Far Part 4 Deck 2 Flashcards
(110 cards)
1
Q
What does Subpart 4.9 cover?
A
Policies and procedures for obtaining Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN) information for debt collection and IRS reporting purposes
This includes contract information and payment information.
2
Q
Define ‘common parent’ as used in Subpart 4.901.
A
The corporate entity that owns or controls an affiliated group of corporations filing Federal income tax returns on a consolidated basis of which the offeror is a member.
3
Q
What is required by 31 U.S.C. 7701(c) regarding contractors?
A
Each contractor doing business with a Government agency must furnish its TIN to that agency.
4
Q
What does the TIN allow the Government to do?
A
Collect and report on any delinquent amounts arising from the contractor’s relationship with the Government.
5
Q
What information must Federal executive agencies report to the IRS?
A
- Name, address, and TIN of the contractor
- Name and TIN of the common parent (if any)
- Date of the contract action
- Amount obligated on the contract action
- Estimated contract completion date
6
Q
What is the purpose of Form 1099 in relation to contractors?
A
To report payments made to certain contractors.
7
Q
What are the procurement instruments to which Subpart 4.10 applies?
A
- Solicitations
- Contracts (including GWACs, MACs, FSS contracts, etc.)
- Agreements with pre-priced supplies or services
- Task and delivery orders
8
Q
What is the purpose of establishing line items in procurement?
A
To define deliverables or organize information about deliverables.
9
Q
What characteristics must a supply have to be considered ‘separately identifiable’?
A
- Own identification (e.g., NSN, item description)
- Services with no more than one statement of work
10
Q
What is the role of subline items?
A
To facilitate tracking of performance, deliverables, payment, and contract funds accounting.
11
Q
What data elements are required for each line item or subline item?
A
- Line item or subline item number
- Description of what is being purchased
- Product or Service Code (PSC)
- Accounting classification citation
- Pricing details (unit of measure, quantity, total price, etc.)
12
Q
True or False: Each deliverable line item must have its own distinct delivery schedule.
A
True
13
Q
What should be done when a new item is added to a procurement instrument?
A
Assign a new line item number.
14
Q
What is the purpose of the System for Award Management (SAM)?
A
To increase visibility of vendor sources and establish a common source of vendor data for the Government.
15
Q
Who is required to be registered in SAM at the time of submitting an offer or quotation?
A
Offerors and quoters, except under specific conditions such as micro-purchases or classified contracts.
16
Q
What are the exceptions to the SAM registration requirement?
A
- Purchases under the micro-purchase threshold
- Classified contracts
- Contracts awarded by deployed contracting officers
- Contracts for performance outside the U.S.
- Contracts awarded without full and open competition due to urgency
17
Q
What is the Robert T. Stafford Disaster Relief and Emergency Assistance Act?
A
A federal law that provides a framework for disaster relief and emergency assistance
The act is codified at 42 U.S.C. 5121.
18
Q
What is the threshold for contract actions awarded to foreign vendors that do not require SAM registration?
A
$30,000
This applies if it is impractical to obtain SAM registration.
19
Q
What are micro-purchases in the context of contracting?
A
Purchases that do not use the electronic funds transfer (EFT) method for payment and are not required to be reported
Refer to subpart 4.6 for more details.
20
Q
What must contracting officers do if a contractor changes its business name?
A
Provide written notification of the intention to change the name in SAM and comply with novation requirements
The contractor must also provide documentation supporting the name change.
21
Q
True or False: Contractors can change their name or address for EFT payments without any restrictions.
A
False
Changes require compliance with specific procedures and must be reflected correctly in SAM.
22
Q
What is the unique entity identifier used for?
A
To identify contractors in contract documents and data exchanges
This identifier must be retrieved from the contractor’s SAM registration.
23
Q
What is the Disaster Response Registry?
A
A registry consulted for contracting related to disaster or emergency relief activities
Accessible via https://www.sam.gov.
24
Q
What is required for offerors and quoters regarding representations and certifications?
A
They must complete electronic annual representations and certifications in SAM
This is part of the registration process.
25
What happens if a contractor fails to update their representations and certifications in SAM?
Their representations and certifications may be considered outdated and invalid
## Footnote
Contractors must review and update at least annually.
26
Fill in the blank: The clause at 52.204-13 is related to _______.
System for Award Management Maintenance
27
What does FIPS PUB Number 201 address?
Personal Identity Verification of Federal Employees and Contractors
## Footnote
It sets standards for identity verification in federal contracting.
28
What is the purpose of the clause at 52.204-9?
To ensure personal identity verification of contractor personnel in certain contract situations
## Footnote
This applies when contractors have routine physical access to federally-controlled facilities.
29
What does the Federal Funding Accountability and Transparency Act of 2006 require?
Contractors to report subcontract award data and the total compensation of the five highest-paid executives
## Footnote
This applies to contracts valued at $30,000 or more.
30
True or False: The public can view first-tier subcontract award data online.
True
## Footnote
This data can be accessed at http://www.usaspending.gov.
31
What must agencies do when acquiring personal identity verification products?
Purchase only approved products and services compliant with FIPS PUB 201
## Footnote
This includes ensuring interoperability and conformance to federal standards.
32
What is the role of the contracting officer regarding SAM registration verification?
Verify that the offeror is registered in SAM at the time an offer is submitted
## Footnote
This is essential unless specific exemptions apply.
33
What does Pub.L.109-282 require contractors to report?
Subcontract award data and total compensation of the five most highly compensated executives of the contractor and subcontractor
## Footnote
The public may view first-tier subcontract award data at http://www.usaspending.gov.
34
What is the applicability threshold for contracts under this subpart?
Contracts with a value of $30,000 or more
## Footnote
Nothing in this subpart requires the disclosure of classified information.
35
To which subcontractors does the reporting of subcontract information apply?
First-tier subcontractors
36
How often must agencies review contractor reports?
Quarterly
37
What action must an agency take if it finds inconsistencies in contractor reports?
Inform the contractor and require correction or explanation
38
What happens if a contractor fails to comply with reporting requirements?
The contracting officer shall exercise appropriate contractual remedies
39
What is the reporting exception for contractors and subcontractors with gross income?
Gross income under $300,000 in the previous tax year
40
What clause must be inserted in all solicitations and contracts of $30,000 or more?
52.204-10, Reporting Executive Compensation and First-Tier Subcontract Awards
41
What is the purpose of the Procurement Instrument Identifier (PIID)?
To identify each solicitation, contract, agreement, or order uniquely
42
What is the required format for a PIID?
A combination of 13 to 17 alpha and/or numeric characters
43
What must agencies ensure about each PIID?
It must be unique Governmentwide and remain so for at least 20 years
44
What positions in the PIID identify the department/agency and office issuing the instrument?
Positions 1 through 6
45
What positions in the PIID represent the fiscal year of the procurement instrument?
Positions 7 and 8
46
Which letter designates blanket purchase agreements in the PIID?
A
47
What is the purpose of a supplementary PIID?
To identify amendments to solicitations and modifications to contracts, orders, and agreements
48
What must agencies report annually according to section 743(a) of the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2010?
Activities performed by service contractors
49
What defines a first-tier subcontract?
A subcontract awarded directly by the contractor for acquiring supplies or services for performance of a prime contract
50
Which agencies are exempt from the requirements under this subpart?
The Department of Defense (DoD)
51
What is the threshold for service contractor reporting?
Based on type of contract and estimated total value
52
What does subpart 4.1703 address?
Requirements for obtaining information from, and reporting by, agency service contractors
## Footnote
This includes reporting requirements for contracts and subcontracts for services based on type and estimated total value.
53
What types of contracts require service contractor reporting according to 4.1703?
Based on type of contract and estimated total value
## Footnote
This includes indefinite-delivery contracts like IDIQ, FSSs, GWACs, and multi-agency contracts.
54
What is the simplified acquisition threshold?
An estimated total value above which reporting is required for certain contracts
## Footnote
Specific dollar amounts vary based on fiscal year and contract type.
55
What is the reporting threshold for cost-reimbursement, time-and-materials, and labor-hour service contracts?
Above the simplified acquisition threshold
## Footnote
This applies to all such service contracts and orders.
56
What are the reporting thresholds for fixed-price service contracts awarded in Fiscal Year 2014?
$2.5 million or greater
## Footnote
This is a specific requirement for contracts awarded in that fiscal year.
57
What is the reporting threshold for fixed-price service contracts awarded in Fiscal Year 2015?
$1 million or greater
## Footnote
This requirement is specific to contracts awarded in that fiscal year.
58
What is the reporting threshold for fixed-price service contracts awarded in Fiscal Year 2016 and subsequent years?
$500,000 or greater
## Footnote
This applies to contracts awarded in FY 2016 and later.
59
What is the agency's responsibility regarding contractor reporting?
Ensure compliance with reporting requirements and review reported information for reasonableness
## Footnote
Agencies must notify contractors of any required revisions by November 15.
60
What must agencies compile annually regarding service contracts?
An inventory of service contracts performed for the agency during the prior fiscal year
## Footnote
This is to determine the agency’s reliance on service contractors.
61
What clause must be included in solicitations and contracts for services exceeding certain thresholds?
52.204-14, Service Contract Reporting Requirements
## Footnote
This is required except for certain exemptions.
62
What clause is required for indefinite-delivery contracts?
52.204-15, Service Contract Reporting Requirements for Indefinite-Delivery Contracts
## Footnote
This applies when contracts are expected to meet reporting thresholds.
63
What is the purpose of the CAGE code system?
To identify commercial and government entities
## Footnote
CAGE codes facilitate data exchange and contractor identification.
64
What does 'covered contractor information system' refer to?
An information system owned or operated by a contractor that processes Federal contract information
## Footnote
This includes systems that transmit or store sensitive information.
65
What is prohibited under section 1634 of the National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2018?
Government use of hardware, software, or services developed or provided by Kaspersky Lab covered entities
## Footnote
This prohibition is effective from October 1, 2018.
66
What does 'covered telecommunications equipment or services' include?
Equipment produced by Huawei, ZTE, Hytera, Hikvision, or Dahua
## Footnote
This includes telecommunications or video surveillance services provided by these entities.
67
What does 'critical technology' encompass?
Defense articles, services, and items controlled for national security reasons
## Footnote
This includes items on various regulatory lists like the United States Munitions List.
68
What is the definition of 'backhaul'?
Intermediate links between the core network and small subnetworks
## Footnote
This can be wireless or wired connections.
69
What is the definition of interconnection arrangements?
Arrangements governing the physical connection of two or more networks to allow the use of another's network to hand off traffic or share data and other information resources.
70
Define reasonable inquiry in the context of telecommunications.
An inquiry designed to uncover any information in the entity's possession about the identity of the producer or provider of covered telecommunications equipment or services.
71
What does roaming mean in cellular communications?
Cellular communications services received from a visited network when unable to connect to the facilities of the home network.
72
What is meant by a substantial or essential component?
Any component necessary for the proper function or performance of a piece of equipment, system, or service.
73
As of August 13, 2019, what are agencies prohibited from procuring?
Any equipment, system, or service that uses covered telecommunications equipment or services as a substantial or essential component.
74
What exceptions allow agencies to procure covered telecommunications services?
* A service that connects to the facilities of a third-party
* Telecommunications equipment that cannot route or redirect user data traffic
75
What must Contracting Officers not do unless exceptions apply?
Procure or obtain, or extend or renew a contract for any equipment, system, or service that uses covered telecommunications equipment or services.
76
What is recorded in the System for Award Management (SAM)?
Prohibitions on purchases of products or services produced or provided by entities identified in the definition of 'covered telecommunications equipment or services.'
77
What is required if an offeror selects 'does not' in certain provisions?
The contracting officer may rely on the 'does not' representation unless there is reason to question it.
78
What is the role of the head of an executive agency regarding waivers?
The head may waive the prohibition regarding covered telecommunications equipment upon a compelling justification and a phase-out plan.
79
What must an executive agency establish for waivers under 4.2104?
* A senior agency official for supply chain risk management
* Participation in an information-sharing environment
* Notification and consultation with the ODNI
80
What is the definition of a covered application?
The social networking service TikTok or any successor application developed by ByteDance Limited.
81
What does the No TikTok on Government Devices Act prohibit?
The presence or use of a covered application on information technology owned or managed by the Government.
82
What clause must be inserted in all solicitations and contracts regarding ByteDance?
The clause at 52.204-27, Prohibition on a ByteDance Covered Application.
83
What is covered article as defined in 41 U.S.C. 4713(k)?
* Information technology
* Telecommunications equipment or service
* Processing of information on a Federal or non-Federal information system
* Hardware, systems, devices, software, or services including embedded IT
84
What is the expiration date of the authority provided in this subpart?
December 31, 2033.
85
What does FASCSA stand for?
Federal Acquisition Supply Chain Security Act
## Footnote
The act focuses on the security of the supply chain in federal acquisitions.
86
What is a FASCSA order?
An order issued under the Federal Acquisition Supply Chain Security Act requiring the removal of covered articles from executive agency information systems.
## Footnote
This includes the exclusion of named sources or covered articles from procurement actions.
87
Who can issue a FASCSA order for civilian agencies?
The Secretary of Homeland Security
## Footnote
This order may be referred to as a Department of Homeland Security (DHS) FASCSA order.
88
Which department's FASCSA orders are applicable to the Department of Defense?
The Secretary of Defense
## Footnote
This type of order may be referred to as a DoD FASCSA order.
89
What does the Director of National Intelligence (DNI) issue FASCSA orders for?
The intelligence community and sensitive compartmented information systems.
## Footnote
This type of order may be referred to as a DNI FASCSA order.
90
Define 'intelligence community' as per 50 U.S.C. 3003(4).
Includes offices such as the Office of the Director of National Intelligence, CIA, NSA, and others involved in national intelligence.
## Footnote
This also encompasses elements from various departments such as Defense and Homeland Security.
91
What is a 'national security system'?
An information system used by an agency or contractor involving intelligence activities or critical to military missions.
## Footnote
It does not include systems for routine administrative applications.
92
What is 'reasonable inquiry' in the context of FASCSA?
An inquiry designed to uncover information about covered articles or sources subject to a FASCSA order.
## Footnote
This excludes the need for internal or third-party audits.
93
What does 'supply chain risk' refer to?
The risk of sabotage, unwanted functionality, or data extraction affecting covered articles.
## Footnote
This includes risks that manipulate the function or operation of these articles.
94
List three types of information included in supply chain risk information.
* Functionality and features of covered articles
* User environment where a covered article is used
* Foreign control or influence over a source
## Footnote
Additional items include implications to government missions and vulnerabilities of Federal systems.
95
True or False: Executive agencies must share supply chain risk information with the FASC.
True
## Footnote
This is required if there is a reasonable basis to conclude a substantial supply chain risk exists.
96
What must executive agencies not do if a FASCSA order prohibits it?
Procure or obtain covered articles or services from a source subject to the order.
## Footnote
This includes extending or renewing contracts for such items.
97
What is the System for Award Management (SAM) used for?
To find FASCSA orders applicable to acquisitions.
## Footnote
SAM may be updated as new FASCSA orders are issued.
98
Fill in the blank: A _______ is a non-Federal supplier of products or services.
Source
## Footnote
Sources can be at any tier of supply.
99
What happens if a new FASCSA order is issued collectively by the DHS, DoD, and DNI?
The contracting officer must modify the basic contract to remove covered articles as required by the order.
## Footnote
This applies to collective FASCSA orders that affect multiple agencies.
100
What is required if a solicitation needs to incorporate new FASCSA orders?
The contracting officer must amend the solicitation to include FASCSA orders in effect after it was issued.
## Footnote
This modification should occur within 6 months of the determination.
101
What is a waiver in the context of FASCSA orders?
A request to not apply the FASCSA order to specific actions or acquisitions.
## Footnote
Waivers can be full or partial, depending on the circumstances.
102
List the components that must be included in a request for a waiver.
* Identification of the applicable FASCSA order
* Description of the exception sought
* Identification of the covered article or product
## Footnote
This information helps the issuing official evaluate the request.
103
What is required in a request for waiver according to FASCSA?
The request must include:
* Identification of the applicable FASCSA order
* Description of the exception sought
* Identification of the covered article or service
* Compelling justification for the exception
* Alternative mitigations to reduce risks
* Any other information requested by the issuing official
## Footnote
The waiver request must provide detailed information for evaluation by the issuing official.
104
What must the contracting officer do before making an award if a waiver is being pursued?
The contracting officer must obtain written approval that the waiver has been granted before making an award
## Footnote
This process ensures compliance with agency procedures and federal regulations.
105
What clause must be inserted in all Federal Supply Schedules and Governmentwide acquisition contracts where FASCSA orders are applied?
The clause at 52.204-28, Federal Acquisition Supply Chain Security Act Orders
## Footnote
This clause is essential for compliance in contracts affected by FASCSA.
106
In which solicitations must the provision at 52.204-29 be inserted?
In all solicitations except for Federal Supply Schedules, Governmentwide acquisition contracts, and multi-agency contracts
## Footnote
This provision pertains to representation and disclosures related to FASCSA.
107
Under what conditions must the clause at 52.204-30 be used?
In solicitations and contracts if the conditions specified at 4.2304(a)(1) apply, except for certain contracts
## Footnote
This clause addresses prohibitions and compliance with FASCSA.
108
What is the alternate clause used for Federal Supply Schedules when FASCSA orders are applied at the contract level?
The clause with its Alternate I
## Footnote
This is used to ensure that federal regulations are followed in contract solicitations.
109
Fill in the blank: The contracting officer shall decide whether to pursue a _______ or to make award to an offeror that does not require a waiver.
waiver
## Footnote
This decision is based on agency procedures and program requirements.
110
True or False: The contracting officer can make an award without written approval if pursuing a waiver.
False
## Footnote
Written approval is a prerequisite to making an award when a waiver is being pursued.
