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Flashcards in Final Exam Clicker Questions Deck (186):
1

Dunkop and Dikkop forms are clinical forms of?

A. Bluetongue
B. Avian reovirus infection
C. Rotavirus infection
D. African horse sickness

D. African horse sickness

2

The enzootic cycle of Venezuelan Equine Encephalitis Virus (VEEV) is primarily maintained between _ and _.
A. Humans and Mosquitoes
B. Birds and Mosquitoes
C. Rodents and Mosquitoes
D. Horses and Mosquitoes

C. Rodents and Mosquitoes

3

Western Equine Encephalitis Virus (WEEV) is believed to have emerged from genetic recombination of an ancestral Eastern Equine Encephalitis virus-like Virus (EEEV-like) and ancestral Venezuelan Equine Encephalitis virus-like (VEEV-like) virus.

A. True
B. False

A. True

4

Calicivirus can cause lameness in cats

A. True
B. False

A. True

Some strains have been associated with lameness in cats.

5

Serotype-2 Birnavirus causes IBD in chickens.

A. True
B. False

B. False

It is serotype-1

6

There is no rabies in North America.

A. True
B. False

B. False

7

What are the reservoirs of rabies virus in North America

A. Dogs and cats
B. Horses, mules, and donkeys
C. Racoons, skunks and foxes
D. Ticks

C. Racoons, skunks and foxes

8

Vesicular stomatitis virus causes disease in horses in Africa and Asia only.

A. True
B. False

B. False

9

Vesicular stomatitis is a reportable disease in North America.

A. True
B. False

A. True

10

Positive sense RNA means:

A. RNA needs to be converted to mRNA for protein translation to ensue
B. RNA requires reverse transcriptase to prepare mRNA
C. RNA serves as mRNA from which protein translation can directly begin

C. RNA serves as mRNA from which protein translation can directly begin

11

What is the regenerative anemia?

A. Anemia that leads to skeletal tissue regeneration
B. Anemia in which the bone marrow responds by producing more RBCS
C. Anemia in which only platelets regenerate

B. Anemia in which the bone marrow responds by producing more RBCs

12

Non regenerative anemia is the opposite of regenerative anemia?

A. Yes
B. No

A. Yes

13

Destruction of RBC in EIA is an example of which hypersensitivity?

A. Hypersensitivity Type I
B. Hypersensitivity Type II
C. Hypersensitivity Type III
D. Hypersensitivity Type IV

B. Hypersensitivity Type II

14

A new variant of Newcastle disease virus has been identified. It has mutations in the attachment protein HN, fusion protein F, and in 5 non-structural proteins NS1-5. You have been asked to design a vaccine against this virus. What would your approach be?

A. In designing a virus-neutralizing vaccine
B. In designing a cell mediated immunity-inducing vaccine

Look at the mutations. Look at the fusion proteins. Bring back knowledge.

A. Inactivate the virus and put in animal to produce Ab. Non-replicating virus.

B. Take new virus and attenuate them. Keep them alive they will replicate but not cause the disease. Will have cellular and humoral immunity.

15

You find 6 chicken dead at a farm. After examination you suspect it may be the avian paramyxovirus 1 infection because you recall that these birds have not been vaccinated. What simple pen side test would you conduct to confirm you suspicion?

Hemagglutination Test

16

Canine distemper virus causes distemper in cats?

A. True
B. False

B. False

Distemper is also used in relation to cats. But talking about a different disease caused by a parvovirus. Feline Panleukopenia Virus is distemper in cats.

17

If the canine distemper virus infects and destroys macrophages, thymocytes, dendritic cells and activated lymphocytes. What outcome of the infection is likely to occur?

A. A lymphoproliferative disease
B. A secondary immunodeficiency disease
C. Immunotolerance
D. Primary immunodeficiency disease

B. A secondary immunodeficiency disease

18

A cold is the same as flu.

A. True
B. False

B. False

A flu is a more severe than a cold. A cold or common cold is caused mostly by rhinoviruses and corona viruses. Flu or influenza is caused by orthomyxoviruses/influenza viruses.

19

What is the normal temperature of newborn and adult horses?

A. 99.5-102.1 F and 99-101 F
B. 90.5-100.1 F and 98-105 F
88-98 F and 100-108 F

A. 99./5-102.1 F and 99-101F

20

If infection before immunocompetence will lead to birth of calves that are carriers of the virus but are seronegative. Why?

Immunotolerance.

21

Infection with BVDV immunocompetence will lead to birth of calves that are carriers of the virus but are seronegative. Why?

A. Malfunction of the immune system
B. Development of immunotolerance
C. Immunodeficiency
D. I do not remember.

B. Development of immunotolerance

22

Dunkop (acute/pulmonary_ and Dikkop (subacute/cardiac) are the two common clinical forms of _.

A. Equine Influenza
B. Rift Valley Fever
C. African Horse Sickness
D. Borna Disease

C. African Horse Sickness

23

The main site of replication of rotaviruses is _.

A. Pancreas
B. Liver
C. Brain
D. Intestine

D. Intestine

24

Transmission of TGE coronavirus to piglets already infected with porcine respiratory would aggravate the severity of TGE disease in pigs.

A. True
B. False

B. False

25

Granulomatous Uveitis is usually seen with the dry form of Feline Infectious Peritonitis.

A. True
B. False

A. True

26

Vesicular exanthema is common problem in pigs in USA.

A. True
B. False

B. False

27

Toroviruses cause _ in calves.

A. Encephalitis
B. Diarrhea
C. Arthrogryposis
D. Leukemia

B. Diarrhea

28

Borna disease virus is mostly detected in?

A. Iceland
B. Africa
C. Central Europe
D. USA

C. Central Europe

29

The fatal form of Borna disease is

A. The mucosal disease
B. The gastrointestinal disease
C. The reproductive tract disease
D. The neurological disease

D. The neurological disease

30

"Dribbling and champing of jaws" is a clinical sign of Borna disease.

A. True
B. False

A. True

31

Eosinophilic intranuclear inclusion bodies in neurons called "Joest-Degen" bodies are pathognomonic for Borna disease Virus Infection.

A. True
B. False

A. True

32

Ante-mortem diagnosis is of Borna disease is difficult mianly because of similarities in neurological manifestation. Which of the following diseases can be considered as differentials?

A. EHV-1 Infection
B. West Nile
C. Rabies
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

33

What disease does the avian bornavirus cause

A. Rhinotracheitis
B. Osteopetrosis
C. "Big Leg" syndrome
D. Proventricular dilation disease

D. Proventricular dilation disease

34

During infection with the avian bornavirus, proventricular dilation is a direct result of:

A. Inappetence
B. Progressive indigestion
C. Progressive neurological dysfunction
D. Diarrhea

C. Progressive neurological dysfunction

35

Although Astroviruses are known to cause diarrhea in many animal specis, however, a fatal diarrheic disease can be observed only in?

A. Birds
B. Cattle
C. Humans
D. Pigs

A. Birds

36

Astroviruses have a linear, positive sense, single-stranded RNA and the RNA is:

A. Infectious
B. Semi-infectious
C. Non-infectious
D. Quiescent

A. Infectious

37

The term prion means:

A. Non-infectious protein
B. Precarious protein
C. Primitive form of virus
D. Infectious protein or rogue protein

D. Infectious protein or rogue protein

38

What classification system is used for prions?

A. Microorganism classification system
B. International Committee on taxonomy of viruses
C. Bergey's manual of systematic bacteriology
D. There is no classification system for prions yet

D. There is no classification system for prions yet

39

What is the abnormal form of the prion protein?

A. PrPc
B. PrP
C. PrPsc
D. PrPs

C. PrPsc

40

Prion proteins are mostly expressed in:

A. Neurons and lymphoreticular cells
B. Muscle cells
C. Skull osteocytes
D. Enterocytes

A. Neurons and lymphoreticular cells

41

Why are prions difficult to eliminate?

A. Their envelop coat is resistant to proteases
B. They are invisible
C. They are resistant to chemical and physical conditions
D. They are made of RNA that is resistant to ultraviolet light

C. They are resistant to chemical and physical conditions

42

How do prions replicate?

A. They use reverse transcriptase to transcribe their genetic material
B. By transduction
C. They are amplified by Taq polymerase
D. The PrPsc catalyses the conversion of PrPc into Prsc

D. The PrPsc catalyses the conversion of PrPc into Prsc

43

Scrapie is a prion disease mainly found in:

A. Pigs
B. Cattle
C. Camels
D. Sheep

D. Sheep

44

In animals infected with the scrapie prion, histopathological lesions are characterized by wide spread inflammatory reaction in the brain.

A. True
B. False

B. False

45

Why has prion infection in cattle been termed "mad cow disease"?

A. Aimless wondering of the affected animal
B. Constant mooing of the affected animal
C. Weight loss of the affected animal
D. Abnormal posture and progressive apprehensive behavior of the affected animal

D. Abnormal posture and progressive apprehensive behavior of the affected animal

46

Although the transmission of prions is not fully known, what is the accepted mode of transmission currently?

A. Thrips
B. Mosquitoes
C. Oral route
D. Ticks

C. Oral route

47

Histopathological examination of a brain from a cow suspected to have died from Bovine spongiform encephalopathy would show:

A. Vestibular neuronitis
B. Neuronal vacuolation and degenertion
C. Astrocytic hypoplasia
D. Lymphocytes infiltration around neurons

B. Neuronal vacuolation and degenertion

48

How many genera are found in the Orthomyxoviridae family of viruses?

A. 6
B. 7
C. 5
D. 4

C. 5

49

What are hemagglutinin and neuraminidase?

A. Secretory proteins produced by the orthomyxovirus
B. Lipoprotein ligands on orthomyxovirus target cells
C. Glycoproteins on orthomyxovirus that contribute to virus attachment
D. Proteins found in the nucleus of influenza virus

C. Glycoproteins on orthomyxovirus that contribute to virus attachment

50

Which of the following sentences best describes the type and configuration of the nucleic acid in orthomyxovirus

A. 6-8 segments of linear, positive sense, single stranded RNA
B. 6-8 segments of circular, negative sense dsDNA
C. 6-8 segments of circular, positive sense, dsRNA
D. 6-8 segments of linear, negative sense, single stranded RNA

D. 6-8 segments of linear, negative sense, single stranded RNA

51

When influenza viruses re-assort their gene segments, it is said that they undergo an:

A. Antigenic drift
B. Antigenic shift
C. Antigenic rearrangement

B. Antigenic shift

52

Retrovirus, orthomyxovirus and paramyxovirus have a lipid envelope and so are sensitive to?

A. Acidic pH
B. Lipid solvents
C. Heat (e.g., 56 C/30 min)
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

53

Uncoating of the orthomyxovirus envelope takes place in the?

A. Cytoplasm
B. Nucleus
C. Both the nucleus and cytoplasm
D. None of the above

A. Cytoplasm

54

Which of the following names of an influenza virus is correct according to naming scheme of influenza viruses?

A. A/Iowa/swine/15/30 (H1N1)
B. A/ Swine/ Iowa/15/1930 (H1N1)
C. Swine/A/Iowa/15/'30 (H1N1)
D. A/swine/Iowa/15/30

B. A/ Swine/ Iowa/15/1930 (H1N1)

55

Which of the following statements best describes transmission of Influenza viruses

A. In mammals - aerosol, droplets, and fomites
B. In poultry - ingestion and inhalation
C. In aquatic birds fecal-oral transmission is common
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

56

What type of horses are at risk of contracting equine influenza

A. Show horses
B. Breeding stock horses
C. Race horses
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

57

Equine influenza is primarily a disease of the?

A. Reproductive tract
B. Digestive tract
C. Immune system
D. Respiratory tract

D. Respiratory tract

58

Prolonged high fever in pregnant mares infected with equine influenza virus can lead to?

A. Emaciation
B. Severe dehydration
C. Abortion
D. No consequence

C. Abortion

59

What feasible therapeutic options are available for treatment of swine influenza in swine?

A. Steroid therapy
B. Antibiotics
C. None exist
D. Antivirals

C. None exist

60

Which of the following virus families has a herringbone shaped nucleocapsid?

A. Picornaviridae
B. Orthomyxoviridae
C. Orthopoxviridae
D. Paramyxoviridae

D. Paramyxoviridae

61

Which orthomyxovirus genus contains pathogens for humans, swine, horses, and chickens?

A. Influenza B
B. Thogotovirus
C. Influenza C
D. Influenza A

D. Influenza A

62

What diagnostic course would take to assess herd immunity to equine influenza?

A. ELISA, to measure residual virus antigens
B. Retrospective serology, to measure the level of antibodies against equine influenza virus
C. RT-PCR, to measure the residual viral RNA
D. Biological assay to challenge animals and see if they will be infected with equine influenza virus

B. Retrospective serology, to measure the level of antibodies against equine influenza virus

63

What control approach is usually adopted by many countries to control influenza in chicken and swine?

A. Interventional vaccination of animals within the outbreak area
B. Treatment of sick birds or animals
C. Culling of birds or pigs in an outbreak of influenza
D. Separation of infected animals from non-infected

C. Culling of birds or pigs in an outbreak of influenza

64

Influenza, in whatever animal species the disease occurs, it is manifested as a disease of the?

A. Digestive tract
B. Immune system
C. Reproductive tract
D. Respiratory tract

D. Respiratory tract

65

Infection of poultry caused by an influenza A virus of the H5 or H7 subtype or any AI virus that causes at least 75% mortality should be considered?

A. Not an imminent threat
B. A pandemic
C. Notifiable avian influenza
D. Non-notifiable avian influenza

C. Notifiable avian influenza

66

What are the names of 2 important envelope antigens in the orthomyxovirus?

A. Matrix and NP proteins
B. NEP and NS2
C. NP and P proteins
D. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase

D. Hemagglutinin and neuraminidase

67

Antigenic shifts and antigenic drifts are characteristic of

A. Nipah virus
B. Retrovirus
C. Influenza A virus
D. Chikungunya virus

C. Influenza A virus

68

Paramyxoviruses can replicate in enucleated cells or cells treated with actinomycin D.

A. True
B. False

A. True

69

Which of the following replication strategies fit the Paramyxovirus?

A. Cytoplasmic uncoating, cytoplasmic synthesis of both mRNA and +RNA, cytoplasmic translation of structural proteins from mRNA, cytoplasmic synthesis vRNA (-) from +RNA, virion assembly and budding.
B. Cytoplasmic uncoating and reverse transcription, nuclear dsDNA integration in host genome and transcription, cytoplasmic protein translation, virion assembly and budding
C. Nuclear uncoating, cytoplasmic synthesis of mRNA and RNA(+), translation of non-structural proteins, assembly of virions
D. Cytoplasmic uncoating, nuclear synthesis of mRNA, and cRNA(+) and vRNA(-), cytoplasmic translation of proteins, virion assembly and budding

A. Cytoplasmic uncoating, cytoplasmic synthesis of both mRNA and +RNA, cytoplasmic translation of structural proteins from mRNA, cytoplasmic synthesis vRNA (-) from +RNA, virion assembly and budding.

70

Replication of paramyzovirus occurs priamrily in this location?

A. Nucleus
B. Endothelial reticulum
C. Mitochondria
D. Cytoplasm

D. Cytoplasm

71

How many types of glycoprotein spikes are there on the surface envelope of Paramyxoviridae

A. 3
B. 1
C. 2
D. 4

C. 2

72

According to the FAO and OIE, Rinderpest has been eradicated.

A. True
B. False

A. True

73

Giant, multinucleated cells that develop during paramyxovirus replication are also known as a what?

A. Synchrotrons
B. Syncopates
C. Synclines
D. Syncytia

D. Syncytia

74

AVPM-1 is a member of what sub-family of viruses?

A. Filovirinae
B. Orthomyxovirinae
C. Paramyxovirinae
D. Retrovirinae

C. Paramyxovirinae

75

Nipah virus naturally infects fruit bats, humans, and swine are NOT susceptible.

A. True
B. False

B. False

76

To which family of viruses do the Paramyxovirinae and Pneumovirinae belong.

A. Birnaviridae
B. Paramyxoviridae
C. Orthomyxoviridae
D. Rhabdoviridae

B. Paramyxoviridae

77

Members of the Paramyxoviridae do not require nuclear function to replicate.

A. True
B. False

A. True

78

Syncytium formed in cell culture following infection with Paramyxovirus. Syncytium is:

A. Formation of syncopates in cell culture
B. Formation of synchrotrons in cells infected with APMV-1
C. Formation of large, multinucleated cells in culture
D. Formation of synclines in infected cells

C. Formation of large, multinucleated cells in culture

79

Which of the following are pathotypes of APMV-1 (NDV).

A. Mesogenic
B. Velogenic (viscerotropic /neurotropic)
C. Lentogenic
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

80

Nipah virus is an emerging zoonosis.

A. True
B. False

A. True

81

Secondary immunodeficiency is likely to develop during canine distemper. Why?

A. Destruction of nasal associated lymphoid tissue
B. Destruction of the nervous system
C. Destruction of dendritic cells, macrophages, thymocytes, and activated T cells
D. Destruction of nasal epithelial tissue

C. Destruction of dendritic cells, macrophages, thymocytes, and activated T cells

82

What receptor should be expressed on cells for canine distemper virus to infect that cell?

A. CD150
B. CXCR4
C. CCR5
D. CD4

A. CD150

83

Canine distemper in dogs is now a rare disease in North America. Why?

A. The virus has been eradicated
B. Quarantine and elimination of infected dogs
C. Systematic vaccination of dogs
D. All virus reservoirs have been eliminated

C. Systematic vaccination of dogs

84

You are called on to a puppy that has been bitten by a raccoon. The client managed to capture the raccoon. Upon visual examination of the raccoon you notice neurological signs similar to canine distemper. Is there anything you could do to prevent canine distemper in the non-vaccinated puppy?

A. No, the puppy should be quarantines and eliminated if canine distemper develops
B. Yes, administer hyperimmune serum against canine distemper virus
C. Yes, vaccinate immediately
D. Nothing can be done, just dress the bite wound and hope for the best

B. Yes, administer hyperimmune serum against canine distemper virus

85

Further consider the events in the previous question. What other suspicion could arise regarding the state of the raccoon?

A. It could be infected with the rabies virus
B. It could be infected with the classical swine fever virus
C. The raccoon could have drunk some alcohol found in the dumpster, hence gait abnormality
D. It could be infected with a feline retrovirus

A. It could be infected with the rabies virus

86

Samples from chicken suspected of velogenic NDV infection should be sent to:

A. Any laboratory that can process the samples
B. The best diagnostic laboratory in the country
C. A reference laboratory
D. Nearest diagnostic laboratory as soon as possible

C. A reference laboratory

87

During an outbreak of FMD, what disinfectant, in form of soaked mats, would you choose to safeguard the entrance to animal houses?

A. Picric acid
B. Sulphuric acid
C. Sodium hydrogen Sulphate
D. Soda Ash

D. Soda Ash

88

In the replication cycle of the Flaviviruses, once proteins (both non-structural and structural) are translated where do they go?

A. Nucleus
B. Cell membrane surface
C. Golgi apparatus
D. Endoplasmic reticulum

D. Endoplasmic reticulum

89

Flaviviruses are susceptible to lipid solvents as disinfectants.

A. True
B. False

A. True

90

Which of the following neurological signs can be observed in WNV-infected horses?

A. Head Tremors
B. Muscle Fasciculation
C. Abnormality in gait
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

91

You think you ahve recognized WNV infection in a horse on the 5th day of infection, however, you still have doubts. What sample and which rapid diagnostic test would you prescribe to confirm your suspicion?

A. Blood, Immunohistochemistry
B. Blood, IgM ELISA
C. Blood, RT-PCR
D. Blood, Virus neutralization

B. Blood, IgM ELISA

92

Ticks can transmit WNV virus.

A. True
B. False

A. True

93

Infection of BVDV in cattle can result in:

A. Mucosal disease only
B. Bovine diarrhea or mucosal disease
C. Bovine Diarrhea Only
D. Non of the above

B. Bovine diarrhea or mucosal disease

94

Bovine viral diarrhea virus belongs to the genus.

A. Hepacvirus
B. Pestivirus
C. Flaviviridae
D. Flavivirus

B. Pestivirus

95

How is BVDV transmitted?

A. By mice feeding from the same animal
B. Indirectly by feed and fomites contaminated with urine of infected animals
C. By birds feeding from the same animal feed
D. By ticks and mosquitoes

B. Indirectly by feed and fomites contaminated with urine of infected animals

96

What is the consequence of infection of cattle with a non-cytopathic BVDV strain?

A. Acute Viral Diarrhea
B. Acute Mucosal Disease
C. Subacute Viral Diarrhea
D. Peristent infection with sporadic mucosal disease

D. Peristent infection with sporadic mucosal disease

97

At what stage of gestation can infection with BVDV in cows terminate the pregnancy, cause embryonic death or if the pregnancy is carried to term, persistently infected calves can be born?

A. First trimester
B. Fourth trimester
C. Third trimester
D. Second trimester

A. First trimester

98

If a cow is infected with a non-cytopathic strain of BVDV it will develop a persistent infection. What is the outcome of co-infection of such an animal with a cytopathic BVDV strain?

A. Mucosal disease
B. Acute viral diarrheal disease
C. Subacute diarrhea
D. No clinical disease because is partly immune

A. Mucosal disease

99

Persistent of prenatal infection with BVDV in cattle can lead to genetic disorders of fetuses.

A. True
B. False

A. True

100

You are an international veterinary consultant. What advice would you give to a developing country on the control of BVDV?

A. No steps necessary, the disease will disappear on its own.
B. Vaccinate all animals.
C. Separate infected animals from healthy animals.
D. Identify infected animals, eliminate and vaccinate new animals in the herd.

D. Identify infected animals, eliminate and vaccinate new animals in the herd.

101

Classical swine fever is also referred to as?

A. Hog fever
B. African swine fever
C. Typhus
D. Hog cholera

D. Hog cholera

102

Hog cholera is typically a disease of?

A. Dogs
B. Cattle
C. Pigs
D. Horses

C. Pigs

103

Where in North America is classical swine fever enzootic?

A. Canada
B. Currently, classical swine fever is not found in North America
C. Mexico
D. USA

B. Currently, classical swine fever is not found in North America

104

High fever and abdominal hyperaemia are characteristic of classical swine fever.

A. True
B. False

A. True

105

Indicate which of the following is a unique features of the Flavivirus replication cycle.

A. Replicate in the nucleus
B. Replicate in the cytoplasm
C. Virion assembly and encapdisation takes place in the endoplasmic reticulum
D. Virions assembly and encapsidation take place on the cell surface

C. Virion assembly and encapdisation takes place in the endoplasmic reticulum

106

Which statement accurately describes the transmission of the West Nile Virus?

A. birds are reservoirs, mosquitoes are vectors, horses are amplification hosts
B. birds are reservoirs, mosquitoes are vectors, humans are amplification hosts
C. birds are reservoirs, mosquitoes are vectors, horses and humans are amplification hosts
D. birds are reservoirs, mosquitoes are vectors, horses and humans are accidental hosts

D. birds are reservoirs, mosquitoes are vectors, horses and humans are accidental hosts

107

At what stage of gestation does infection with BVDV of pregnant cows result in early embryonic death of resorption?

A. Pregnancy before immunological competence
B. Early in pregnancy
C. Late in pregnancy
D. Non of the above

B. Early in pregnancy

108

The Arteriviridae family belongs to the Order?

A. Caudovirales
B. Mononegavirales
C. Nidovirales
D. Picornavirales

C. Nidovirales

109

In which cells do the arterviruses initially replicate?

A. Arteriols
B. Artery Cells
C. Macrophages
D. Bone marrow cells

C. Macrophages

110

During equine arteritis virus infection arteries are damaged by virus replication and inflammatory cytokines.

A. True
B. False

A. True

111

Where in the body does edema develop during equine arteritis virus infection?

A. Tail base
B. There is no edema during equine arterivirus infection
C. Nasal mucosa
D. Over the eyes and abdomen

D. Over the eyes and abdomen

112

The best way to prevent transmission of equine arterivirus is?

A. Recognize and separate infected horses
B. No effort required, the infection is self limiting
C. Kill infected horses
D. Prevention is unachievable

A. Recognize and separate infected horses

113

PRRSV frequently causes reproductive failure in?

A. Boars
B. Barrows
C. Spayed gilts
D. Sows and gilts

D. Sows and gilts

114

During infection with PRRSV fetuses are killed by hypoxia due to arteritis that develops in the umbilical vessels.

A. True
B. False

A. True

115

Intentional whole-herd infection is an option in the control of PRRSV.

A. True
B. False

A. True

116

If you decide to prescribe immunohistochemistry as a test for the detection of PRRSV in mummified fetuses, which samples would you provide?

A. Tissue collected from the mummified fetus
B. Swabs of fresh nasal discharge
C. Vulva discharges
D. Heparin blood collected from the mummified fetus.

A. Tissue collected from the mummified fetus

117

During pRRSV infection, what post-mortem samples would you collect for testing immediately after abortion?

A. Lymph nodes and tonsils
B. All options are valid
C. Lung
D. Spleen

B. All options are valid

118

Regarding PRRSV infection, the aim is to stabilize the herd by assuring immunity, particularly in breeding stock. Which of the following approaches would aid in achieving this aim?

A. Start the breeding with animals of the same age
B. Early vaccination of breeding stock
C. Recognition and elimination of problem animals
D. No vaccination for naïve animals

B. Early vaccination of breeding stock

119

If a new breeding boar is to be introduced into the herd, how long would you recommend that it be quarantined?

A. 15 days
B. If the boar looks healthy there is no need to quarantine
C. 5 weeks
D. At least 8-13 weeks

D. At least 8-13 weeks

120

Orthobunyavirus, Nairovirus, and Phlebovirus are examples of arthropod-borne viruses. This means that they are ?

A. Arboviruses
B. Herbivorous viruses
C. Omnivorous viruses
D. Carnivorous viruses

A. Arboviruses

121

In which cellular compartment are Bunyavirus particles assembled and glycosylated

A. Endoplasmic reticulum and Golgi network
B. Mitochondria
C. Acidic endosomes
D. Nucleus

A. Endoplasmic reticulum and

122

Which of the following Bunyaviruses can cause arthrogryposis and hydranencephaly?

A. Sin Nombre Virus
B. Crimean Congo hemorrhagic and Nairobi Sheep disease virus
C. Akabane virus and Cache Valley Virus
D. Puumala and Seoul Viruses

C. Akabane virus and Cache Valley Virus

123

Arthrogryposis and hydraencephaly observed during Bunyavirus infection is most common in?

A. Cattle and sheep
B. Fish
C. Pigs
D. Horses

A. Cattle and sheep

124

Which animals are highly susceptible to the Akabane virus.

A. Horses
B. Dogs
C. Pigs
D. Cows and ewes

D. Cows and ewes

125

Which arthropod transmits the Rift Valley Fever Virus?

A. The house fly
B. The mosquito
C. The fruit fly
D. The tick

B. The mosquito

126

In which geographical region is the Rift Valley Fever virus enzootic

A. United States of America
B. Europe
C. South America
D. Eastern and Southern Africa

D. Eastern and Southern Africa

127

Outbreaks of the Rift Valley Fever usually occur after?

A. A drought
B. Heavy snow
C. Abnormally heavy rainfall
D. Gusty winds

C. Abnormally heavy rainfall

128

SVD is a vesicular disease that has not been reported in North America. What other vesicular diseases of cattle swine or horses do you know?

A. vesicular stomatitis
B. vesicular exanthema of swine
C. foot-and-mouth disease
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

129

The pig is the only natural host of Swine Vesicular Diseases Virus.

A. True
B. False

A. True

130

What is the difference between positive and negative sense viral RNA?

A. There is no difference because both encode viral genes
B. There is no difference because both types of RNA are translated in the cytoplasm
C. Viral proteins can be translated directly only from the positive sense RNA
D. No answer is correct

C. Viral proteins can be translated directly only from the positive sense RNA

131

Sodium carbonate is a disinfectant of choice during FMDV outbreaks.

A. True
B. False

A. True

132

The Picornaviridae genome is organized in one open reading frame (ORF). What does this imply for protein translation?

A. protein translation will ensue as a single polypeptide
B. protein expression will be delayed
C. protein expression will be difficult
D. No answer is correct

A. protein translation will ensue as a single polypeptide

133

Swine vesicular disease virus is sensitive to ambient temperature and to sodium carbonate.

A. True
B. False

B. False

134

How would you clinically distinguish between Foot-and-mouth disease, Swine Vesicular disease and vesicular stomatitis in pigs?

A. Lesions are indistinguishable, laboratory diagnosis is necessary.
B. Lesions in vesicular stomatitis are located only in the oral cavity.
C. Lesions in foot and mouth disease are located mostly on feet.
D. Lesions in swine vesicular disease are found throughout the body.

A. Lesions are indistinguishable, laboratory diagnosis is necessary.

135

There is cross protection between the 7 serotypes of FMDV, which makes it easy to vaccinate against FMD.

A. True
B. False

B. False

136

If FMDV was present on a farm with a mixture of animals such pigs, goats, sheep and cattle, which animal species would manifest clinical signs first?

A. Horses
B. Cattle and pigs
C. Sheep
D. Goats

B. Cattle and pigs

137

Pigs are always referred to as amplifiers of FMDV. What does this mean?

A. Virion size of FMDV in pigs is twice that in cattle
B. FMDV isolated from pigs is easily amplified by PCR
C. Replication of FMDV in pigs is intensive, resulting in a high concentration of virus on the premises
D. Pigs have more vesicles than cattle

C. Replication of FMDV in pigs is intensive, resulting in a high concentration of virus on the premises

138

Which of the following statements is a consequence of FMDV infection in livestock?

A. Loss in livestock production
B. Limitation of international trade in livestock and animal products
C. Economic losses to farmers and producers
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

139

The following are routes of FMDV transmission: aerosols, direct contact and indirect contact via fomites.

A. True
B. False

A. True

140

In FMD - free countries such as the UK, how is FMD controlled when an outbreak occurs.

A. quarantine, euthanization and disposal
B. vaccination
C. treatment of infected animals
D. none of the above

A. quarantine, euthanization and disposal

141

In North America who is authorized to handle diagnostic samples for FMD?

A. any diagnostic laboratory can handle such samples as long as they have appropriate equipment to run the tests
B. veterinary research centres
C. only veterinary hospitals
D. only reference laboratories

D. only reference laboratories

142

What is your best choice of clinical samples for FMDV or SVD testing?

A. Nasal swabs
B. Blood, vesicular fluid, raptured vesicular swabs
C. Oral swabs
D. Skin scraping

B. Blood, vesicular fluid, raptured vesicular swabs

143

Numerous assays have been developed to detect FMDV or SVDV in clinical samples. What assays would you choose to achieve rapid detection and confirmation of these viruses?

A. Inoculation of embryonated chicken eggs
B. Virus isolation in cell culture
C. Western blot
D. RT-PCR, ELISA, virus isolation, in that order

D. RT-PCR, ELISA, virus isolation, in that order

144

To which virus family and genus does FMDV belong?

A. Picornaviridae, enterovirus
B. Paramyxoviridae, aphtovirus
C. Filoviridae, aphtovirus
D. Picornaviridae, aphtovirus

D. Picornaviridae, aphtovirus

145

Which of the following strategies of cell entry can be employed by members of the picornaviridae?

A. Endocytosis
B. VP4 and VP1 mediated injection of the capsid
C. Membrane fusion
D. All options are correct

D. All options are correct

146

What are the prominent locationsof FMD lesions in cattle and pigs?

A. oral mucosal only
B. foot and mouth
C. exclusively on coronary bands
D. All over the body

B. foot and mouth

147

FMD is a highly contagious disease that always results in:

A. High mortality
B. High morbidity and mortality
C. High morbidity
D. All of the above

C. High morbidity

148

To which virus family does the rabies virus belong?

A. Vesiculoviridae
B. Retroviridae
C. Rhabdoviridae
D. Noroviridae

C. Rhabdoviridae

149

What is the current status of rabies or rabies-like viruses risk level in North America?

A. medium
B. low risk
C. no risk
D. high risk

B. low risk

150

The Ephemeralvirus genus has an important member that causes disease in:

A. dogs
B. pigeons
C. pigs
D. cattle

D. cattle

151

Which of the following descriptions of Rhabdoviridae virion properties is accurate?

A. enveloped, cone-shaped, single stranded, linear, negative sense RNA
B. enveloped, cone-shaped, double stranded, circular, negative sense RNA
C. enveloped, cone-shaped, double stranded, linear, negative sense RNA
D. enveloped, cone-shaped, single stranded, linear, positive sense RNA

A. enveloped, cone-shaped, single stranded, linear, negative sense RNA

152

If you wanted to design a neutralizing antibody-inducing vaccine against rabies virus to prevent its attachment and internalization, which protein of the virus would you target?

A. P protein
B. C protein
C. N protein
D. G protein

D. G protein

153

Which rhabdovirus protein facilitates budding from an infected cell?

A. G protein
B. P protein
C. C protein
D. M protein

D. M protein

154

Where in the cell do rhabdoviruses replicate?

A. nuclear pore
B. nucleus
C. cytoplasm
D. endoplasmic reticulum

C. cytoplasm

155

The G, N, P, M and L mRNAs of rhabdoviruses are all translated by free cytoplasmic ribosomes.

A. True
B. False

B. False

156

The rabies virus infects all mammals and so it is a zoonotic pathogen.

A. True
B. False

A. True

157

Rabies virus infection is maintained in two epidemiological cycles, urban and sylvatic. What is meant by “urban cycle”?

A. the reservoir is the dog
B. infection is maintained only in wild animals
C. the virus can only infect salivary glands
D. the virus can only be secreted with saliva

A. the reservoir is the dog

158

Which of the following is a phase in clinical rabies?

A. fury phase
B. paralytic phase
C. prodromal phase
D. all of the above

D. all of the above

159

At what phase of clinical rabies would you observe photophobia and the resulting excessive salivation?

A. fury phase
B. paralytic phase
C. prodromal phase
D. all of the above

B. paralytic phase

160

Fury in rabid dogs is associated with virus extensively replicating in the …

A. muscles
B. limbic system of the nervous system
C. spinal cord
D. salivary glands

B. limbic system of the nervous system

161

If histopathology results reveal the presence of Negri bodies in the hypothalamus of an animal suspected of rabies, it is enough to confirm rabies virus infection.

A. True
B. False

A. True

162

A small farmer has two horses, 6 cows and 15 pigs. He reports three sick animals (a cow, a horse and 5 pigs). You recognize oral vesicles in the cow and the horse, and coronary band vesicles in the pigs. From choices given below, what disease should come to your mind first before you consider other differentials?

A. vesicular stomatitis
B. Rinderpest
C. A small farmer has two horses, 6 cows and 15 pigs. He vesicular disease of swine
D. foot-and-mouth disease

A. vesicular stomatitis

163

Vesicular stomatitis is a vector-bone disease

A. True
B. False

A. True

164

Which of the following are reservoirs of rabies-like viruses in North America?

A. bison, racoons, puma
B. racoons, skunk, fox
C. dogs, fox, cattle
D. birds house flies, mosquitoes

B. racoons, skunk, fox

165


Question 19 of 20 Rabies virus infection is maintained in two epidemiological cycles, urban and sylvatic. What is meant by “sylvatic cycle”?

A. the virus can only be secreted with saliva
B. infection is maintained only in wild animals
C. the virus can only infect salivary glands
D. infection is maintained by dogs

B. infection is maintained only in wild animals

166

Black flies, houseflies and mosquitoes, in general biting insects, can transmit vesicular stomatitis virus.

A. True
B. False

A. True

167

Retroviruses have a diploid genome. This means:

A. they have two nucleocapsids
B. they have a double stranded RNA
C. they have two segments of single stranded, positive sense RNA
D. they have a double envelop

C. they have two segments of single stranded, positive sense RNA

168

The reverse transcriptase is required for:

A. retroviral integration into host B. copying cDNA from viral RNA during retroviral replication
C. retroviral entry into cells
D. retroviral exocytosis

B. copying cDNA from viral RNA during retroviral replication

169

Where does the reverse transcriptase (RT) required for copying cDNA from viral RNA come from?

A. Since viruses use cellular mechanisms for replication, the source of RT is the host cell
B. The RT is virion-associated
C. It is de novo synthesized in the infected cell mitochondria
D. RT is found on the surface of the infected cell

B. The RT is virion-associated

170

Where in the infected cell does reverse transcription of the retroviral RNA take place?

A. Mitochondria
B. Cytoplasm
C. Nucleus
D. Endothelial reticulum

B. Cytoplasm

171

What is a provirus?

A. Any type of DNA incorporated into a cell
B. RNA derived from a bacterial virus
C. Another name for prions
D. The genetic material of a virus as incorporated into, and able to replicate with, the genome of a host cell

D. The genetic material of a virus as incorporated into, and able to replicate with, the genome of a host cell

172

Where in the host genome does the retroviral dsDNA integrate?

A. At sites where introns are situated
B. Only at sites where proto-oncogenes are located
C. There is no site specificity for viral dsDNA integration
D. Integration takes place only between exons

C. There is no site specificity for viral dsDNA integration

173

What does the pol gene of retroviruses encode?

A. Capsid (CA), Nucleocapsid (NC), Matrix (MA)
B. Protease
C. Reverse transcriptase and integrase
D. surface (SU) and transmembrane (TM)

C. Reverse transcriptase and integrase

174

FIV can infect

A. CD4+ T lymphocytes
B. platelets
C. microglial cells
D. all of the above

A. CD4+ T lymphocytes

175

The most important transmission route of FIV in domestic cats is:

A. grooming, exclusively
B. bite wounds
C. fomites
D. sexual contact

B. bite wounds

176

FeLV has tropism to cells of the immune system such as T cells.

A. True
B. False

A. True

177

During which virus infection can lymphoma and leukemia develop?

A. FeLV
B. Swine poxvirus
C. Influenza A
D. NDV

A. FeLV

178

What outcomes of retrovirus infection do you know?

A. cellular transformation
B. latent infection
C. chronic infection
D. All of the above

D. All of the above

179

Acute transformation by retroviruses is mediated by oncogenes.

A. True
B. False

A. True

180

What type of cellular transformation do retroviruses cause by insertion or mutation through random integration?

A. chronic transformation
B. acute transformation
C. blastic transformation
D. None of the above

A. chronic transformation

181

A non-vaccinated cat can have antibodies against FeLV even though it has not been infected with an exogenous FeLV.

A. True
B. False

A. True

182

The replication strategy of retrovirus requires rewriting viral RNA into viral DNA. This process is referred to as:

A. oncogenesis
B. reverse transcription
C. reverse translation
D. translation

B. reverse transcription

183

Apart from CCR5 and CXCR4 FIV can also enter cells through other receptors such as:

A. CD95L
B. CD4
C. CD8
D. CD335

B. CD4

184

From the options below choose the best for method of disinfection of viruses belong to the Retroviridae family.

A. lipid solvent-based disinfectant
B. alkaline-based disinfectant
C. exposure to ultraviolet rays for 15 minutes
D. acid-based disinfectant

A. lipid solvent-based disinfectant

185

During FeLV infection it is possible that in some cats the immune system may completely eliminate the virus.

A. True
B. False

A. True

186

How long is the incubation period of FIV?

A. 3 Days
B. 1 week
C. may be as long as 6 years
D. 1 month

C. may be as long as 6 years