1
Q
Before reporting to MARFOR in support of combat operations, what course is afforded to medical department officers that are clinical providers?
A
Advanced combat life support
2
Q
The course quota and management control for the successful development, training, and effectiveness for all HSS
personnel is managed by what entity?
A
NETC
3
Q
Implementing a formal Sick Call Screeners Program is the responsibility of what entity?
A
CO
4
Q
Aboard a ship, what minimum percentage of all electrical/electronic associated ratings are required to be certified in Basic Life Support?
A
50%
5
Q
The commanding officer should receive
NAMED Form 6320/19 by what specific time each day?
A
0830-930
6
Q
Commander, Navy Medicine East, Portsmouth, VA falls under what echelon?
A
3
7
Q
To ensure that the professional conduct of a healthcare provider is not called into question, what instruction provides specific guidelines?
A
BUMEDINST 6320.83 Standbys During Med Exam
8
Q
What instruction provides policy regarding medical and dental treatment facilities customer relations program?
A
BUMEDINST 6300.10
9
Q
In a joint operational environment, what position is responsible for the management, validation, and coordination of patient movement?
A
Patient Movement Requirements Center or joint force surgeon
10
Q
In a joint operational environment, what database is normally used to
submit patient movement requests?
A
Theater Medical Information Program
11
Q
Guidance is provided to MTEs for the preparation and submission of dental special and periodic reports in what reference?
A
NAVMED P-117 Manual of Med Dept
12
Q
Extension requests for directives should be submitted via action memorandum at what minimum number of days prior to the 5-year anniversary date?
A
90
13
Q
With regard to medical records, when Army, Navy, and Air Force procedures differ, Navy custodians should comply with what services’ instructions?
A
Navy
14
Q
Guidelines for examining a child with suspected abuse are contained in what instruction?
A
BUMEDINST 6320.70 FAP
15
Q
For correspondence, what specific number of lines below the signature block should you type the “Copy to” block?
A
Two
16
Q
Periodic health assessments will be considered overdue when not conducted within what maximum number of days following the annual due date?
A
90
17
Q
As part of a readiness laboratory study, at what time are reserve component personnel tested for HIV?
A
When called to active duty for more than 30 days, and if they have had no HIV test within the last 2 years.
18
Q
A deployable unit’s overall readiness status based on their training and platform billet assignment/fill rate describes what term?
A
R-status
19
Q
Direct and indirect care providers that come within three feet of patients should receive and maintain what appropriate vaccination?
A
Influenza
20
Q
When the primary IA candidate is unable to fulfill their obligation, Echelon 3 has what maximum number of business days to activate an alternate?
A
1
21
Q
What readiness status measures the percentage of operational billets filled in EMPARTS?
A
P
22
Q
The total AMAL/ADAL allocated to a marine expeditionary force is designed to provide support for what maximum number of days of combat?
A
60
23
Q
BSO-18 Sailor has been identified to deploy with the FME, and they choose not to extend their PRD to match the redeployment date, which of the following actions should be taken?
A
Request inbound replacement to arrive early
24
Q
Select the platform that has the highest manning priority.
A
MARFOR
25
Commanding officers for the Expeditionary Medical Facilities are recommended by what authority?
BUMED
26
When the Navy Medical Department is filing health records, what system is used?
TDFS Terminal Digit Filing System
27
After a patient is deceased Autopsy should be placed in what Part of the HREC?Â
II
28
When it pertains to the Health Care Treatment Record, which of the following personnel is the responsible official for administering and supervising the execution of the Navy's Privacy Act Program?
Surgeon General of the Navy
29
During the course of litigation, the release of medical records to federal, state, or administrative bodies is governed by what SECNAV instruction?
5820.8 Release of Official Info for Litigation
30
An active duty health record is closed for (a) which of the following reasons, and documented on (b) what form?
(a)Prolonged inpatient care
(b) SF 539
31
A member is officially declared a deserter. A chronological history of ships and stations he was assigned to for duty and treatment should be documented on what form?
NAVMED 6150/4
32
When a member is placed on the binnacle list, the entry should be recorded on what SF?
600
33
To document a patient's signed consent for sedation, general anesthesia, and surgical treatment, what SF should be completed?
522
34
Specialty clinics or service departments maintain which of the following medical records?
Secondary
35
When documenting immunizations on the
PHS-731, which of the following entries requires an authentication stamp?
Yellow Fever
36
DD Form 2876 should be used for what type of TRICARE eligibility?
Prime
37
TRICARE For Life coverage begins at what time?
When Medicare Part A & B are effective
38
Under the TRICARE Dental Program, what is the annual maximum benefit coverage for non-orthodontic services, per enrollee?
$1,500
39
The ability of TRICARE Prime beneficiaries to pay additional out-of-pocket costs to receive non-emergency care from any TRICARE-authorized provider without requesting a referral is provided by what option?
POS Point Of Service
40
Authorized providers that are not part of the TRICARE network of civilian providers can charge beneficiaries up to what maximum percentage above the TRICARE-allowable charge for services?
15
41
Under what TRICARE option is the beneficiary authorized to use a non-network provider?
Select
42
Patients that request non-emergency treatment without a valid ID card, but are in the DEERS database, should provide a valid ID card within what maximum amount of time before being referred for billing?
30 days
43
Eligibility for care at MTEs is contained in what NAVMEDCOM instruction?
6320.3
44
Newborns should be registered in DEERS within what specific number of days (a)CONUS and (b) OCONUS?
(a) 90
120(b)
45
Under the DEERS eligibility exceptions list, which of the following personnel
are authorized care with no prior military service?
Secret service agents
46
Ensuring that target performance goals (TPGs) resulting from strategic planning processes and patient satisfaction surveys are met is the responsibility of what entity?
Navy Medicine Regions
47
Considered a lawful general order, personnel should be subjected to disciplinary and administrative action when they violate which of the following provisions?
Navy's policy on drug abuse
48
Once a service member from a special community returns to duty from TLD, a Medical Assessment Screening (MAS) report should be submitted within what maximum number of days?
15
49
All malpractice claims are subject to review under what program?
Customer Relations
50
After a Judge Advocate General investigation, A inquiries records should be retained for what minimum number of years?
2
51
You are asked to start up QA Program at your command and you want to find the principle and standards set by the Joint Commission. You should consult what references?
OPNAVINST 6320.7 and BUMEDINST
6010.13
52
The annual A assessment report is required to be submitted to BUMED by what date?
15 January
53
After an unprofessional customer interaction, HM2 Brush is seeking detailed information about patient rights and responsibilities. HM2 Brush should refer to what BUMED instruction?
6300.10 customers relations program
54
What authority conducts inspections on behalf of BUMED?
The Joint Commission
55
Medical ethics and patient confidentiality in laboratory practices are regulated by which of the following
entities?
Department of Health and Human Services
56
The HIPAA Privacy Rule is guided by what instruction?
DODINST 6025.18
57
Civilians that require a medical examination for respirator use should complete what form?
OPNAV 5100/35
58
High Efficiency Particulate Air (HEPA) filters used on a particulate air-purifying respirator should be what color?
Magenta
59
When using an air-purifying respirator, what minimum oxygen percentage, by volume, should be present?
19.5%
60
The industrial hygiene survey should be updated at what specific frequency?
Every 3 years
61
An individual enrolled in the Hearing Conservation Program is required to have a hearing test performed at what minimum frequency?
Every year
62
Guidelines for the management of infectious waste are contained in what reference?
BUMEDINST 6280.1
63
A medical clinic that provides occupational health exams has what maximum number of days to complete a pre-placement or formal fitness for duty exam in order to meet access to care guidelines?
7
64
An area is considered at risk for potentially hazardous noise when there is continuous or intermittent noise greater than what specific DB?
84
65
Heat stress surveys that result in reduced stay times should be reviewed and initialed, daily, by what individual?
CO
66
To determine the correct stay time using the PHEL curve, you should use what OPNAV instruction?
5100.19
67
Hazard severity is divided into what total number of categories?
Four
68
Which of the following diseases is a major infectious occupational health hazard for all healthcare professions?
HBV
69
Hanging dry bulb thermometers should be placed what minimum distance from any supply ventilation terminal/opening?
2
70
All occupational injuries and illness are required to be reported through what system?
WESS
71
Vending machines that dispense only non-potentially hazardous food should be inspected at what minimum frequency?
EVERY QUARTER
72
Supervising the person-in-charge in a galley is the responsibility of what individual?
FOOD manager
73
A significant threat or danger to health in the food service environment that requires the cessation of operations in order to prevent injury or illness is known by what term?
IMMINENT HEALTH HAZARD
74
Aboard naval ship, bacteriological testing of the potable water system is conducted at what minimum frequency?
EVERY WEEK
75
When at sea shipboard laundry facilities are permitted to use seawater when the ship is what minimum number of miles from shore?
25 MILES FROM SHORE BUT NEVER IN POLLUTED WATER
76
PMTs are responsible for inspecting confinement facilities ashore at what specific frequency?
EVERY QUARTER
77
While in U.S. and territorial seas, overboard discharge of untreated sewage is prohibited when a ship is within what number of nautical miles of the shore?
3 MILES
78
Rat guard should have what minimum, outside diameter, in inches?
36 INCHES
79
When conducting fumigation aboard ship, approval is required by what authority?
NAVY MEDICAL ENTOMOLOGIST
80
A urine soakage pit should be what minimum distance from berthing areas
50 FT AWAY (P 5010 CH 9)
81
To disinfect a 5- gallon water container, what minimum number of iodine tablets should you use?
40
82
A straddle trench latrine serves what maximum number of people?
25
83
83-Handwashing increases the protective nature of gloves by what maximum percentage?
75
84
The daily measures taken to control the spread of pathogenic organisms while the patient is considered infectious describes what type of disinfection?
CONCURRENT
85
Providing healthcare associated infection prevention and control consultation, educational support and related information to Navy MTFs and DTFs is the responsibility of whatindividual(s)?
BUMED INFECTION CONTROL CONSULTANT
86
Select the specific steps, in order, for the treatment and disposal of infection waste.
SORT, SEPARATE, LABEL AND TRANSFER
87
In a central sterilization room, which of the following items is classified as a semi critical item?
X-RAY APPARATUS
88
Items placed in peel plastic packs that are heat sealed have a shelf life of what maximum number of days?
365 days
89
Which of the following contracted diseases requires a MER, and is required to be submitted within 24 hours of diagnosis?
MEASLES
90
The U.S. Navy uses what electronic system to submit, view and track MERs?
DRS
91
Guidance for recording positive TST results is contained in what BUMED Instruction?
BUMEDINST 6224.8
92
During an annual PHA, a tuberculosis exposure risk assessmentshould be completed using what NAVMED FORM?
6224/8
93
An individual visited a malaria- risk area and took chemoprophylaxis. This individual is required to wait what minimal number of months before donating blood?
6 MONTHS
94
A patient pertussis immunization history should be reviewed when what specific disease is suspected?
WHOOPING COUGH
95
After a religious exemption for immunization has been granted, what authority is responsible for counseling the service member on the adverse effects of immunization noncompliance as it pertains to deployability and future assignments?
COMMANDING OFFICER (COMMANDER)
96
A health care provider should submit FDA Form 3500 to report an adverse event involving what type of agent?
CHEMOPROPHYLAXIS
97
You are preparing for influenza vaccines and suspect that your vaccine lot is contaminated. You should immediately notify which of the following organization?
USAMMA United States Army medical material agency
98
MTF and field units immunization programs should be evaluated at what minimum frequency?
ANNUALLY
99
What is the most common type of invasive haemophilus influenza type b?
MENINGITIS
100
A tick-borne illness that manifests through rheumatologic, neurological, and cardiac problems describes what illness?
LYME DISEASE
101
An infection of the intestines by entamoeba histolytica is knowby what term?
AMEBIASIS
102
102-Exceptions to procedures for handling contaminated instruments are authorized by what authority?
CO and infection control officer
103
All employees responsible for packing regulated medical waste for off-site transport should receive training at what specific point in time (a), and refresher training a what (b) prescribed training at what prescribed interval?
(A) AS SOON AS POSSIBLE BUT NO LONGER THAN 90 DAYS
(B) EVERY 2 YEARS
104
The forward resuscitative surgical system (FRSS) requires what AMAL block?
645
105
To establish a laboratory with equipment and reusable material, what FMF AMAL is required?
618
106
The equipment and consumables required to provided care to military and civilian casualties from CBRN or high yield explosives incidents in CONUS and OCONUS is provided I what AMAL Block?
652
107
AMAL 638 provides consumable supplies to support preventative medicine efforts for what maximum number of days?
60 DAYS
108
An NSN that begins with digits 6510 represents what class of medical, dental, veterinary supplies, and equipment?
SURGICAL DRESSING MATERIAL
109
Guidance on planning and procuring Class VIII blood products is contained in what reference?
DOD INST 6480.4
110
Medical equipment management procedures, to include budgeting, funding, acquisition, and maintenance are contained in what NAVMED publication?
P-5132
111
Accountable property records should be maintained with a unit acquisition when they exceed what specific amount?
5,000 OR MORE
112
Supply representatives are required to obtained what specific (a) number of quotes from sources for requisition when the total dollar amount exceeds what (b) specific dollar amount?
(A) THREE (B) 5000
113
Property custodian should report a missing piece of equipment within what maximum number of days after discovery of loss?
30 DAYS
114
With regard to supply levels, what is the sum of operating level and the safety level of supply?
STOCKAGE OBJECTIVE
115
When reporting shipping material discrepancies, you should usewhat SF?
364
116
Activities requesting expense equipment from 25,000 to 100,000 should use what NAVMED form?
6700/13
117
To ensure appropriate control and routing, all purchase requestsshould be forwarded for command approval on what form?
NAVCOMPT 2276
118
To requisition books and journals, you should use what DD form?
1149
119
Peacetime disposal of medical equipment overseas is coordinated with what entity?
(DRMO) DEFENSE REUTILITIZATION MARKETING OFFICE
120
Due to their characteristics and cost, what type of inventory requires separate identification and inventory controls?
SPECAIL MATERIAL
121
On a vessel, storerooms for the stowage of compressed gases are typically located in what location?
BELOW THE FULL-LOAD WATER LINE
122
When a piece of medical equipment is received or used and found to be unsatisfactory, in what manner should it be reported?
REPORT II AND TYPE III
123
A Monospot Test is positive when what condition is present?
AGGLUTINATION
124
During emergency blood collection, all blood support requests should be routed to what authority?
JBPO (JOINT BLOOD PROGRAM OFFICE)
125
When emergency blood collection are required during joint operations, what requirements take precedence?
mission and the health and safety of personnel take precedence
126
When standard blood components are unavailable, what is a lifesaving product that should not be withheld?
FRESH WHOLE BLOOD
127
All prescription, formularies, drug list, and controlled substance records should be maintained for what minimum number of years?
2 YEARS
128
Guidance on the procedures for the inventory of controlled substances is contained in what instruction?
BUMEDINST 6710.70
129
Bulk storage of Schedule III, IV, and V controlled substances required what, if any, minimum security measures?
LOCKED CABINET
130
When reporting theft or significant loss of a controlled substance, you should use what form?
DEA 106
131
The CSIB should conduct unannounced inventories Schedule I and II drugs at what minimum frequency?
EVERY 3 MONTHS
132
Radiation health requirements applicable to U.S. Navy and Marine Corps radiation protection programs are contained in what reference?
NAVMED P- 5055
133
Damage to a Thermoluminescent Dosimetr should be recorded as a comment in the remarks section of what NAVMED Form?
NAVMED 6470/3
134
Preparing summary reports for ionizing radiation exposure of U.S. Navy and Marine Corps Personnel is the responsibility of what entity?
NDC
135
Specific medical requirements for special duty physicals are contained in what reference?
MANMED
136
For all aviation personnel involved in flight duties, a physical examination is required to be completed at what minimum frequency?
every year
137
To return Sailors to medically unrestricted duty following a period of LIMDU, you should complete what form?
NAVMED 6100/6
138
When a PFA Medical waiver is required, the privileged should document this on what form?
NAVMED 6110/4
139
Which of the following persons requires a special physical examination?
NUCLEAR FIELD DUTY PERSONNEL
140
On the right upper ventricle muscle that controls the heartbeat or heart rhythm?
SA Node
141
What sections do you put forms when closing a health record?
Section 1: Immunizations, allergies, and physical exams.
Section 2: Chronological medical care documentation.
Section 3: Consultation sheets and evaluations.
Section 4: Ancillary studies, inpatient care, and dental records.
142
What are reasons for closing a record?
Discharge or separation from service
Death of the service member
Transfer to a new duty station
143
When all medical records contradict, which to default to?
The most recent medical record
144
Form for return to duty from LIMDU?
NAVMED 6100/6
145
Who conducts inspection on hot spaces? CO or Safety?
Safety officer
146
Dry bulb, how close to ventilation?
away from ventilation and direct sunlight
typically 2-4 feet from any heat source
147
When out of blood, what type of additive to use?
fresh whole blood
148
Minimum distance from shore ships can use salt water for washing machines?
25 nautical miles from shore
149
How often to inspect confinement facilities ashore?
every quarter
150
Which form does a female going to a submarine fill out?
NAVMED 1300/4
151
What diet for diverticulitis?
low fiber during flare ups
high fiber after recovery
152
Most common dental emergency on deployment?
dental abscesses
153
Where to store gasses on a ship?
below the full load waterline
154
MEF AMAL: How long does it last?
60 days
155
When no more blood, which of the following go through get blood? Prescient 90 or 120 day?
prescient 90 days
156
When someone refuses a vaccine, who conducts counseling?
CO
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