Final Review Flashcards
(194 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following is NOT an example of an exocrine gland?
a.ovary cells that secrete estrogen into the blood
b. sweat gland that secretes onto the skin
c. ovaries secreting an egg into the fallopian tube
d. salivary gland that secretes into the mouth
A
a.ovary cells that secrete estrogen into the blood
2
Q
The Na+/K+ pump transports _____ the cell and _____ the cell per cycle.
A
2 K+ into; 3 Na+ out
3
Q
How much of the total body water content is in the intracellular compartment?
A
67%
4
Q
The entire epidermis is replaced every
A
2 weeks.
5
Q
T/F
An integrating center of a negative feedback loop has the function of analyzing information from sensors about deviations from a set point and then altering the activity of particular effectors to compensate for the deviation.
A
true
6
Q
_____ is the transport of digestion products across epithelium into blood.
A
absorption
7
Q
_____ trials involve testing the drug on healthy humans.
A
Phase I clinical
8
Q
T/F
Facilitated diffusion is unable to transport molecules against a concentration gradient.
A
true
9
Q
t/f
Active transport proteins are often regulated by phosphorylation.
A
true
10
Q
The zygote (fertilized egg) before implantation has the ability to produce all the various types of cells found in the body. This ability is known as being _____.
A
totipotent
11
Q
Contraction of _____ muscle can be consciously controlled.
A
skeletal
12
Q
Which of the following is NOT a primary tissue of the body?
a.adipose
b. nervous
c. epithelial
d. connective
A
adipose
13
Q
The rate of diffusion is influenced by
a.the concentration gradient.
b. membrane permeability.
c. membrane surface area.
d. membrane thickness.
e. all of the above
A
all of the above
14
Q
Channels present in the membranes of some cells that allow rapid movement of water are called _____.
A
aquaporins
15
Q
Thermoregulation directly involves:
a.eccrine sweat glands.
b. sebaceous glands.
c. apocrine sweat glands.
d. lacrimal glands.
A
eccrine sweat glands.
16
Q
t/f
Bacteria are responsible for the characteristic body odor of apocrine sweat.
A
true
17
Q
Which of the following organ’s cells do NOT have many aquaporins in their plasma membranes?
a.brain
b. salivary glands
c. skin
d. eyes
e. lungs
f. kidneys
A
skin
18
Q
What type of muscle tissue would you expect to find associated with blood vessels?
A
smooth
19
Q
The part of a neuron that is typically lined with myelin sheath and transmits electrical impulses toward the synapse is called the _____.
A
axon
20
Q
Which physiologist is known for showing that the heart pumps blood through a closed system?
a.Claude Bernard
b. Walter Cannon
c. Karl Landsteiner
d. William Harvey
A
William Harvey
21
Q
_____ transport directly requires ATP.
A
Active
22
Q
Why are cells in body organs generally within 100μm if a blood capillary?
a.to decrease mean diffusion time
b. so that larger particles can diffuse more easily
c. to increase mean diffusion time
d. a larger distance maximizes entropy
A
to decrease mean diffusion time
23
Q
What physiologist is known for coining the term homeostasis to describe the dynamic constancy of the body’s internal environment?
a.Claude Bernard
b. Walter Cannon
c. Karl Landsteiner
d. William Harvey
A
Walter Cannon
24
Q
Proteins that extend from the cytoskeleton within the cell, through the plasma membrane, and into the extracellular matrix are _____. These structures affect cell motility, adhesion, and proliferation.
A
integrins
25
Which glucose carrier is found in skeletal muscle and activated by either insulin or exercise?
a.GLUT1
b. GLUT2
c. GLUT3
d. GLUT4
d.GLUT4
26
T/F
| Most organs are comprised of groupings of the four primary tissues into structural and functional units.
true
27
The cell membrane is typically most permeable to _____ ions.
potassium
28
Cerebral edema (swelling of the brain caused by excess fluid) would be treated with a(n) _____ intravenous solution of mannitol.
hypertonic
29
Which of the following is NOT true of a person who is dehydrated?
a. increased osmolality causes thirst
b. hypothalamus stimulates release of ADH from the pituitary gland
c. plasma osmolality increases
d. ADH causes the kidneys to excrete water
d.ADH causes the kidneys to excrete water
30
T/F
Phase IV clinical drug trials involve testing a drug only on the specific human population who have the condition that the drug is intended to treat.
true
31
I give a patient an IV drip of a 0.8 Osm solution. How would you expect the patients red blood cells to react once this solution enters their veins?
a. The cells will not change.
b. The cells will swell.
c. The cells will crenate.
d. The cells will lyse.
c.The cells will crenate.
32
Which of the following is NOT a type of junctional complex?
a.Macula occludens
b. Zonula adherens
c. Zonula occludens
d. Macula adherens
a.Macula occludens
33
The last name of the physiologist who performed work on the physiology of digestion is _____.
Pavlov
34
The study of how disease or injury alters physiological processes is termed
pathophysiology
35
Which type of connective tissue is characterized by a liquid extracellular matrix?
blood
36
Botulism ends up resulting in death because it alters _____, the protein complex responsible for docking synaptic vesicles to the plasma membrane of the terminal bouton.
SNARE
37
The functional connection between a neuron and a second cell is called the _____.
synapse
38
During the _____ refractory period, a supramaximal stimulus can bring the cell to threshold.
relative
39
Electrical synapses occur via _____ _____ and are found in both smooth and cardiac muscle as well as between some neurons of the brain and between neuroglial cells.
gap junctions
40
T/F
| An axon will depolarize only if the membrane potential reaches the threshold value.
true
41
Parkinson's disease is difficult to treat because it results from a deficiency of dopamine in the brain and giving an individual dopamine, unfortunately, has no impact on the disorder. This is because dopamine cannot cross the _____ _____ _____.
blood brain barrier
42
Using a stronger stimulus to activate more neurons in a nerve is called _____.
recruitment
43
What happens to prevent a new action potential from starting during the absolute refractory period?
a. A polypeptide blocks the potassium voltage-gated channels.
b. Depolarization opens the calcium voltage-gated channels.
c. A polypeptide blocks the calcium voltage-gated channels.
d. Depolarization opens the potassium voltage-gated channels.
e. Depolarization opens the sodium voltage-gated channels.
f. A polypeptide blocks the sodium voltage-gated channels.
f.A polypeptide blocks the sodium voltage-gated channels.
44
The pineal gland releasing melatonin into your bloodstream is an example of _____ signaling.
endocrine
45
Why is the plasma membrane more permeable to potassium than any other ion?
a. There are leaky potassium channels that are not-gated and allow potassium through the membrane all the time.
b. There are voltage-gated channels for potassium that open in response to stimuli.
c. There are ligand-gated channels for potassium that open during depolarization.
d. a and b
e. b and c
f. a and c
g. a, b, and c
d.a and b
46
Action potential transmission in the PNS is decreased if _____ cells are damaged.
Schwann
47
Which G-protein subunit binds GDP?
alpha
48
If axons are myelinated they appear to be _____ in color.
white
49
Using a stronger stimulus will cause which of the following to increase?
action potiental frequency
50
What is the term for a bundle of axons located outside the central nervous system?
nerve
51
What voltage-gated channels are present in the axonal membrane at the terminal bouton?
a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Calcium
d. a and b
e. b and c
f. a and c
g. a, b, and c
g.a, b, and c
52
Which neuroglial cell of the CNS lines the brain ventricles and spinal cord and is responsible for producing cerebrospinal fluid?
ependymal cells
53
Which neuroglial cell of the CNS phagocytizes foreign and degenerated material when active?
microglia
54
Which is NOT a function of astrocytes?
- phagocytize foreign material
- formation of the blood-brain barrier
- take up excess neurotransmitters
- take up extracellular K+
- release gliotransmitters
- takes up glucose to produce lactic acid or lactate
- synapse formation, maturation, and maintenance
- release prostaglandin E2 on blood capillaries to cause vasodilation and an increase in blood flow
-phagocytize foreign material
55
T/F
| Most brain tumors in adults are found within neurons.
false
56
T/F
| All PNS axons are covered in both neurilemma and myelin sheath.
false
57
T/F
| The peripheral nervous system includes the brain and spinal cord.
false
58
During action poteintal, it never goes more than?
30mv
59
What are clusters of nerve cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system called?
ganglia
60
T/F
| Regeneration of a cut axon is impossible in the PNS.
false
61
T/F
| Each action potential is an all-or-none event.
true
62
_____ neurons are pseudounipolar and carry impulses toward the CNS.
sensory
63
_____ are released via exocytosis into the synaptic cleft.
neurotransmitter
64
G-proteins and _____ are the two main second-messenger molecules utilized in the body.
cAMP
65
Action potentials would be conducted most rapidly by
a. a 20mm diameter unmyelinated axon.
b. a 60mm diameter myelinated axon.
c. a 20mm diameter myelinated axon.
d. a 60mm diameter unmyelinated axon.
b.a 60mm diameter myelinated axon.
66
The neurotrophin that promotes the survival and growth of both sympathetic and sensory neurons in the developing fetal brain is
a. nerve growth factor.
b. brain-derived neurotrophic factor
c. neurotrphin-3
d. neurotrophin-4
e. glial-derived neurotrophic factor
a.nerve growth factor.
67
Retrograde transport:
a. moves toward the cell body from the axon.
b. uses dynein molecular motor proteins.
c. moves viruses and toxins.
d. a and b
e. b and c
f. a and c
g. a, b, and c
a, b, and c
68
Regeneration of CNS axons may be prevented by all of the following EXCEPT
a. glial scars.
b. death receptors.
c. neurotrophins.
d. NoGo proteins.
c.neurotrophins.
69
Which of the following is not a function of a neuron?
a. Releasing chemical regulators
b. Producing and conducting electrochemical impulses
c. Enabling perception of sensory stimuli, learning, memory, and control of muscles and glands
d. Responding to physical and chemical stimuli
e. Preventing axonal regeneration in the central nervous system
e.Preventing axonal regeneration in the central nervous system
70
The resting membrane potential of a neuron is _____mV.
-70
71
Blocking _____ channels (name the ion) would prevent neuron repolarization.
potassium
72
What is threshold in action potiental?
-55
73
Which neurons are responsible for stimulating or inhibiting contraction of smooth and cardiac muscle?
autonomic motor neurons
74
Blocking _____ channels (name the ion) would prevent neuron depolarization.
sodium
75
The gap of exposed axon in the myelin sheath is the
node of Ranvier.
76
The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system
a. utilizes acetylcholine as a preganglionic neurotransmitter.
b. utilizes norepiniephrine as a postganglionic neurotransmitter.
c. includes the adrenal medulla.
d. has a relatively short preganglionic neuron.
a. utilizes acetylcholine as a preganglionic neurotransmitter.
77
T/F
| Many autonomic visceral effector organs can function without nervous innervation.
true
78
Which of the following directly initiates the release of calcium ions from the endoplasmic reticulum in the phospholipase C mechanism?
a.diacylglycerol
b. cAMP
c. inositol triphosphate (IP3)
d. calmodulin
e. phospholipase C
f. G-proteins
inositol triphosphate (IP3)
79
Which of the following is NOT a collateral ganglion?
a. inferior mesenteric
b. celiac
c. hepatic
d. superior mesenteric
c.hepatic
80
T/F
| Glycine and GABA stimulate opening of Cl- channels.
true
81
Which of the following would NOT be broken down by COMT in the postsynaptic cell?
a. norepinephrine
b. dopamine
c. epinephrine
d. serotonin
d.serotonin
82
The vagus nerve would innervate all of the following except
a. the lungs.
b. the small intestine.
c. the liver.
d. the kidneys.
e. the urinary bladder.
f. the heart.
g. the spleen.
h. the stomach.
e.the urinary bladder.
83
Molecules secreted by endocrine glands that are inactive until changed by their target cells are _____.
prehormones
84
Phenylephrine and Pseudoephedrine function as _____ because they promote vasoconstriction in nasal mucosa.
ɑ1 agonists
85
True/False
| Damage to an autonomic nerve makes the effector less sensitive to stimulation.
false
86
When one sympathetic preganglionic neuron synapses on several postganglionic neurons, this is called _____.
divergence
87
Atenolol and metoprolol are drugs that are commonly called _____ _____. These drugs are used to decrease cardiac output in order to control high blood pressure.
beta blockers
88
Thyroid hormone receptors may be found
a. both in the cytoplasm and in the nucleus.
b. in the cytoplasm.
c. in the nucleus.
d. embedded in the cell membrane
c.in the nucleus.
89
Which region of the brain contains the majority of the limbic system?
Telencephalon
90
T/F
| Studies have indicated that aging is associated with increased levels of sympathetic activity and tone.
true
91
_____ is the main neurotransmitter released by most postganglionic sympathetic neurons.
NE
92
The swellings in postganglionic axons that contain neurotransmitter are called _____.
varicosities
93
The two types of acetylcholine receptors are _____ and muscarinic
nicotinic
94
Which drug is utilized for ADD/ADHD and is NOT typically an issue when it comes to substance abuse as it deals SOLELY with the neurotransmitter norepinephrine?
Straterra
95
In the mechanism of action for the monoamine neurotransmitters, the regulatory subunit prefers to bond to _____ when present.
cAMP
96
Doctors have slowed prescribing drugs that block the _____ adrenergic receptors as these drugs are known to exacerbate asthma in many patients.
β2
97
_____ _____ adrenergic receptors are responsible for you losing color, feeling sick to your stomach, and getting dry mouth when you are in a fight or flight emergency.
alpha one
98
Sympathetic preganglionic neurons originate in what two regions of the spinal cord?
thoracic and lumbar
99
Which of the following will typically NOT lead to the release of endogenous opioids?
taking a physiology exam
100
The _____ dopamine system may be involved in emotional reward and drug addiction.
mesolimbic
101
T/F
| Sympathetic stimulation of an organ ALWAYS opposes the effects of parasympathetic stimulation.
false
102
_____ hormones, thyroid hormones, and melatonin can be taken orally._____ hormones, thyroid hormones, and melatonin can be taken orally.
steroid
103
Endogenous cannabinoids have effects similar to the active ingredient in
marijuana.
104
Birds and fish have comparatively larger _____ to account for the complex movements they utilize daily.
cerebellum
105
When thyroid hormones bind to their nuclear receptors at two half-sites on the DNA's hormone response element to initiate transcription, they first must join together forming a _____.
heterodimer
106
Most of the lipophilic hormones bind to receptors which
regulate gene transcription.
107
The action of _____ _____ phosphorylates various enzymes which will turn them on or off. It can also open or close ion channels.
protein kinase
108
Receptors that utilize a secondary messenger system or signal transduction pathway are known as _____ receptors.
metabotropic
109
From where do parasympathetic preganglionic nerves originate?
brainstem and sacral region of the spinal cord
110
The _____ _____ signal transduction pathway is a common pathway for amine, polypeptide, and glycoprotein hormones. This pathway results in the phosphorylation of many other proteins.
adenylate cyclase
111
Autonomic motor nerves do NOT innervate
skeletal muscle.
112
Which of the following would produce an EPSP? *There may be more than one correct response.
a. opening a Cl- channel that results in Cl- entering the cell
b. opening a K+ channel that results in K+ entering the cell
c. opening a K+ channel that results in K+ exiting the cell
d. opening a Ca2+ channel that results in Ca2+ entering the cell
e. opening a Na+ channel that results in Na+ exiting the cell
f. opening a Na+ channel that results in Na+ entering the cell
g. opening a Cl- channel that results in Cl- exiting the cell
h. opening a Ca2+ channel that results in Ca2+ exiting the cell
b. opening a K+ channel that results in K+ entering the cell
d. opening a Ca2+ channel that results in Ca2+ entering the cell
f. opening a Na+ channel that results in Na+ entering the cell
g. opening a Cl- channel that results in Cl- exiting the cell
113
Muscarinic cholinergic receptors are found in all of the following EXCEPT
a. smooth muscle.
b. skeletal muscle.
c. glands.
d. cardiac muscle.
b.skeletal muscle.
114
Which region of the brain contains the hypothalamus?
diencephalon
115
Nerve gas and cockroach poison are similar in that they cause the generation of uncontrolled action potentials which leads to uncontrolled muscle contraction and eventually death. These two poisons work by
blocking acetylcholinesterase.
116
What structures carry the action potentials into the interior of the muscle to cause muscle contraction?
T tubules
117
South Carolina is known to have high levels of _____ in the soil which helps prevent thyroid issues.
iodine
118
A child with _____ would be lethargic, shorter than average, have mental retardation, and a low body temperature.
cretinism
119
During skeletal muscle contraction, adjacent _____ are pulled closer together as the _____ between them shorten.
Z discs; H zones
120
_____ typically occurs around day 14 of the menstrual cycle and is marked by the eruption of the egg from the follicle.
ovulation
121
Melatonin is anti-gonadotropic. Knowing this fact, you would expect animals in South Carolina to breed more during which seasons?
spring and summer
122
In order for skeletal muscles to contract, Ca2+ must bind to _____ in order to move the _____ out of the myosin binding domain of the G actin molecules.
troponin; tropomyosin
123
Which hormone is produced by the placenta to indicate that an embryo has been implanted in the uterus?
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)
124
You take a biopsy of a skeletal muscle to determine what type of fibers make up this particular motor unit. The fibers in your sample are red in color, they have many mitochondria, and a good bit of myoglobin, yet the diameter of the fibers appears to be quite small. Of the two fiber types, you have just identified _____ fibers.
oxidative
125
Drugs that are useful for treating asthma are
anti-leukotrienes.
126
Regulation of mineral homeostasis would be inhibited by decreased secretion of
corticotropin-releasing hormone.
127
Which of the following explains the decreased fertility in males with anabolic steroid abuse?
Exogenous testosterone will trigger a decrease in GnRH.
128
What is the role of ATP in muscle contraction and relaxation?
a. It powers the Ca2+ pumps to return Ca2+ to the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
b. It is hydrolyzed by the myosin cross bridge head prior to cross bridge attachment.
c. It causes the myosin cross bridge head to detach from actin after the power stroke.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
d.All of the above.
129
_____ primarily makes up the thin filament while _____ primarily makes up the thick filament.
Actin; myosin
130
Which of the following is NOT a role of glucagon in blood glucose homeostasis?
a. stimulates gluconeogenesis in the liver
b. promotes the movement of glucose out of skeletal muscle cells
c. raises blood glucose levels
d. promotes lipolysis
e. stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver
b.promotes the movement of glucose out of skeletal muscle cells
131
Somatic motor neurons release the neurotransmitter _____ at the neuromuscular junction.
Ach
132
Elevated _____ in the blood is a trigger for aldosterone secretion from the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex. These levels must be kept in check or they can be fatal.
K+
133
Tyrosine kinase receptors have been implicated as a potential cause of _____. The ligands for these receptors are typically growth factors.
cancer
134
A 28-year-old male patient presents with an obvious swelling in his neck. He also complains of being incredibly tired and depressed while experiencing unexplainable weight gain. You decide to measure his TSH levels. What would you expect to see and what diagnosis would you give this patient?
High TSH levels; Endemic goiter
135
_____ inhibits only COX3 in the brain which results in pain and fever reduction yet has no effect on inflammation.
Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
136
T/F
| Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone synthesis occurs in the neurohypophysis.
false
137
Both portions of the pituitary gland develop due to growth induced by the notochord. The anterior pituitary develops as an evagination of the _____ while the posterior pituitary develops as an evagination of the _____.
stomodeum; diencephalon
138
T/F
Transverse tubules contain voltage-gated calcium channels that respond to membrane depolarization and are directly coupled to the calcium release channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
true
139
A 40-year-old female patient presents with generalized weakness and rapid weight loss. After completing an initial blood panel, you notice that her blood glucose level is quite low however her insulin and glucagon levels seem to be in normal ranges. You order additional blood work and notice that her T3, T4, and TSH levels appear to be normal, but her ACTH levels are very low. What diagnosis would you give this patient?
Addison's Disease
140
T/F
| Pituitary dwarfism is caused by growth years' hyposecretion of growth hormone.
true
141
Which of the following is needed for the myosin cross bridge head to undergo a power stroke?
a. binding of ATP to the cross bridge head
b. splitting ATP into ADP and a phosphate
c. binding of Calcium to the cross bridge head
d. release of phosphate
d.release of phosphate
142
After menopause, the principal estrogen in the body is estrone which is produced by _____ _____.
adipose cells
143
Which of the following is true of parathyroid hormone function?
a. PTH increases blood calcium levels.
b. PTH causes the kidneys to reabsorb calcium.
c. PTH increases the activity of osteoclasts.
d. All of the above.
e. None of the above.
d.All of the above.
144
The inability of muscle cells to relax due to high frequency stimulation is called _____. This may occur with or without some relaxation depending on the frequency of the stimulation.
tetanus
145
The pineal gland produces the hormone _____ that is used in entraining circadian rhythms.
melatonin
146
Within the seminiferous tubules of the testes is a layer of germinal epithelial cells. These germinal epithelial cells produce _____.
sperm
147
Prednisone is a _____ which can assist with any inflammatory issues as it suppresses the immune system.
glucocorticoid
148
_____ is characterized by continued attachment of myosin cross bridge heads to actin filaments due to a lack of ATP.
Rigor mortis
149
In regards to the relationship between resting muscle fiber length and tension generated,
maximal tension can be generated when the thick and thin filaments slightly overlap.
150
What is the function of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?
stimulates retention of water by the kidneys
151
What structure runs the length of the sarcomere and contributes to the elastic recoil in muscle?
titin
152
Skeletal muscles with a low innervation ratio have a low degree of neural control, i.e. they are not very precise.
False
153
The majority of the Ca2+ required for skeletal muscle contraction comes from the _____ _____.
sarcoplasmic reticulum
154
Which of the following is an effect of hyperthyroidism?
Decreased sleep
155
Skeletal muscle fibers are ______ than oxidative
larger
156
What are type 1 muscle fibers?
Slow oxidative muscle fibers
157
What do type 1 muscle fibers do?
they are found in postural muscle that do routine activities or movement, and can sustain contraction for long periods
158
How does type 1 muscle fiber sustain contractions for long periods?
By using ATP slowly
Having good vascularization
have lots of mitochondria and myoglobin
159
What are type 2 muscle fibers?
Fast glycolytic
160
What do type 2 muscle fibers do?
Very large fibers can generate alot of force such as producing sudden bursts of speed but cannot be used for long periods of time
161
Fibers of a given motor unit are?
all the same kind
162
What is the ratio for a fast glycolytic?
| slow oxidative?
Fast glycolytic-large motor unit-1:2000
| Slow oxidative-small motor unit-1:23
163
Muscle fibers can be?
influenced. Exersize can effect glycolytic and oxidative
164
Cardio influences muscle fibers?
Fast glycolytic to become more oxidative and vascularized=more mitochondria
165
Weight training can influence muscle fibers by?
oxidative fibers because longer in diameter and have more glycolytic characteristics
166
Cardiac muscle is under innervation by the?
Autonomic nervous system
167
T/F
Cardiac muscle cells are shorter than skeletal, have branches and are attached via intercalated disks and have one nucleus
True
168
The intercalated disks are?
many gap junctions
169
What are intercalated disks?
gap junctions
170
T/F
| Myocardia cannot generate graded poteintals most of the time
True
171
Cardiac muscle can contract more forcefully when?
the heart is stretched, like when extreme running
172
If cardiac muscle is deinnervated, what occurs?
CMC automatically generate their own action poteintials
173
What is determined by cardiac muscle cells?
Heart rate
174
What are the two cateogories of smooth muscle and which is more common?
```
Multi-unit
single unit (more common)
```
175
where is single unit smooth muscle found?
```
lining walls of hollow organs of body such as
small intestines
Esophagus
Bronchiole
Tubes of lungs
Walls of arteries and veins
```
176
Smooth muscle is connected by?
gap junctions
177
Peristalsis is?
Wavelike contractions that move food through the GI tract
178
Segmentation is?
the small intstine that mixes food with enzymes
179
What is an example of a multiunit smooth muscle?
Ciliary muscle of the eye
180
```
What type of muscle does this describe?
spindle shape
No striations
No Z disks
Works via sliding filament theory
No troponin/tropomyosin
```
smooth muscle
181
What is the ratio of actin to myosin in smooth muscle?
More actin than myosin 16:1
182
Since smooth muscle has no z disks, how does actin attach to the cell?
Actin attaches directly to sarcolemma (cell membrane) or dense bodies
183
Due to lack of troponin/tropomysoin, what happens when Ca2+ binds to cell
Calmodulin binds to Ca2+
184
A sub-threshhold contraction provides a weak reaction because?
It only opens a couple voltage gated channels
185
A threshold contraction opens?
Alot of voltage gated channels
186
After binding to Ca+, calmodulin forms a complex which turns on?
Myosin light chain kinase
187
What does Myosin light chain kinase do?
Acts as the cross bridge of smooth muscle
188
What closes the 'cross bridge' of smooth muscle?
MLCK
| it phosh. myosin light chain kinase
189
How does smooth muscle relax?
Ca2+ pumps into sarcolemma and pumps CA2+ out of cell
| Myosin light chain phosphotase phosph. Cross bridge by removing phos. from moysin
190
What are the two valves of the heart?
Tricuspid (right side)
| Bicuspid/mitrial valve (left side)
191
Which side of the heart is the pulmonary circut pumped from?
The right side of the heart, pumped to lungs
192
Systemic blood flow pumps where? what side of the heart is it pumped by?
Pumps to the body and pumped by left side of heart
193
Valves in veins keep blood from?
flowing backwards
194
What is a heart murmer?
A sound caused by the sound of blood hitting a valve
