing's, does not bind to corticosteroid-binding-globulin, has maximal anti-inflammatory activity and minimal salt-retaining activity)

11

? prevents parietal cell acid secretion by antagonism of the H2-histamine receptor subtype

Cimetidine (Tagament)

12

? Protects the GI mucosa from attack by pepsin and acid

Colloidal bismuth compound (Pepto-Bismol)

13

? Prevents parietal cell acid secretion by direct inhibition of a proton-potassium ATPase

Omeprazole (Prilosec)

14

? Is a gallstone dissolution agent who's use was first described in compendiums of 7th century Chinese folk medicine, and is presumably the active ingredient of dried gallbladders taken from the Himalayan bear

ursodiol (Tagamet) (one test had amoxicillin as the answer)

15

? Convulsant effects are due to GABA receptor antagonism

picrotoxin

16

? May induce long-term depletion of brain serotonin

MDMA

17

? Induces a high incidence of emergence delirium

Phencyclidine

18

Drug X is being tested against the standard chemotherapeutic regimen currently used to treat pancreatic cancer. Initial results of the clinical trial show reduced metastases, indicating potential clinical benefit of drug X. Investigators are considering filing a new drug application (NDA) as their next step. Drug X is currently in what phase of clinical trials?

Phase III

19

A drug that has a high potential for abuse, an approved medical use in the US, and for which no automatic refills can be prescribed is placed in which class of controlled substances?

Schedule II

20

Which of the following must be submitted to the FDA to receive investigational new drug (IND) status?

All (a. chemical synthesis protocols for making the drug,b. informed consent for studies performed in humans, c. toxicology studies performed in animals)

21

Phase I clinical trials serve to

establish the maximum tolerated dose and safety

22

A drug that has a high potential for abuse, and no federally recognized medical use, is placed in which class of controlled substance?

Schedule I

23

Which of the following drugs is not appropriate for tx of GERD?

Ioperamide (Imodium) / (other choices were Tagamet, Mylanta, antimicrobials to eliminate helicobacter pylori)

24

The federal agency that regulates the advertising of prescription drugs is the

Food and Drug Administration

25

The Food and Drug administration regulates all of the following EXCEPT the

Importation of Schedule II drugs (it regulates development of new prescription drugs, approval of new prescription drugs, marketing of prescription drugs, advertising of prescription drugs

26

? A competitive antagonist at histamine H2 receptors

Cimetidine (Tagament)

27

? A noncompetitive inhibitor of the "proton pump", a prodrug which requires an acidic environment for conversion to its active form

Omeprazole (Prilosec)

28

? Physically protects the stomach mucosal lining by selectively binding to damaged surfaces

Sucralfate (Carafate)

29

T/F According to federal law, Schedule 1 drugs can only be prescribed for life threatening diseases

FALSE

30

T/F Phase I clinical trials involve laboratory animal testing to assess the safety and biological activity of new drugs

FALSE

31

T/F The Food and Drug Administration requires data demonstrating the bioavailability, safety, and efficacy of a new prescription drug

TRUE

32

Raloxifene (Evista)

has the properties of B and C (B. reduced the risk of breast and uterine cancers C. prevents postmenopausal osteoporosis)

33

Which of the following contraceptives in contraindicated in women older than 35 who smoke?

the transdermal patch containing ethinyl estradiol and norelgestromin (Ortho evra)

34

Clomiphene citrate

induces ovulation AND is an estrogen receptor antagonist

35

? Has the highest anti-inflammatory activity of the drugs listed above

Dexamethasone (Decadron)

36

? Is an antagonist for the aldosterone receptor

Spironolactone (Aldactone)

37

? Is the drug of choice for the tx of acute adrenocorticol insufficiency

hydrocortisone (cortef)

38

? Inhibits the production of all adrenal steroids

Aminoglutethimide (Cytadren)

39

T/F Contraceptives combining estrogen and progestin may increase the risk of blood clots in older women who smoke

FALSE

40

T/F Clomiphene citrate (Clomid) is a progesterone receptor antagonist used for medical abortion

FALSE

41

Medroxyprogesterone acetate (Depo-Provera)

has an extended half-life compared to progesterone

42

? Is an agonist for the mineralocorticoid receptor

fludrocortisone (Florinef)

43

Molecular targets for antibiotic agents include

all of the above (a. bacterial call wall synthesis, b. bacterial ribosomes, c. bacterial DNA gyrases)

44

Common mechanisms by which bacteria develop resistance to beta-lactam antibiotic drugs include

both A and B (a. spontaneous mutations in the transpeptidases resulting in loss of drug binding b. beta-lactamases that inactivate the drug)

45

A beta-lactam antibiotic that is effective only against Gram(-) bacteria is

aztreonam (Azactam)

46

This antibiotic agent is used most commonly as a surgical prophylaxis to prevent post-op infections

ceftriaxone (Rocephin)

47

This bacterial agent was developed recently (2005) to treat bacterial strains that are resistant to most established antibiotics including MRSA and VR strains

tigecycline (Tygacil)

48

This bacterial agent has been used for decades as the tx of choice for MRSA

vancomycin (Vancocin)

49

This bacteriocidal agent acts of lipids of Gram(-) bacteria to lyse their outer lipid bilayer membrane

polymyxin B (Aerosporin)

50

Which one of the following cell cycle phases is inhibited by cancer chemotherapy drugs?

S

51

The term "targeted cancer therapy" refers to which of the following?

Drugs that selectively target cancer-associated molecules

52

Which of the following describes a mechanism by which a non-specific chemotherapy agent blocks DNA replication?

A drug is a structural analog of a nucleotide required for DNA synthesis

53

Which of the following is an example of an endocrine therapy for cancer treatment?

Drugs that block the activity of aromatase

54

Which of the following factors affects the amount of drug that crosses the placenta?

All (A. levels and activates of placental enzymes that metabolize the drug B. lipid solubility of the drug c. the molecular weight of the drug)

55

Based on the FDA's drug-in-pregnancy rating scale, a category X drug

is contraindicated during pregnancy

56

A pregnant woman consumes a teratogenic agent during weeks 30 to 35 of fetal development. Which of the following fetal defects is most likely to occur?

growth retardation

57

Cocaine and tobacco-associated intrauterine growth retardation occur due to which of the following mechanisms?

restriction of uterine blood vessels

58

? Inhibits bacterial DNA gyrase

Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

59

? Is a sulfonamide rapidly absorbed by the body and used for the tx of systemic bacterial infections

Sulfsoxaxole (Gantrisin)

60

? Is a combination of trimethoprim (Primsol) with sulfamethoxazole

Co-trimoxazole (Bactrim)

61

? Is a aminoglycoside for the tx of patients with TB

Streptomycin

62

? Inhibits mycobacterial cell wall biosynthesis

Isoniazid (INH)

63

? Is the first choice of aminoglycosides due to its low cost and reliable activity

Gentamicin (Garamycin)

64

? Requires herpes viral kinase for activation of its antiviral activity

Acyclovir (Zovirax)

65

? Inhibits influenza A infection by binding to the viral M2 protein

Amantadine (Symmetrel)

66

? Is a triazole used in the tx of fungal meningitis

Fluconazole (Diflucan)

67

? Blocks the biosynthesis of the fungal cell wall

Caspofungin (Cancidas)

68

T/F A future stategy to circumvent bacterial resistance to antibiotic drugs might involve inhibiting bacterial signalling by quorum-sensing

TRUE

69

T/F Sulfonamides are bacterial folate synthesis inhibitors

TRUE

70

T/F For treating multidrug resistant TB patients, "compound drug therapy"/combination therapy is optional

FALSE

71

The antibacterial action of vancomycin (Vancocin) is due to its inhibition of bacterial

cell wall synthesis

72

The antibacterial action of azithromycin (Zithromax) is due to its inhibition of bacterial

protein synthesis

73

Which of of the following drugs is useful for the tx of bacterial infections due to either MRSA or VRE?

daptomycin (Cydectin)

74

Which of the following stategies is being used to develop future drugs that will combat bacterial strains resistant to current drugs?

All (A, develop new synthetic drugs based on old drugs B. search for new natural antibiotics, C. identify new target proteins from the sequenced genomes of resistant bacteria D. Target quorum sensing signaling bt bacteria)

75

An antibiotic that kills only Gram(-) bacteria is classified as

bacteriocidal, narrow-spectrum

76

Cancer chemotherapy targets which of the following cell cycle phases?

Both A and B (A. DNA synthesis (S phase) B. Mitosis (M phase))

77

Which one of the following statements regarding the anti-cancer activity of tamoxifen (Novaldex) is true?

Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator that binds to the estrogen receptor)

78

Which one of the following drugs is a monoclonal antibody against human epidermal growth factor receptor 2?

Trastuzamab (Herceptin)

79

Which of the following statement(s) is true for cancer chemotherapeutic drugs that block DNA syntheses (S phase)

All. A, They may be structural analogs of nucleotides B They may be structural analogs of molecules needed for the synthesis of nucleotides C. They may physically bind DNA and deform its structure)

80

Which of the following statements is true regarding drugs and teratogenesis?

The greater the drug exposure, the more sever the detrimental effects are on the developing fetus.

81

? Is a fluoroquinolone that is used to treat inhalational anthrax

Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

82

? Is a highly soluble sulfonamide used for the treatment of urinary tract infections

Sulfsoxaxole (Gantrisin)

83

? Is a poorly absorbed sulfonamide used for the tx of inflammatory bowel disorders

Sulfasalazine (Azulfidine)

84

? Is a semisynthetic product of kanamycin with decreased tendency for developing drug resistance

Ethambutol (Myambutol)

85

? Inhibits the synthesis of mycolic acid, an essential component in mycobacterial cell wall

Isoniazid (INH)

86

? Is a first-line antiTB agent that inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase in prokaryotic cells

Rifampin (Rifadin)

87

? Is the most commonly used aminoglycoside due to its low cost and reliable antibacterial activity

Gentamicin (Garamycin)

88

T/F Bacterial resistance to antibiotics emerged only recently due entirely to the indiscriminant overuse of antibiotics by humans

FALSE

89

T/F Nearly 15% of americans experience some form of allergic rxn to the Batalactam antibiotics

TRUE

90

T/F Due to its exceptionally broad-spectrum of activity, imipenem/cilastatin (Primaxin) is recommended for use as a first line drug of choice for most bacterial infections

FALSE

91

T/F Amantadine (Symmtrel) targets the M2 protein of the influenza A virus

TRUE

92

T/F For the tx of herpes simplex virus infections, acyclovis (Zovirax) requires viral thymidine kinase for activation

TRUE

93

T/F Fluconazole (Diflucan) is used in the tx of fungal meningitis

TRUE

94

T/F Amphotericin B (Amphocin) inhibits the biosynthesis of ergosterol in the fungal cell membrane

FALSE

95

Which of the following factors significantly contributes to the development of antibiotic drug resistance?

Agricultural feedlots

96

Which of the following mechanisms contributes to the anti-cancer activity of aromatase inhibitors?

inhibition of estrogen production

97

Which of the following drugs is a monoclonal antibody against vascular endothelial growth factor?

bevacizumab (Avastin)

98

Based on the FDA's drug-in-pregnancy rating scale, which of the following drugs is an example of a category X drug?

Thalidomide (Thalomid)

99

? Used historically as an important alternative tx for MRSA

vancomycin (Vancocin)

100

? A semi-synthetic, extended spectrum Beta-lactam antibiotic of the penicillin family

Amoxacillin/clavulante (Augmentin)

101

? Used most commonly as a prophylactic against opportunistic bacterial infections following surgery

Cephtriaxone (Rhocephine)

102

? A safe, broad spectrum antibiotic that binds to the 50S robisomal subunit to inhibit protein synthesis

Azithromycin (Zithromax)

103

? A new generation antibiotic that is effective for the treatment of Gram postive skin infections due to MRSA and VRE

daptomycin (Cydectin)

104

? A drug-of-choice for infections due to intracellular bacteria such as chlamydia

Minocycline (Minocin)

105

? A fluoroquinolone that blocks bacterial DNA gyrase

Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

106

? A sulfonamide rapidly absorbed by the body and used for tx of systemic bacterial infections

Sulfisoxazole (Gantrisin)

107

? Is an aminoglycoside for tx of TB

Streptomycin

108

? Is a broad spectrum antibacterial agent with activity against mycobacterium tb

Rifampin (Rifadin)

109

? Binds to the viral M2 protein and inhibits the uncoating step during viral infection

Amantadine (Symmetrel)

110

T/F a drug induced fever can be a common late allergic rxn to long-course tx with beta-lactam antibiotics

TRUE

111

An example of a phase-non-specific drugs is

cisplatin (Platinol)

112

Which of the following mechanisms contributes to the anti-cancer activity of anthracyclines?

Anthracycline inhibition of topoisomerase II

113

Bleomycin-associated pulmonary fibrosis is likely to occur due to which of the following mechanisms?

Bleomycin hydrolase is not expressed in lung tissue

114

Tobacco-associated intrauterine growth retardation occurs due to which of the following mechanisms?

restriction of uterine blood vessels

115

Hydrocortisone (Cortef)

can activate both the glucocorticoid receptor and the mineralocorticoid receptor

116

Which of the following is an antagonist of the aldosterone receptor?

Spironolactone (Aldactone)

117

The antibacterial action of minocycline (Minocin) is due to its inhibition of bacterial

protein synthesis

118

The antibacterial action of amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin) is due to its inhibition of bacterial

cell-wall synthesis

119

The antibacterial action of Cefepime (Maxiprime) is due to its inhibition of bacterial

cell wall synthesis

120

The antibacterial action of bacitracin (Baciguent) is due to its inhibition of

cell wall synthesis

121

Which of the following drugs is useful for the treatment of Gram-positive bacterial infections of MRSA?

vancomycin (Vancocin)

122

? Inhibits two steps in the bacterial folate biosynthesis pathway

Co-trimoxazole (Bactrim)

123

? Inhibits bacterial dihydrofolate reductase

Trimethoprim (Primsol)

124

? Blocks fungal cell wall biosynthesis through inhibiting glucan synthase

Caspofungin (Cancidas)

125

T/F Drug induced fever is a common allergic reaction to a long-term treatment with Beta-lactam antibiotics

TRUE

126

T/F The addition of antibiotics to livestock food in large-scale agricultural feedlots is a major contributor to community-acquired resistant strains of bacteria

TRUE

127

T/F Future strategies to circumvent antibiotic resistance include the development of new drugs that challenge bug survival (ei that are bactericidal)

FALSE

128

A semi-synthetic, broad spectrum beta-lactam antibiotic is

Amoxacillin/clavulante (Augmentin)

129

This bacterial agent was developed recently to treat bacterial strains that are resistant to most establised antibiotics

daptomycin (Cydectin)

130

The "fractional cell kill" or "log kill" hypothesis of cancer chemotherapy refers to the concept that

Both A and B are correct (A. a set drug concentration given for a defined period of time will kill a constant percentage of cells, independent of the absolute number of cells B. chemotherapy theoretically never reduces the tumor cell population to zero)

131

Antimicrotubule drugs are effective chemotherapy agents bc they

interfere with tubulin polymerization or mircrotubule depolymerization

132

? Is a DNA gyrase inhibitor used in the tx of inhalational anthrax infection

Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)

133

? Is derived from kanamycin with decreased tendency for drug resistance

Amikacin (Amikin)

134

? Is used for the tx of infections by influenza A virus

Amantadine (Symmetrel)

135

? Is a glucan synthase inhibitor that blocks fungal cell wall biosynthesis

Caspofungin (Cancidas)

136

? Targets ergosterol in the fungal cell membrane, leading to channel formation and the loss of intracellular constituents

Amphotericin B (Amphocin)

137

? Is only activated in cells that are infected with herpes simplex virus

Acyclovir (Zovirax)

138

? Is able to cross the blood-brain barrier for the tx of primary brain tumors

Carmustine (BCNU)

139

? Is used for the treatment of breast cancer patients only when their tumor epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) is overexpressed

Doxorubicin (Adriamycin)

140

? Stabilizes polymerized microtubles, leading to mitotic arrest

Paclitaxel (Taxol)

141

? Inhibits thymidylate synthase in tumor cells

Fluorouracil (5-FU)

142

? Blocks peptidoglycan cross-linking during bacterial cell wall synthesis

Amoxacillin/clavulante (Augmentin)

143

? Is primarily responsible for bacterial resistance to both penicillins and cephalosporins

beta-lactamase

144

? Was developed recently for use in specific cases to treat Gram-positive bacterial infections that are resistant to vancomycin

daptomycin (Cydectin)

145

? Binds the 30S ribosome to inhibit protein synthesis in many Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacterial strains

Minocycline (Minocin)

146

T/F Fludrocortisone (Florinef) is used for the tx of acute adrenocortical insufficiency

TRUE

147

T/F Spironolactone (Aldactone) is an antagonist for the aldosterone receptor

TRUE

148

T/F Gram-negative bacteria contain a thick outer cell wall and a single lipid bilayer

FALSE

149

T/F Sirolimus blocks the response of T cells to cytokines

TRUE

150

T/F Weeks 2-8 of human embryonic development are the least sensitive to teratogenic agents

FALSE

151

T/F Most drugs can be teratogenic if given at the right time and dose to a susceptible host

TRUE

152

T/F Thalidomide is an example of a delayed teratogen

FALSE

153

? A strong, or high ceiling, diuretic used to treat chronic and/or severe volume exapanded conditions; for example, edema associated with organ failure

Furosemide (Lasix)

154

? A low ceiling diuretic that inhibits Na-Cl cotransporter in the distal tubule

Hydrochlorothiazide (Hydrodiuil)

155

? A weak diuretic that inhibits carbonic anhydrase in the proximal tubule to inhibit bicarbonate reabsorption

Acetazolamide (Diamox)

156

? An osmotic diuretic that works in the proximal tuble and descending loop of Henle, has a fase onset of action and is used in acute situation such as cerebral edema

Mannitol

157

? A potassium sparing adjuvant diuretic that is an antagonist of collecting duct aldosterone receptors

Spironolactone (Aldactone)