PHARM EXAM 3 Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in PHARM EXAM 3 Deck (243):
1

Which of the following drug classes can be used as the "maintenance" drug in treatment programs for heroin addicts or alcoholics?

Long acting opioid antagonist

2

Morphine can be used to treat all of the following conditions except:

Psychosis

3

Which of the following drug classes is often used in combination with non-opioid analgesics for treatment of moderate pain?

Moderate opioid agonist

4

The mechanisms) of action of short-acting beta-2 adrenergic receptor agonists for the treatment of asthma includes:

bronchodilation

5

Of the following treatments, which is most likely to cause oral candidiasis in a patient with asthma?

Inhaled corticosteroid, such as Fluticasone (Flovent) via metered dose inhaler

6

Which of the following drugs is effective only on targets within the CNS?

Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

7

Which one of the following drugs irreversibly inactivates cyclooxygenaes (COX)?

Acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin)

8

Which of the following statements is true regarding prednisone?

Long term use can lead to suppression of the hypothalamic-pituitary axis

9

Second generation H1 receptor antagonists used in the treatment of seasonal allergy:

do not cross the blood-brain barrier in appreciable amounts

10

Which one of the following mechanisms in NOT responsible for the therapeutic effect of glucocorticoids in the treatment of inflammation?

Blocking H2 receptors

11

Which of the following types of drugs is most commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis?

Antibody against tumor necrosis factor TNF

12

? Is a tumor necrosis factor (TNF) alpha antagonist used for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis

Etanercept (Enbrel)

13

? Is a small molecule immunosuppressant for the treatment of most rheumatoid arthritis

Methotrexate (MTX)

14

? Inhibits uric acid biosynthesis for the treatment of chronic gout

Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

15

? Is used in patients with acute gout attack

Indomethacin (Indocin)

16

T/F An opioid partial agonist is a drug that has an agonist effect of alpha opioid receptors and an antagonist effect on mu opioid receptors

FALSE

17

T/F A short acting beta-2 adrenergic receptor agonist should be prescribed for a patient with occasional asthma symptoms, such as individuals subject only to intermittent episodes of exercise-induced asthma

TRUE

18

T/F All drugs administed by aerosol route of delivery only reach the airway surface, can never be absorbed into the body, and therefore have no systemic side effects

FALSE

19

T/F 5'lipoxygenase (5LO) is upstream of prostaglandin synthesis

FALSE

20

Which of the following drugs directly activates mu opioid receptors?

Methadone (Dolophine)

21

Which of the following is true about second generation H1 receptor antagonists?

They do not cross the blood-brain barrier to the levels observed with first generation H1 antagonists

22

Infliximab is useful in treatine rheumatoid arthritis because

it binds to TNF-alpha and prevents the cytokine from binding to its receptor

23

Cortisol

is characterized by neither A or B (A. is a long acting glucocorticoid B has minimal salt-retaining activity)

24

Which of the following statements is TRUE about glucocorticoids?

Abrubt withdrawal of glucocorticoids in patients can lead to acute adrenal insufficiency

25

Which one of the following drugs blocks the synthesis of ALL eicosanoids?

Prednisone (Deltasone)

26

Which one of the following drugs acts directly on COX enzymes as an irreversible inhibitor of enzyme activity?

Acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin)

27

? Increases the excretion of uric acid in the treatment of gout

Probenecid (Benemid)

28

? Is the drug of choice for the treatment of most rheumatoid arthritis through inhibition of dihydrofolate reductase

Methotrexate (MTX)

29

? Antagonizes the action of IL-1 for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis

Anakinra (Kineret)

30

? Is an antagonist of muscarinic cholinergic receptors and is especially useful in treating patients with nocturnal and exercise induced asthma

Ipratropium (Atrovent)

31

? Is a short-acting agonist selective for beta-2 adrenergic receptors and functions as a bronchodilator

Albuterol (Provent)

32

? Is a long-acting agonist of beta-2 adrenergic receptors; rare episodes of asthma symptom exacerbations have raised concerns over its use

Salmeterol (Serevent)

33

T/F Montelukast NA (Singulair) is useful for treating gastric ulcers that result from chronic use of NSAIDs

FALSE

34

Methadone (Dolophine) is used for

relief of withdrawal symptoms in morphine addicts

35

Which of the following statements is false?

FALSE: Repeated use of morphine produces tolerance to the pupil-constricting and constipating effects of the drug

36

Which of the following drugs is used as a "maintenance" drug in treatment programs for opioid addicts?

Naltrexone (ReVia)

37

Which of the following drugs is useful for treating gastric ulcers due to chronic use of NSAIDs?

Misopristol (Cytotec)

38

A key difference between 1st and 2nd generation H1-histamine receptor antagonists is that the 2nd generation drugs:

don't cross the BBB efficiently

39

The mechanisms of pharmacologic glucocorticoid action include

ALL OF THE ABOVE (A. binding to intracellular receptor proteins that participate in the control of gene transcription B. increasing levels of intracellular regulators such as lipocortin and IkB which fxn to suppress inflammatory pathways C. Suppression of the fxn of several types of immune system cells

40

Which of the following immunomodulatory agents is most likely to elicit flu-like symptoms as a side-effect?

Interferon Beta-1a (Avonex

41

? Inhibits the re-absorption of uric acid for the treatment of gout

Probenecid (Benemid)

42

? Is the drug of choice for the treatment of most rheumatoid arthritis

Methotrexate (MTX)

43

? Antagonizes the action of tumor necrosis factor (TNF) alpha for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis

Etanercept (Enbrel)

44

? Inhibits xanthine oxidase, leading to decreased uric acid production for the treatment of chronic gout

Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

45

? Beta-2 adrenergic receptor selective agonist

Albuterol (Provent)

46

? Bronchodilator, inhibits cAMP phosphodiesterase and is also an antagonist of A3 adenosine receptors

Theophyline

47

? Membrane stabilizer and inhibitor of mast cell degranulation

Cromolyn sodium (Intal)

48

? Antagonist of M1-muscarinic cholinergic receptors that are expressed in airway smooth muscle cells

Ipratropium (Atrovent)

49

T/F Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is useful for treating inflammatory responses

FALSE

50

T/F Celecoxib (Celebrex) non-selectively blocks the actions of both COX-1 and COX-2 equally well

FALSE

51

T/F Eicosanoids regulate both vasodilation and vasoconstriction relating to inflammation

TRUE

52

T/F Compared to the glucocorticoids cortisol and dexamethasone, prednisone is intermediate in terms of duration of action, anti-inflammatory activity and mineralcorticoid effects

TRUE

53

Beclomethasone (Beclovent)

suppresses pulmonary inflammatory processes via diverse immunosuppressive effects

54

Aerosol drug delivery is

a means to treat patients with reduced total drug dosage compared to systemic administration of the same drug

55

Albuterol (Ventolin)

ALL (A. is a selective agonist for beta-2 adrenergic receptors B. is available in oral and aerosol C. can cause tachycardia D. treats either acute or chronic asthma)

56

Which of the following statements is true regarding Cetirizine (Zyrtec)?

Cetirizine (Zyrtec) binds to a cell surface receptor to exert its theraputic effect

57

Natalizumab (Tysabri)

decreases entry of activated T cells into the CNS

58

? Used in the treatment of bronchial asthma and acute pulmonary edema

Theophyline (Theolair)

59

? Is used as an anchor agent for combination therapy in treating rheumatoid arthritis

Methotrexate (MTX)

60

? Is a uricosuric drug that enhances the renal excretion of uric acid

Probenecid (Benemid)

61

T/F Naltrexone (ReVia) is an opioid antagonist used as a "maintenance" drug in treatment programs for opioid addicts or alcoholics

TRUE

62

T/F Compared with morphine, the mixed opioid agonist-antagonist buprenorphine (Buprenex) produced effects that are more easily reversed by naloxone (Narcan)

FALSE

63

T/F Repeated use of morphine produces cross-tolerance to the analgesic effect of methadone (Dolophine)

TRUE

64

T/F Rofecoxib (Vioxx) is a direct, selective inhibitor of phospholipase A2

FALSE

65

T/F Both glucocorticoids (eg Prednisone) and aspirin block eicosanoid production by the same molecular mechanism

FALSE

66

T/F Both ibuprophen (Advil) and naproxen (Alleve) block eicosanoid production by the same molecular mechanism

TRUE

67

T/F Montelukast NA (Singulair) is used clinically for the chronic mgmt of asthma

TRUE

68

T/F Methylxanthines (eg theophylline) are well-tolerated bronchodilator drugs with very few side effects

FALSE

69

T/F Long term use of prednisone can lead to suppression of the hypothalmic-pituitary axis

TRUE

70

T/F Glatiramer acetate (Copaxone) is a Type 1 Interferon used in the treatment of MS

FALSE

71

Loratidine (Claritan)

is a histamine-H1 receptor antagonist

72

Which statement is true regarding prednisone?

Long term use can lead to suppression of the hypothalamic-pituitary axis

73

Interferon B-1a (Avonex)

decreases entry of activated T cells into the CNS

74

In the treatment of asthma, glucocorticoid

suppress multiple pulmonary inflammatory processes

75

Aerosol drug delivery for asthmatics is

a strategy to more selectively target drugs to their intended site of action compared to alternative routes of administration

76

T/F Probenecid (Benemid) is used for rapid relief from acute attakes of gouty arthritis

FALSE

77

T/F Allopurinol (Zyloprim) decreases uric acid production by inhibiting xanthine oxidase activity

TRUE

78

T/F Low does weekly therapy with methotrexate (MTX) is widely used for treatment of rheumatoid arthritis

TRUE

79

T/F Etanercept (Enbrel) is a tumor necrosis factor TNF antagonist used for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis

TRUE

80

T/F The weak opioid agonist codeine can be used in combination with aspirin for treatment of moderate pain

TRUE

81

T/F Chronic treatment with high doses of acetaminphen (Tylenol) can produce gastric ulcers

TRUE

82

T/F Aspirin, acetaminophen (Tylenol), and naproxen (Alleve) are equally effective anti-inflammatory agents

FALSE

83

T/F The therapeutic actions of montelukast NA (Singulair) are due to its capacity to directly bind 5-LO and inhibit the formation of leukotrienes

FALSE

84

T/F Misoprostol (Cyotec) is an agonist for prostaglandin receptors present on gastric epithelial cells in the gut that stimulate the secretion of prottective mucus and bicarbonate

TRUE

85

T/F M1 muscarinic receptor antagonists such as ipratropium (Atrovent) are an excellent drug choice for a patient showing nocturnal symptoms of asthma

TRUE

86

An unexpected compensatory CV reflex that occurs when a hypertensive patient is treated with a vasodilator could involve

An increase in heart rate, an increase in the force of cardiac contraction, and an increase in sodium and water retention

87

Antihypertensive drugs lower blood pressure by reducing either total peripheral resistance and/or

either A or B (A. cardiac output B. heart rate/and or stroke volume)

88

Which of the following antihypertensive drug classes directly binds to and block L-type Ca channels

Dihydropyridines

89

Alpha-2 adrenergic receptor agonists as antihypertensive drugs

D. have all the above properties (A. include clonidine, B. act by reducing sympathetic ouflow from the brain C. are used currently only in patients whose hypertension is not well controlled by other drugs)

90

Which of the following best explains the antihypertensive mechanism of action for losartan (Cozaar)?

directly blocks AT1 angiotensin receptors

91

Which of the following statements accurately describes the treatment approac for patients with HBP?

ALL. (A. life style modifications B. Thiazide diuretics for patients with stage 1 HTN C. two drug combo for stage II HTN)

92

When used for the treatment of angina, nitroglycerin (Nitrostat)

reduced myocardial work by decreasing preload

93

The signs and symptoms of angina pectoris are

due to an excess of cardiac oxygen demany over oxygen supply

94

Non-dihydropyridine-type CA channel blocking drugs, eg verapamil (Calan) can be used as anti-anginal agents bc they

ALL of the above (A. lower peripheral vascular resistance B. inhibit coronary artery spasm, C reduce contractility of cardiac myocytes

95

Digitalis glycosides

A and B (A. have a small therapeutic index value, B. enhance contractility by indirectly increasing the intracellular free Ca concentration in cardiac myocytes

96

Which of the following mechanisms can reduce mortality in the pharmacologic treatment of heart failure?

All (A. interference with the peripheral actions of angiotensinII B. prevention of cardiac beta-1 adrenergic receptor activation C. blockade of aldosterone receptors)

97

ACE inhibitors

ALL (A. prevent AT1 angiotensin receptors from being activated B. reduce the synthesis of angiotensin II C. increase levels of bradykinin)

98

Warfarin (Coumadin)

ALL (A. inhibits vitamin k-dependent synthesis of clotting factors, B. in contraindicated in pregnancy, C. does not elicit anticoagulation effects in vitro)

99

Synthetic heparins

preferentially inhibit active coagulation factor X(Xa)

100

Streptokinase (Streptase)

is a non-enzymatic plasminogen activator

101

Which of the following drugs inhibits the ADP receptor on platelets?

Clopidogrel (Plavix)

102

Vaughan-Williams Class I

Sodium Channel Blockers

103

Vaughn-Williams Class II

Beta receptor blockers

104

Vaughn-Williams Class III

Potassium Channel Blockers

105

Vaughn-Williams Class IV

Ca Channel Blockers

106

Which of the following are used to classify anti-arrhythmic drugs according to the Vaughn-Williams method

NONE of the abve (A. low therapeutic index, B. cost, C. pro-arrhythmic potential)

107

According to the Vaughn-Williams classification of anti-arrhythmic drugs, lidocaine is a

class I drug that is most effective on active cardiac tissue

108

Amiodarone (Cordarone)

class III drug that binds to activated channels

109

Bile acid sequestrants

act locally in the small intestine

110

Which of the following statements is true regarding LDL?

regulation of liver LDL receptor levels is the dominant mechanism for controlling LDL levels in humans

111

HMG CoA reductase inhibitors

block a rate limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis

112

Nicotinic acid (niacin)

inhibits the rate-limiting step in tri-glyceride synthesis

113

Which one of the following drugs selectively blocks the activity of 5-LO?

Zileuton (Zyflo)

114

Which one of the following drugs acts directly on COX enzymes as a reversible inhibitor of enzyme activity?

Naproxen (Aleve)

115

Which one of the following drugs is least expected to cause gastric ulcers?

Acetaminophen (Tylenol)

116

? Is an antagonist of lekotreine D4 receptors

Montelukast Na (Singulair)

117

? Is selective for beta-2 adrenergic receptors and causes bronchodilation

Albuterol (Provent)

118

? Inhibits IgE from binding to its receptor

Omalizumab

119

? Inhibits mast cell degranulation

Cromolyn sodium (Intal)

120

? Treats rheumatoid arthritis through inhibition of dihydofolate reductase

Methotrexate (MTX)

121

? A NSAID widely used for patients with acute gout

Indomethacin (Indocin)

122

? Blocks the action of tumor necrosis factor (TNF) alpha for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis

Etanercept (Enbrel)

123

T/F Propanolol (Inderal) is more selective for beta-1 adrenergic receptors than is metoprolol (Lopressor)

FALSE

124

T/F Endogenous vasoconstrictor hormones, neurotransmitters and autacoids elicit smooth muscle contraction by stimulating an increase of calcium ion within the muscle cell cytosol

TRUE

125

Combination anti-anginal therapy can include beta-adrenergic receptor antagonists with either nitrovasodilators or Ca channel blockers

TRUE

126

Current drug treatment of heart failer involces activating the neuro-humoral systems that increase peripheral vascular resistance and fluid and salt retention in order to incrase cariac output

FALSE

127

The COX-2 hypothesis states the COX-2 mediates most cellular "house-keeping" fxns whereas COX-1 mediates most adverse rxns associated with inflammation

FALSE

128

Which of the following best explains the antihypertensive mechanism of action for lisinopril (Prinivil)

reduces angiotensin II levels

129

The signs and symptoms of angina pectoris are

attributed partly to pain fibers stimulated by metabolites released from cells within ischemic tissue

130

Dihydropyridine-type Ca Channel blocking drugs eg nifedipine (Procardia) are useful anti-anginal agents bc they can

A and B (lower peripheral vascular resistance B. inhibit coronary artery spasm)

131

Digitalis glycosides

increase the intracellular free Ca concentration in cadiac myocytes

132

The so-called "vicious cycle of heart failure" involves all of the following except:

peripheral vasodilation

133

Alteplase (Activase)

is a tissue plasminogen activtor

134

Aspirin

irreversibly inhibits COX

135

Which one of the following drugs selectively inhibits factor Xa

low molecular weight heparin

136

Atorvastatin (Lipitor)

blocks a rate-limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis

137

Nicotonic acid (niacin)

increase the activity of lipoprotein lipase

138

Which of the following is true about glucocorticoids?

Abrubt withdrawal of glucocorticoids in patients can lead to acute adrenal insufficiency

139

Ipratropium (Atrovent)

D. has none of the above (A. suppresses pulmonary inflam processes B. is an antaginist of leukotriene receptors C. binds to and inhibits ion channels controlling mast cell degranulation)

140

Which one of the following drugs blocks arachidonic acid synthesis

Dexamethasone (Decadron)

141

Which one of the following drugs is useful for the long term management of asthma

Montelukast Na (Singulair)

142

Which one of the following drugs has gastic ulcers as one of its major side effects?

Acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin)

143

T/F Metoprolol is more selective for beta-1 adrenergic receptors than propranolol

TRUE

144

T/F Endogenous vasoconstrictor hormones, neurotransmitters and autacoids elicit smooth muscle contraction by stimulating the production of the second messengers cAMP and cGMP

FALSE

145

T/F Cholestryamine (Questran is the first choice drug for any patient with elevated LDL levels

FALSE

146

T/F Zileuton (Zyflo) is commonly used in the treatment of COPD

FALSE

147

T/F Combination anti-anginal therapy can include using beta-adrenergic receptor antagonists with either nitrovasodilators or CCBs

TRUE

148

Which of the following physiological reflexes is LEAST likely to occur in a hypertensive pt taking a short acting dihydropyridine CCB for the first time

reduced sympathetic nervous system activity

149

Which of the following statements best explains what determines arterial blood pressure

A and B( A. MAP = CO x TPR B. MAP = SV x HR x TPR

150

The main objective of drug therapy in patients diagnosed with primary hypertension is to

bring their BP back down witin the normal range

151

Amiodarone (Cordarone)

prolongs the cardiac action potential and increases the QT interval

152

? An AT1 receptor antagonist that blocks angiotensin II's effects in resistance arterioles and in the adrenal gland

Losartan (Cozaar)

153

? A non-selective antagonist of beta-adrenergic receptors

Propranolol (inderal)

154

? Inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme, blocking the formation of angiotensin II from angiotensin 1

Lisinopril (Prinivil)

155

? Causes transient reduction in total body fluid volume, but when that diuretic effect diminished, the drug has a sustained antihypertensive effect

Hydrochlorothiazide (hydrodiuril)

156

? Decreases fat soluble vitamin absorption as a side effect

bile acid sequestrant

157

? The most effective pharmacologic inducer of HDL levels

niacin

158

? Inhibits the rate-limiting enzyme of cholesterol biosynthesis in the hepatocyte

HMG CoA reductase inhibitor

159

? Selectively inhibits cholesterol absorption by enterocytes

ezetimibe (zetia)

160

Beta-adrenergic receptor antagonists are useful antianginal drugs because they

attenuate exercise-induced tachycardia

161

When used for the treatment of angina, which of the following statements about nitroglycerin is false?

it directly reduces caridac rate and contractility (FALSE about nitroglyerin)

162

Which of the following mechanisms do not contribute to reduced mortality in the pharm treatment of heart failure

blocked of cardiac slow calcium channels

163

When used for the treatment of heart failure, which of the following statements about ACE inhibitors is FALSE

the decrease venous capacitance

164

T/F The mechanism of action of drugs used for the treatment of angina pectoris that is precipitated by exercise or emotional stress is dilation of coronary arteries and restoration of blood flow to the ischemic myocardium

FALSE

165

T/F Currrent drugs of choice for the treatment of heart failure act primarily to increase the force of cardiac contraction

FALSE

166

All of the following mechanisms contribute to reduced mortality in the pharm treatment of heart failure except

increased excretion of salt and water produced by diuretics

167

When used for the treatment of heart failure, potential side effects associated with the use of ACE inhibitors include

A and B, cough and hyperkalemia

168

The preferred pharmacological therapy for the treatment of heart failure is directed toward

reducing the workload of the heart

169

Which of the following statements about nitroglycerin (nitrostat) is false?

It reduces sympathetic activity to the heart

170

Calcium channel blockers are useful for the treatment of angina pectoris because they

A and B. reduce afterload and reduce coronary artery vasospasm

171

Which of the following physiological mechanisms does NOT contribute to the antianginal efficacy of the beta-adrenergic blocking drugs?

relaxation of venuos smooth muscle

172

Nicotinic acid (niacin)

increases VLDL catabolism

173

Minoxidil

ALL. (A. binds to and opens potassium channels, causing membrane hyperpolarization and indirectly impairing Ca conductance through L-type Ca2+ channels B. is so powerful that its use is restricted to severe hypertension, hypertensive emergencies, and hypertension uncontrolled by other drugs

174

T/F The principle means by which cardiac glycosides (eg digitalis) bring about circulatory improvement in CHF is by direct dilation of renal arterioles, thereby promoting the excretion of excess extracellular fluid volume.

FALSE

175

T/F Most drugs used to treat typical angina increase total coronary blood flow and the amount of oxygen delivered to the heart

FALSE

176

T/F Low molecular weight heparin selectively inhibits thrombin

FALSE

177

Class IV antiarrhythmic drugs

increase the PR interval on the electrocardiogram

178

Amiodarone (Cordarone)

blocks K+ channels

179

Arrhythmias due to re-entry

ALL. (A. can be treated with adenosine (Adenocard) B. may result from MI C. result from improper conduction of action potentials)

180

Which of the following mechanisms to not contribute to the beneficial effects of ACE inhibitors when they are used for the treatment of heart failure?

increased intracellular Ca concentration in the cardiac myocytes

181

When used for the treatment angina pectoris, which if the following statements about organic nitrates is FALSE?

They markedly dilate myocardial coronary arterioles in the ischemic zone

182

The mechanism for minoxidil's (loniten) antihypertensive action involves

hyperpolarizing vascular smooth muscle cell membranes

183

Cholestyramine (Qeustran)

acts locally in the small intestine

184

When used for the treatment of angina pectoris, which of the following drug combinations has the greatest potential to produce adverse effects on cardiac performance?

verapamil and propranolol

185

Which of the following drugs is contraindicated in patients with MI?

propafenone (Rhythmol)

186

Class I antiarrhythmic drugs

are more effective in rapidly beating myocardium

187

Ezetimibe

acts locally in the small intestine

188

Cardiovascular reflexes resulting from vasodilation can include

increased heart rate

189

The antihypertensive mechanism of action of clinidine (Catapres) involves

activation of CNS alpha-2 adrenergic receptors leading to a reduction in sympathetic ouflow from the brain

190

? Blocks the synthesis of thromboxane A2 (TXA2) in platelets

Aspirin

191

? Inhibits vitamin K-dependent carboxylation of clotting factors

Warfarin (Coumadin)

192

? Preferentially inhibits coagulation factor Xa

Enoxaparin (Lovenox)

193

? Prevents binding of fibrinogen to glycoprotein Iib/Iia receptors on platelets

Abciximad (ReoPro)

194

? Short-acting forms of this CCB are contraindicated in patients with underlying coronary vascular disease

Nifedipine (Procardia)

195

? A venous and arterial vasodilator that is administered intravenously for hypertensive emergencies

Sodium Nitroprusside

196

? An antagonist of beta-adrenergic receptors

Propranolol (inderal)

197

? At therapeutic levels the CCB can bind to and inhibit both cardiac and smooth muscle L-type calcium channels

Diltiazem (Cardizem)

198

T/F The typical dose of beta-adrenergic receptor antagonists that is used for the initial treatment of heart failure is equilavent to that used for the initial treatment of hypertension

FALSE

199

T/F Atorcastatin (Lipitor) selectively inhibits cholesterol absorption by enterocytes

FALSE

200

T/F Nicotinic acid (niacin) inhibits the rate limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis

FALSE

201

T/F Mild hypertension never requires therapeutic intervention, which should be strictly reserved for patients diagnosed with either moderate or severe hypertension

FALSE

202

In patients with heart failure, aldosterone receptor antagonists would likely have which of the following effects on the action of digitalis glycosides?

Inhibit digitalis glycoside action

203

Centrally acting antihypertensive drugs

ALL. (A. include the alpha2 adrenergic receptor agonist clonidine (Catapres) B. have several unpleasant side-effects C. reduce sympathetic outflow D. are usually reserved for use in patients whose hypertention is not well-controlled by other drugs)

204

Thiazide diuretics reduce blood pressure in hypertensive patient by

reducing peripheral vascular resistance

205

ACE inhibitors

reduce angiotensin II levels

206

One mechanism of the antihypertensive action of beta-1 adrenergic receptor antagonists is to

reduce cardiac output

207

? Impairs adenosine disphosphate (ADP) mediated platelet activation

Clopidogrel (Plavix)

208

? Preferentially activates plasminogen in the thrombus

Alteplase (Activase)

209

? Can slow sinus rhythm and may cause hypotension

verapamil (calan)

210

? Shortens the atrial action potential by activating a K+ channel

Adenosine (Adenocard)

211

? Used to treat ventricular arrhyhmias and prolongs the refractory period

Amiodarone (Cordarone)

212

? Can increase pacing thresholds and slow conduction velocity

propafenone (Rhythmol)

213

T/F A combination of hydralazine and isosorbide dinatrate can reduce mortality in African-Americans with severe heart diasease

TRUE

214

T/F The homogenous form of familial hypercholesterolemia is successfully treated with HMG reductase inhibitors

FALSE

215

T/F Cholestyramine (Questran) inhibits the rate-limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis

FALSE

216

T/F High levels of cholesterol within hepatocytes lead to a decrease in the transcription of the LDL receptor gene

TRUE

217

T/F Treatment with minoxidil (loniten) is considered a first line therapy for the treatment of mild hypertension

FALSE

218

T/F A common reflex response to pharmacologic vasodilation. Irrespective of the drug used, is an increase in sympathetic nervous system activity

TRUE

219

After ingestion into the stomach, which of the following drugs used for treatment of angina pectoris is most susceptible to first-pass metabolism in the liver?

Isosorbide Dinitrate (Sorbitrate)

220

Captopril (Capoten)

inhibits angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)

221

? A class IV antiarrhythmic drug that slows sinus rhythm and AV nodal conduction velocity

verapamil (calan)

222

? A drug with prominent local anesthetic properties that is used to treat ventricular arrhythmias

lidocaine

223

? Antiarrythmic drug that prolongs the QT interval on the electrocardiogram

Amiodarone (Cordarone)

224

Class II antiarrhythmic drug used in the treatment of supraventricular arryhthmias

Propranolol (inderal)

225

Mycophenolate mofetil (Cellcept) is an effective immunosuppresant drug bc it

Inhibits inosine monophospahte dehydrogenase (IMPDH)

226

Prednisone

binds to FK8P12 to exert its immunosuppresive action

227

The calcineurin pathway is essential for

nuclear import of the transcription of NFAT

228

Binding of cytokines to immune cells can lead to activation of mTOR and the subsequent phosphorylation of p7056 kinase, which is necessary for cell cycle progression. This activation of mTOR is prevented by

sirolimus (Rapamune)

229

Inhibition of the phosphatase calcineurin is important for the immunosuppresive action of

A and B (cyclosporin A (Sandimmune) and Tacrolimus (Prograf)

230

Azathioprine (Imuran)

acts as an immunosuppresive by none of the above mechanisms (A. ihibits the immune response of foreign antigens by acting at multiple targets B. stimulates the response of T cells to cytokines C. inhibits translocation of the transcription factor NF-KB to the nucleus D. binds to an immunophilin to exert its immunosuppressive action)

231

Daclizumad (Zenapax)

blocks interleukin 2 signaling

232

Mycophenolate mofetil (Cellcept)

inhibits inosine monophosphate dehydrogenase

233

Cyclosporine A (Sandimmune)

inhibits NFAT-mediated transcription of specific cytokine genes

234

Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)

blocks antigen recognition

235

Prednisone (Deltasone)

can inhibit the nuclear import of the transcription factor NF-KB

236

Sirolimus (Rapamune) is an effective immunosuppresant drug because it

binds to the immunophilin FKBP12

237

? Blocks antigen recognition

Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)

238

? Inhibits NFAT-mediated transcription of specific cytokine genes

Cyclosporine A (Sandimmune)

239

? Is an inhibitor of DNA synthesis

Mycophenolate mofetil (Cellcept)

240

? Is an inhibitor of mTOR

Sirolimus (Rapamune)

241

Tacrolimus (Prograf)

inhibits NFAT-mediated transcription of specific cytokine genes

242

Prednisone (Deltasone)

inhibits the immune response to foreign antigens by acting at multiple targets

243

? Provides relief from acute gouty attacks

Indomethacin (Indocin)