Example Questions Flashcards
1
Q
What stages of moral development did Piaget identify, and how do children under age ten judge wrong-doings?
A
Piaget saw moral judgement as being in two age brackets: below and above age ten. Children under ten tend to judge wrong-doings by the amount of damage caused rather than the intentions behind the act.
2
Q
Describe Kohlberg’s stages of moral reasoning.
A
Kohlberg’s stages have three levels (pre-conventional, conventional and post-conventional) and six stages:
1. obedience and punishment orientation
2. individualism and exchange
3. good interpersonal relationships
4. maintaining the social order
5. social contract and individual rights
6. universal principles.
3
Q
Why do teens require more sleep than adults, and what affects their sleep patterns?
A
Teens require more sleep due to rapid growth and biorhythm changes that make them more likely to stay up late and sleep later. Their sleep patterns are also affected by academic and social demands.
4
Q
What are Perry’s stages of mental and moral development in college students?
A
Dualism
Multiplicity
Relativism
Commitment.
5
Q
Explain Vygotsky’s concept of the Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD).
A
Vygotsky’s ZPD is the level of development attained when children engage in social behaviors. Learning occurs in the ZPD when interaction is guided by an adult or in collaboration with peers, exceeding what could be achieved individually.
6
Q
What is an operational definition in research?
A
An operational definition is a clear and concise description of a measure used in data collection, ensuring that different researchers can independently measure the same conditions.
For example, anxiety could be operationally defined as a participant’s score on a specific questionnaire.
7
Q
What does a P-value signify in statistical tests?
A
The P-value indicates the probability that the observed data would occur by chance. A common cutoff for significance is .05; a P-value less than .05 typically leads to rejection of the null hypothesis, suggesting significant results.
8
Q
What role does sleep play in adolescent development and behavior?
A
Sleep is crucial for adolescents due to their rapid physical and mental growth. Their changing biorhythms lead them to prefer later bedtimes and later wake times, impacting academic and social demands.
9
Q
Describe Perry’s concept of ‘Relativism’ in the cognitive development of college students.
A
In Perry’s stage of Relativism, college students recognize that truths are not absolute but relative, depending on the context. They understand that problems are complex and solutions vary based on differing perspectives and contexts.
10
Q
What is the significance of the Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) according to Vygotsky?
A
Vygotsky’s ZPD is crucial for understanding cognitive development, emphasizing that learning happens most effectively within a social context.
11
Q
What does the psychological concept of ‘Oedipus Complex’ suggest about child development?
A
The Oedipus Complex suggests that during the phallic stage of psychosexual development, a child (typically a boy) may develop unconscious desires for their opposite-sex parent and hostility towards the same-sex parent.
12
Q
How do reliability and validity contribute to the effectiveness of psychological tests?
A
Reliability ensures that a test consistently measures an attribute, providing confidence in the stability of its scores. Validity ensures that the test accurately measures what it is intended to measure.
13
Q
What implications does a P-value have for statistical analysis in research?
A
A P-value helps determine whether the observed effects in the study are statistically significant. If the P-value is less than .05, it suggests that the effects are unlikely due to random chance.
14
Q
Explain the importance of operational definitions in research.
A
Operational definitions are crucial for clarity and replicability in research. They define the exact parameters of how variables are measured.
15
Q
intervening variables
A
Intervening variables explain how or why an independent variable influences a dependent variable
16
Q
How do survey response rates impact the validity of research findings?
A
Higher response rates in surveys generally lead to more accurate and generalizable results by reducing sampling bias and increasing the likelihood that the sample represents the larger population.
The survey requires 50-57% to be returned in order to be accurate.
17
Q
What is Dualism in Perry’s theory of development?
A
Dualism is the stage where students see the world in binary terms. Knowledge and authority are viewed as absolute, with clear right and wrong answers. Students expect authority figures to provide definitive answers.
18
Q
What does Multiplicity mean in Perry’s stages?
A
Multiplicity is the recognition that some questions have multiple answers, which might all be valid. It evolves from seeing multiple views as temporary confusion (early multiplicity) to understanding that many complex issues can have several valid perspectives (late multiplicity).
19
Q
Describe Relativism in Perry’s model.
A
In Relativism, students understand that knowledge is contextual and truths are relative to different frameworks. This stage involves recognizing that judgments should be based on reasoned arguments and evidence, acknowledging that absolute certainty is rare.
20
Q
What is Commitment in Relativism according to Perry?
A
Commitment in Relativism involves making decisions and commitments based on evaluated evidence and reasoning within a relativistic context. It signifies the acceptance of uncertainty in knowledge but still choosing to commit to certain values or decisions.
21
Q
What is Stage 1 of Kohlberg’s moral development?
A
Stage 1: Obedience and Punishment Orientation. Moral reasoning is based on avoiding punishment and deference to power. Typical behavior is following rules to avoid punishment.
22
Q
What characterizes Stage 2 in Kohlberg’s theory?
A
Stage 2: Individualism and Exchange. Individuals recognize that different people have different self-interests and there is value in fairness and equality based on mutual benefit.
23
Q
Describe Stage 3 of Kohlberg’s moral reasoning.
A
Stage 3: Good Interpersonal Relationships. Behavior is often judged by intent and its impact on relationships. Emphasis is on being ‘good’ by conforming to social expectations and roles.
24
Q
What is Stage 4 in Kohlberg’s model?
A
Stage 4: Maintaining the Social Order. Moral decisions are made based on law and order, focusing on upholding laws and rules to maintain societal structure and community welfare.
25
Explain Stage 5 of Kohlberg's stages.
Stage 5: Social Contract and Individual Rights. Emphasis is on upholding rules that improve the community and protect individual rights, with reasoning based on fairness, democratic processes, and the welfare of the community.
26
What does Stage 6 entail in Kohlberg's theory of moral development?
Stage 6: Universal Principles. Morality is based on abstract reasoning using universal ethical principles like justice and equality. Individuals may choose to defy unjust laws based on these principles.
27
According to Piaget, how do children under 10 judge moral wrongdoing?
They judge based on the amount of damage caused rather than intent.
28
How many stages of moral reasoning are in Kohlberg’s theory?
Six stages across three levels: pre-conventional, conventional, and post-conventional.
29
Which is NOT a factor in adolescent sleep patterns?
Defiance (Teens require more sleep due to growth and social/academic demands).
30
What type of thinking do college students use when viewing situations as strictly right or wrong?
Dualistic thinking.
31
Which theorist developed the concept of ZPD?
Vygotsky.
32
What is the female equivalent of the Oedipus Complex?
Electra Complex.
33
What is the final level of Kohlberg’s moral development?
Principled thought.
34
How is culture viewed in cross-cultural counseling?
As a fundamental factor in counseling.
35
Are most behaviors learned within a cultural context?
Yes, most behaviors are culturally learned.
36
How does counseling within a cultural context impact identity?
It helps define personal identity more clearly.
37
What defines a socioeconomic group as a culture?
Shared ideas, behaviors, and values.
38
Which theory states that aggression is learned through modeling?
Social Learning Theory (Bandura).
39
What does the preconscious mind contain?
Both hidden memories and present thoughts.
40
Which part of Freud’s psyche is responsible for impulsive actions?
The id.
41
Which part of Freud’s psyche triggers guilt?
The superego.
42
A counselor setting fees based on each job is using what reinforcement schedule?
Variable ratio.
43
Which is involuntary—suppression or repression?
Repression.
44
What is it called when a client gains awareness of a previously unknown factor?
Insight (also known as an “Aha! moment”).
45
What is an eclectic counseling approach?
Using different theories and techniques based on the client’s needs.
46
Who conducted one of the first formal therapy groups?
Joseph Pratt.
47
Which is NOT a curative factor of group therapy?
Intrapersonal learning (Interpersonal learning is the correct term).
48
What is it called when group members feel relief knowing they are not alone?
Universality.
49
What are the three levels of social groups?
Primary, secondary, and tertiary.
50
What explains why groups make riskier decisions than individuals?
Risky shift phenomenon.
51
What are Tuckman & Jensen’s five stages of group development?
Forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning.
52
Which theorist emphasized life roles in career development?
Super.
53
What does Holland’s theory match together?
Personality traits and job requirements.
54
Someone who enjoys mechanical work likely scores high in which Holland type?
Realistic.
55
Which theorist developed the “field and levels” approach to careers?
Roe.
56
What do dual career families often lack?
Leisure time.
57
How do developmental theorists view career choice?
As an ongoing process.
58
Which was NOT one of Ginzberg’s original career stages?
Exploratory.
59
What publication provides job-related statistics?
The Occupational Outlook Handbook (OOH).
60
What ethical principle means avoiding harm to a client?
Non-malfeasance.
61
Can counselors use client testimonials for advertising?
No, testimonials are prohibited by the ACA Code of Ethics.
62
If a counselor has a PhD in an unrelated field, how should they list their credentials?
Jane Doe, MA, LPC.
63
Is it ethical to administer a test not normed for a population?
No, it is unethical.
64
What model is formal diagnosis most closely related to?
The medical model.
65
What type of test is the BDI?
A self-report test.
66
What impacts the accuracy of self-report tests?
Current emotional state and personal biases.
67
Which test is NOT subjective?
WISC-III.
68
What do ipsative measures compare?
Traits within the same individual.
69
What do personality tests measure?
Typical performance.
70
What does reliability measure?
How consistently a test measures an attribute.
71
What does “P” stand for in statistical significance?
Probability.
72
What does an operational definition outline?
A procedure.
73
Which is NOT part of deductive reasoning?
Medium premise.
74
What is another term for using deductive reasoning to gain knowledge?
Syllogism.
75
What kind of variable unexpectedly affects a research outcome?
An intervening variable.
76
What return rate is needed for a survey to be accurate?
50-57%.
77
What is a major criticism of Levinson’s research?
His sample size was limited in both size and age, making his findings less generalizable.
78
Did Levinson include transitions between his major life eras?
Yes, he identified three major transitions:
• Early Adult Transition
• Mid-Life Transition
• Late Adult Transition
79
Do most critics reject the idea of a midlife crisis?
No, while some may argue against it, most agree that midlife is often a time of questioning and reevaluation.
80
Did Levinson’s midlife crisis theory exclude career questioning?
No, in Seasons of a Man’s Life, he stated that career is often reevaluated in the 40s, and some men change occupations during this time.
81
What happens in the initiation stage of addiction recovery?
The client enters a program or attempts to control addiction without help.
82
What are key characteristics of the early abstinence stage?
• First 90 days of sobriety
• Risk of withdrawal and relapse
• Need to develop coping skills and tools to avoid further addiction
83
How long is the maintenance stage and what should it focus on?
90 days to 5 years
• Avoiding relapse
• Identifying and managing triggers
• Improving relationships and anger management
84
What defines the advanced recovery stage (after 5 years)?
• Continued vigilance against relapse
• May need ongoing support, such as 12-step meetings or counseling
85
What is the counselor’s first priority when a client is brandishing a weapon?
Protect self and others.
86
Should a counselor attempt to disarm an aggressive client?
No, unless specially trained. The counselor should maintain a safe distance and use a barrier if possible.
87
How far should a counselor stay from a client with a weapon?
Beyond 4 feet.
88
What is professional liability insurance?
Professional liability insurance is a type of insurance that protects professionals against claims of negligence or malpractice.
89
Is professional liability insurance required by law in all states?
No, professional liability insurance is required by law in some states, but not in others.
90
Q: When counseling an adolescent with muscular dystrophy who has become wheelchair-bound but denies distress, what should the focus of therapy be?
A: Assisting the client to develop strategies for managing wheelchair use.
• The counselor should avoid assuming the client is in denial.
• The client may have a positive outlook or feel relief at reduced mobility struggles.
• Therapy should support practical adaptation rather than imposing an emotional response
91
What is the primary function of Analysis of Covariance (ANCOVA)?
It controls the influence of an independent variable on a dependent variable while analyzing group differences.
92
Why would a researcher use ANCOVA when comparing self-efficacy scores between seniors and juniors?
ANCOVA adjusts for initial differences in self-efficacy scores to control for the effect of grade level on the dependent variable.
93
What is a limitation of ANOVA?
ANOVA does not control for the influence of an independent variable on a dependent variable.
94
Why would a researcher consider using MANOVA instead of ANCOVA?
MANOVA is used when there is more than one dependent variable (e.g., self-efficacy and optimism).
95
Why does ANCOVA work better than MANOVA for controlling grade level effects?
ANCOVA can control for grade level’s effect on self-efficacy, whereas MANOVA does not account for this covariate adjustment.
96
How do ANOVA, ANCOVA, and MANOVA differ?
A:
• ANOVA: Compares means of groups.
• ANCOVA: Compares means while controlling for covarients
• MANOVA: Compares multiple dependent variables simultaneously.
97
Which state passed the first general practice counselor licensure law, and in what year?
Virginia, in 1976.
98
When was the Office of Vocational Rehabilitation created?
1954.
99
What does CACREP stand for, and when was it established?
Council for the Accreditation of Counseling and Related Educational Programs (CACREP) was established in 1981.
100
What psychological concept, developed by Luft and Ingham, describes four aspects of personality?
The Johari Window.
101
What are the four parts of the Johari Window?
1. Public Self – Known to self and others.
2. Blind Self – Unknown to self but known to others.
3. Private Self – Known to self but not to others.
4. Unknown Self – Unknown to both self and others.
102
What is the goal of the Johari Window in counseling?
To uncover aspects of the self that are unknown to promote self-awareness and growth.
103
Who developed neurolinguistic programming (NLP), and what does it focus on?
Richard Bandler and John Grinder; NLP integrates psychology, linguistics, and communication for treatment.
104
What type of consultation model did Bergan develop?
A behavioral consultation model, which focuses on observable behaviors and behavior modification rather than process-oriented interactions.
105
What consultation models did Edgar Schein develop?
1. Process Consultation Model – Emphasizes collaboration and guiding the client to discover solutions rather than providing direct answers.
2. Purchase Model – The client seeks expert advice and 'purchases' a solution.
3. Doctor-Patient Model – The consultant diagnoses the problem and prescribes a solution.
106
Who developed the mental health consultation model?
Gerald Caplan.
107
What are the four types of mental health consultation in Caplan’s model?
1. Client-Centered Consultation – The consultant helps a professional improve their ability to work with a specific client.
2. Consultee-Centered Consultation – The consultant helps the professional (consultee) improve their skills and effectiveness in general.
3. Program-Centered Consultation – The consultant advises on improving or developing a mental health program.
4. Administrative Consultation – The consultant helps improve the structure or policies of an organization.
108
What consultation model is associated with Bandura?
The Social Learning Model, which emphasizes learning through observation, modeling, and reinforcement.
109
How do Bergan’s, Schein’s, Caplan’s, and Bandura’s models differ?
• Bergan → Behavioral Model (focuses on observable behaviors).
• Schein → Process, Purchase, & Doctor-Patient Models (focuses on process and expert roles).
• Caplan → Mental Health Consultation Model (focuses on mental health services and system-wide change).
• Bandura → Social Learning Model (focuses on learning through observation and reinforcement).
110
What is the halo effect?
The tendency to generalize about a person based on one trait (e.g., assuming someone is a great communicator just because they have a large vocabulary).
111
What is the placebo effect?
When participants experience positive changes simply because they believe they are receiving an effective treatment, even if the substance is inert or ineffective.
112
A person takes a sugar pill believing it to be medicine and then feels better. What psychological effect is this?
The placebo effect.
113
What is the Rosenthal Effect (Pygmalion Effect)?
The tendency for a researcher’s expectations to influence the outcome of a study.
114
How can the Rosenthal Effect influence a study?
If a teacher believes certain students are high achievers, they may unconsciously treat them differently, leading to improved performance.
115
What is the Hawthorne Effect?
When participants alter their behavior simply because they know they are part of a research study.
116
Employees work harder because they know their productivity is being monitored. What effect is this?
The Hawthorne Effect.
117
What is the most appropriate screening tool for a 16-year-old suspected of drug or alcohol abuse?
CRAFFT (designed for individuals under age 21).
118
What does each letter in the CRAFFT screening tool stand for?
C → Have you ever ridden in a CAR driven by someone (including yourself) who was “high” or had been using alcohol or drugs?
R → Do you ever use alcohol or drugs to RELAX, feel better about yourself, or fit in?
A → Do you ever use alcohol or drugs while you are by yourself or ALONE?
F → Do you ever FORGET things you did while using alcohol or drugs?
F → Do your FAMILY or FRIENDS ever tell you that you should cut down on your drinking or drug use?
T → Have you ever gotten into TROUBLE while using alcohol or drugs?
119
What is AUDIT used for?
Screening for alcohol use disorders in adults, not specifically designed for adolescents.
120
What is the CAGE screening tool used for?
A brief alcohol use screening tool primarily for adults, but not the best for adolescents.
121
What do the letters in CAGE stand for?
C → Have you ever felt the need to CUT down on drinking?
A → Have people ANNOYED you by criticizing your drinking?
G → Have you ever felt GUILTY about your drinking?
E → Have you ever had a drink first thing in the morning as an EYE-OPENER?
122
Why is CRAFFT better for a 16-year-old than AUDIT or CAGE?
CRAFFT is specifically designed for adolescents under 21, while AUDIT and CAGE are primarily for adults.
123
How is John Krumboltz related to Albert Bandura?
Krumboltz developed the learning theory of career counseling based on Bandura’s social learning theory.
124
How is David Tiedeman related to Erik Erikson?
Tiedeman’s individualistic model of career decision-making is based on Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development.
125
With which therapeutic approach is Arnold Lazarus associated?
Multimodal therapy.
126
What was Lev Vygotsky’s primary focus in psychology?
Stages in the development of speech and sociocultural learning theory.
127
John Krumboltz is to Albert Bandura as David Tiedeman is to ____?
Erik Erikson.
128
The main characteristic of the DSM-5 diagnosis for a sexual dysfunction disorder is…
“a clinically significant disturbance in a person’s ability to respond sexually or to experience sexual pleasure”
129
What prenatal risk factors are more common in adopted children compared to non-adopted children?
Exposure to toxic substances in utero and limited prenatal care.
130
How can limited prenatal care impact adopted children?
It can contribute to medical, behavioral, and emotional difficulties.
131
Are adopted children more likely to be diagnosed with a mental disorder?
Yes, they have a higher likelihood of being diagnosed with a mental disorder.
132
How do adopted children compare academically and behaviorally to non-adopted children?
They have higher instances of academic and behavioral difficulties.
133
How does being adopted after age 3 affect children?
It increases levels of distress and adjustment difficulties.
134
How does separation between infancy and age 3 affect attachment?
Children who experience separation in this period often struggle with attachment.
135
What are the nine life roles identified by Donald Super?
1. Child
2. Student
3. Citizen
4. Spouse
5. Homemaker
6. Parent
7. Worker
8. Leisurite
9. Pensioner
136
Is Super’s theory static or developmental?
Developmental and holistic – it considers a person’s career over their lifespan.
137
What is Super’s life-career rainbow?
A concept that illustrates how individuals transition through different life roles at various stages of life.
138
What two major elements make up Super’s life-career rainbow?
1. Life Span – Stages of career development throughout life.
2. Life Space – The different life roles a person holds simultaneously.
139
How do life roles impact career development in Super’s theory?
Life roles interact and evolve, influencing career choices and personal fulfillment over time.
140
What field is Gerald Caplan associated with?
Mental health consultation.
141
What field is Virginia Satir known for?
Family therapy.
142
Which vocational developmental task did Donald Super associate with ages 18-21?
Specification – The stage where individuals refine career choices and commit to a specific field.
143
What is the crystallization stage in Super’s vocational development, and what ages does it cover?
Ages 14-18 – Individuals explore career options, consider their talents, and begin forming career goals.
144
At what age does the implementation stage (supers vocational development task) occur, and what happens during this phase?
Ages 21-24 – Individuals take action by applying for jobs, gaining work experience, or entering the workforce.
145
What is the stabilization stage (supers vocational development task), and what age range does it cover?
Ages 24-35 – Individuals establish themselves in their careers, gain expertise, and work toward professional stability.
146
What occurs in the consolidation stage of Super’s career development, and at what age does it start?
Age 35 and onward – Individuals advance in their careers, take on leadership roles, and strive for long-term career success.
147
Why are Super’s career stages considered outdated today?
They were based on middle-class, white, college-educated males, and career paths today involve more changes, gaps, and transitions than when his theory was developed.
148
What is cultural pluralism?
The practice of incorporating, including, validating, and affirming the identity and perspective of culturally diverse individuals.
149
What is an etic orientation in counseling?
A one-size-fits-all approach that ignores cultural diversity and reflects the counselor’s worldview rather than the client’s.
150
What is an emic orientation in counseling?
A culturally specific approach that tailors treatment strategies to the client’s unique cultural perspective, beliefs, and attitudes.
151
What is the difference between etic and emic orientations in counseling?
• Etic → Universal approach, ignores cultural diversity.
• Emic → Culturally tailored approach, considers the client’s background and beliefs.
152
What is cultural encapsulation in counseling?
When a counselor interprets a client’s experiences solely through their own cultural beliefs, training, and viewpoint, similar to an etic orientation.
153
What is low-context communication?
A communication style that relies solely on explicit verbal messages, with little dependence on nonverbal cues.
154
What is high-context communication?
A communication style that considers nonverbal cues (e.g., eye contact, tone, gestures) and cultural expressions unique to the client.
155
What is triangulation in family therapy?
An unhealthy coalition where some family members align against another member, creating an imbalance in family power dynamics.
156
What is an example of triangulation in a family?
A child being pulled into parental conflicts and being forced to take sides against one parent.
157
What is enmeshment in family therapy?
A diffusion of boundaries where family members intrude into each other’s lives, often leading to a loss of individual autonomy.
158
What is an example of enmeshment in a family?
A parent living through their child’s experiences and decisions rather than allowing the child to develop independence.
159
How do triangulation and enmeshment differ?
• Triangulation → Family members team up against another member, creating conflict.
• Enmeshment → Over-involvement in each other’s lives, leading to blurred boundaries.
160
An ethical issue when making a diagnosis to a family member in family counseling
If a counselor applies some diagnostic label to a member of a family, this could be used later in court. For example, a counselor’s information might be used in child custody hearings or divorce proceedings. This is an ethical issue that family counselors must consider.
161
What is assimilation in Piaget’s theory?
The process of incorporating new objects or events into an existing schema.
## Footnote
Example: An infant sucking on objects other than a nipple.
162
What is an example of assimilation?
A child who has learned to call a dog 'doggy' might also call a cat 'doggy' because it fits their existing schema for animals.
163
What is accommodation in Piaget’s theory?
The process of modifying existing schemas or forming new ones in response to new environmental experiences.
164
What is an example of accommodation?
A child who initially calls all four-legged animals 'doggy' adjusts their schema and learns to distinguish between dogs and cats.
165
What is adaptation according to Piaget?
The overall process of adjusting to the environment, which includes both assimilation and accommodation.
166
What is organization in Piaget’s theory?
The way we structure and organize our knowledge and mental processes to make sense of the world.
167
What two tendencies did Piaget believe we inherit?
Organization (how we structure knowledge) and adaptation (how we adjust to the environment).
168
What type of career theory did Ann Roe develop?
A needs-based approach, emphasizing how early childhood experiences shape occupational selection.
169
According to Ann Roe, which factors influence occupational selection?
1. Environmental influences
2. Parent-child relationships
3. Genetics
170
Which factor did NOT influence career development in Roe’s theory?
Cognitive development.
171
Which career theorists linked cognitive development to career decision-making?
Tiedeman, O’Hara, and Miller-Tiedeman.
172
How did Ann Roe view parent-child relationships in career development?
She believed they shaped a child’s psychological needs, which later influenced career choices.
173
How does Roe’s career theory differ from cognitive career development theories?
• Roe → Focuses on needs, environment, and parent-child interactions.
• Cognitive Theorists (Tiedeman & O’Hara) → Focus on career development as a cognitive decision-making process.
174
V code
V” codes are used when what is being treated is not classified as a mental disorder but is the focus of treatment. An example of this would be uncomplicated bereavement. In the DSM coding system, the V replaces the first digit of the five-digit code.
175
Obsessive compulsive personality disorder
According to the DSM-5-TR, individuals with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder hold a persistent preoccupation with organization and mental or interpersonal control. They may force themselves and others to follow rigid moral principles and very strict standards of performance.”
176
What is the coefficient of determination?
The degree of common variance, calculated as the square of the correlation (r²).
177
What is the coefficient of non-determination?
The unique or error variance, calculated as 100% minus the coefficient of determination.
178
If the correlation (r) is 0.80, what is the coefficient of determination?
0.80² = 0.64 (or 64%), meaning 64% of the variance is shared/common.
179
If the coefficient of determination is 64%, what is the coefficient of non-determination?
100% - 64% = 36%, meaning 36% of the variance is unique/error variance.
180
How does the correlation (r) relate to the coefficient of determination?
The coefficient of determination is the square of the correlation (r²), not r itself.
181
How do you calculate the coefficient of non-determination?
100% - (r² × 100) (the percentage of variance that is not shared).
182
What is the Coefficient of Determination (r²)?
It measures shared variance between two variables.
## Footnote
Use it to determine how much variance two variables share or how well one variable explains another.
183
When should you use the Coefficient of Determination?
Use it when you want to assess the strength of a relationship between two variables.
## Footnote
Example: A high coefficient of determination (e.g., 64%) means study time explains 64% of the variation in exam scores.
184
What is the Coefficient of Non-Determination?
It measures unexplained variance (100% - r²).
## Footnote
Use it to determine how much variance is unique to each variable.
185
When should you use the Coefficient of Non-Determination?
Use it to understand how much of an outcome is influenced by other unknown factors.
## Footnote
Example: If the coefficient of determination is 64%, then the coefficient of non-determination (36%) indicates that other factors influence exam scores.
186
What is the formula for the Coefficient of Determination?
The formula is r² × 100%.
## Footnote
It is used to measure shared variance.
187
What is the formula for the Coefficient of Non-Determination?
The formula is 100% - (r² × 100%).
## Footnote
It is used to measure unexplained variance.
188
If controlling for a variable makes the original relationship disappear or greatly weaken, how do you know whether the control variable is a confounding variable or an intervening variable?
You have to decide whether the control variable is affected by the independent variable (which would make the control variable an intervening variable) or whether it affects the independent variable (which would make it a confounding variable).
189
Intervening vs confounding variables
Intervening variables explain how or why an independent variable influences a dependent variable,
confounding variables are unrelated factors that distort the relationship between the independent and dependent variables, potentially leading to inaccurate conclusions.
