Final Flashcards

(92 cards)

1
Q

Dyspepsia

A

Difficult to digest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Hepaturia

A

Blood in the urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Polydipsia

A

Excessive thirst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Hemoptysis

A

Blood in the sputum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Jejunum

A

Second portion of the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cecum

A

The last segment of the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Chancroid

A

Caused by haemophilus ducreyi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Suprapubic catheter

A

Is inserted surgically through the abdominal walls above the symphysis pubis into the urinary bladder
Insertion site care involves sterile technique
Catheter needs to be replaced within 30 min if it falls out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Ischemia

A

Results from an obstruction, loss, or reduction of blood supply leading to lack of oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Gangrene

A

tissue necrosis (death) resulting form local anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Gas gangrene

A

Is always cause by clostridium spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Pericardium

A

Around the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Capillary

A

One of the microscopic blood vessels joining arterioles and venules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

vein

A

Any one of the many vessels that convey blood from the capillaries as part of the pulmonary venous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Crutch training

A

3 finger widths below the axilla, 30 degree elbow angle flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When drawing up insulin which do you draw up first?

A

clear to cloudy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How do you mix insulin?

A

You should never shake insulin but instead role it between your palms to mix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

why is one type of insulin cloudy?

A

cloudy insulin has a protein in it and therefore must be drawn up after clear in order to prevent contamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which injection sites for insulin are most quickly absorbed?

A

arms and abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

which injection sites for insulin take longer to absorb?

A

thigh and buttocks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are the recommend site to inject insulin?

A

arms
abdomen
thigh
buttocks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How often should insulin injection site be rotated/

A

rotate injection sites weekly to prevent lipoatrophy and lipohypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

why do insulin injection sites need to be rotated?

A

minimize tissue damage
aid absorption
avoid discomfort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the different medication orders?

A

prn, stat, single, standing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what are oral contradictions?
npo, vomiting, unable to swallow, unconscious
26
what are the eight rights to medications?
``` med time dose route client client ed right to refuse documentation evaluation assessment ```
27
Aseptic techniques
eliminate and exclude pathogens- include: hand hygiene, sterile gloves, mask and gowns.
28
Necrotizing fasciitis are caused by what?
S. pyogens
29
Colitis
``` Inflammation of the colon (large intestine) S/S Diarrhea with or without blood Abdominal pain Fever can be present ```
30
Dysentery
frequent watery stools accompanied by: abdominal pain, fever, and dehydration The stool specimens may contain blood or mucus Caused by: Shigella spp (bacteria)
31
Enteritis
Inflammation of the intestines, usually referring t the small intestine
32
Cholera
acute bacterial disease caused by V. Cholerae by ingestion of raw or undercooked foods. Signs and symptoms are profuse watery stools, vomiting and rapid dehydration
33
Bacterial gastritis
is an infection with Helicobacter pylori can cause chronic bacterial gastritis and duodenal ulcers
34
C. Diff
is an anaerobic, spore-forming, gram postive bacillus. It is an indigenous microbiota of the colon and occurs when a patient receives oral anitbiotics
35
Disinfection
elimination of most or all pathogens (except bacterial spores) from nonliving objects. Disinfectants are not used on living tissue. Ex. Alcohol,
36
Nosocomial infection
infections acquired in a hospital
37
Epidemic disease (outbreak)
a greater than usual number of cases of a disease in a particular region, usually occurring within a relatively short period of time. Ex. A dozen people develop food poisoning after a luncheon together- this constitutes an epidemic.
38
Endemic disease
always present within the population of a particular geographic area. Number of cases may fluctuate over time but the disease never dies out completely. Ex. Include bacterial diseases such as TB, staphylococcal, streptococcal, STD’s such as gonorrhea and syphilis, viral disease – common cold, influenza, chicken pox, and mumps. Plague caused by bacterium an endemic among rats, prairie dogs and other rodents
39
Hepatitis
Inflammation of the liver. Result of viral infection. Also caused by toxic agents
40
What is the only type of hepatitis that is DNA?
Type B (HBV infection, serum hepatitis)
41
Tinea Barbae
A fungal infection of the beard and moustache
42
Tinea Capitis
A fungal infection of the scalp, eyebrows, and eyelashes
43
Tinea Corpris
fungal infection of the face, trunk and major limbs
44
Tinea Cruris
A fungal infection of the groin and perineal and perianal areas
45
Tinea Pedis
also called athlete's foot: a fungal infection of the soles of the feet and between the toes
46
Tinea Unguium
A fungal infection of the nails; also called onychomycosis
47
Trichomonas
is a sexually transmitted disease affecting both men and women. S/S in women are vaginitis with profuse, thin foamy,malodorous, greenish-yellow discharge
48
Giardiasis
is a protozoal infection of the duodenum from drinking water
49
Histoplasmosis
Most common systemic fungal infection in AIDs patients is
50
Lyme disease
most common arthropod borne disease- tick feeds from infected deer or mouse then becomes infected with Borrelia burgdorferi it then feeds from a human transmitting the disease to the human. Characterized by a bull’s eye rash, neurological and cardiac dysfunction, and severe arthritis
51
Pharyngitis
Inflammation of the mucous membranes and underlying tissue of the pharynx, Commonly referred to as a “sore throat”. Strep throat is caused by S. pyogenes. The most cases are caused by VIRUSES
52
Leukocytosis
increased number of leukocytes in the blood- Bacterial infection
53
Penicillin (cells)
human cells have no cell walls so therefore cant be destroyed by penicillin. treat syphillis except for tertiary
54
B, T, memory cells
Memory cells respond to antigen next time antigen comes into body
55
B cell
produce antibodies
56
T cell
predominate in the blood
57
droplet isolation
requires regular mask | for the flu
58
Airborne isolation
requires N95 mask for TB negative pressure
59
protective isolation
positive pressure nurse must wear a mask for those with leukopenia
60
Bacteriostatic
inhibits growth of microbes | used only in pt with good defense mechanism
61
Bactericidal
kills bacteria
62
Bacteriostatic agent
inhibits the metabolism and reproductions of bacteria
63
Sepsis
presence of pathogens
64
Bactericidal
kill bacteria
65
NGT
gastric suctioning swallow examine nares/skin breakdown for comfort before if have problem getting it in, withdraw it and try other nares
66
when doing wound care what should you never do?
microwave fluids
67
what size syringe should you use?
18-19 gauge, 30-60 ml
68
Chlamydia
most common STI in US
69
fungal allergens
cause type 1 hypersensitivity
70
gonococcal conjunctivitis
acute redness swelling of the conjunctiva purulent discharge corneal ulcers, perforation, and blindness may occur if the disease is untreated
71
drug toxicity
harmful effects of a drug on an organism
72
antifungal
most toxic to the patient
73
Factor that increase virulence factor
toxins are obvious virulence factors | capsule
74
Bladder Irrigation
non sterile procedure
75
CAUTI
Catheter associated urinary tract infection | risk for infection increases by 5% each day when foley left in place
76
SARS
is a viral respiratory illness with high fever, chills, headache, a general feeling of discomfort, body aches and sometimes diarrhea. SARS is caused by SARS- associated coronavirus
77
what position do you want to have the client in for Oropharynx suctioning?
fowler's or semi fowlers
78
Salmonella
Typhoid fever gram negative bacili least likely to cause HAI
79
what are the function of antibodies
mark invading organisms for destructions
80
what has the fastest absorption rate?
IV
81
what has the slowest absorption rate?
subcutaneous absorption route is the slowest
82
IgA
exists as a monomer or dimer predominant class in body secretions (saliva, tears, breastmilk) protects mucous membranes from pathogens
83
IgD
``` found on surface of B cells function is unknown ```
84
IgE
produced in response to allergens
85
IgG
``` most abundant type in serum only class that can cross the placenta ```
86
IgM
pentameter largest type first antibodies formed in the primary response* short lived
87
Fungal diseases in AIDS clients
Candadisis | number 1 infection
88
Crytococcus
causes meningitis in clients with AIDS
89
Type 1 Hypersensitivity
allergic reaction | responses to insect stings and drugs
90
Type 2 Hypersensitivity
cytotoxic | blood transfusion reaction
91
Type 3 Hypersensitivity
serum sickness immune complex reaction RA o r SLE
92
Type 4 Hypersensitivity
delayed type hypersensitivity or cell-mediated immune reactions TB, other skin tests