FinalExamReview1 Flashcards

(70 cards)

1
Q

what is an adverse effect of opioid therapy?

A

respiratory depression

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2
Q

What type of toxic effect may cause anorexia, green/yellow visual halos, and bradycardia?

A

digoxin toxicity

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3
Q

What is contraindication to consume while taking calcium channel blockers and statins?

A

grapefruit juice

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4
Q

What lab may help determine if the patient is experiencing rhabdomyolysis?

A

creatinine kinase

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5
Q

What drug lowers the surface tension of the stool?

A

docusate sodium

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6
Q

While taking anti-gout medications what should individuals increase ?

A

fluids/water

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7
Q

Why should a transdermal nitro patch be removed at night/while sleeping?

A

prevent tolerance

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8
Q

What is a contraindication of epoetin alpha, as well as a potential adverse effect?

A

hypertension

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9
Q

How long should a clonidine transdermal patch be left in place?

A

1 week (7 days)

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10
Q

What class of medications should G herbs not be taken with?

A

anticoagulants

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11
Q

What class of medications should be avoided while taking a PDE5 inhibitor? Why?

A

nitrates due to the risk of fatal hypotension

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12
Q

Why is 81 mg baby aspirin generally given?

A

prophylactic prevention of MI

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13
Q

What should the nurse attain as soon as they suspect hyper or hypoglycemia?

A

blood glucose

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14
Q

What adverse effect occurs with both vancomycin and gentamicin?

A

nephrotoxicity

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15
Q

Besides those listed in SLUDGES, what are other effects that may occur with cholinergic therapy?

A

bradycardia and dyspnea

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16
Q

When may Reye’s Syndrome occur?

A

if aspirin is given to a child with a viral illness

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17
Q

What adverse effect of vancomycin causes flushing of face/neck, hypotension, and tachycardia?

A

Red Man Syndrome

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18
Q

What pregnancy category is warfarin?

A

Pregnancy Category X

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19
Q

What might petechiae indicate?

A

bleeding

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20
Q

What is the antidote for heparin toxicity?

A

protamine sulfate

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21
Q

What adverse effect of tamoxifen therapy should be reported immediately?

A

blood clots

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22
Q

What is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors?

A

dry, irritating cough

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23
Q

What is the cross sensitivity with cephalosporins?

A

penicillins

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24
Q

What medication is given to treat hepatic encephalopathy?

A

lactulose

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25
When should glucagon be given?
patients with hypoglycemia that are unconscious
26
What is an expected side effect of taking metformin?
weight loss
27
How should ferrous sulfate be taken to prevent teeth staining?
through a straw
28
what odor is expected with acetylcysteine and should not cause the pt/nurse to be alarmed?
rotten eggs
29
What class of drugs requires patients to sit upright for at least 30 mins after taking it?
bisphosphonates (-dronate)
30
Why is completing a medication reconciliation necessary?
prevent drug interactions
31
What does oprelvekin do to the platelet count in the blood?
increases platelet count
32
When it necessary to evaluate the peak of a transfusion medication?
30 mins after the completion of the infusion
33
what are possible adverse effects of taking PPI's long-term?
pneumonia, osteoporosis, rebound hypersecretion, hepatotoxicity, hypomagnesemia
34
What is a contraindication to NSAID therapy?
PUD (peptic ulcer disease)
35
What is not used as monotherapy for hypertension in African American patients?
ACE inhibitors
36
What drugs can decrease the absorption of most drugs and should be taken 1-2 hrs before or after other drugs?
antacids
37
What would a decrease in stomach pain indicate in a patient taking misoprostol?
effective treatment
38
What organ is heavily impacted by antitubercular drugs?
liver
39
What is a desirable effect of beta blockers? Within what range does this no longer become desirable?
decreased HR, and HR < 50 bpm
40
How should hypoglycemia be prevented in those taking sulfonylureas?
patient should eat
41
What are the contraindications to anticholinergic therapy?
BPH and narrow angle glaucoma
42
What can decrease the effectiveness of H2 blockers?
smoking
43
What adverse effects that may occur with corticosteroid treatment?
infections, osteoporosis, and hyperglycemia
44
What diuretic is often used as first line treatment for HTN?
hydrochlorothiazide
45
Why are sublingual nitroglycerin tablets given?
acute chest pain
46
If a patient is experiencing N/V, jaundice, anorexia, dark urine and abdominal discomfort, what might you suspect they are experiencing?
hepatotoxicity
47
What education should be provided to pts taking medications that may cause orthostatic hypotension?
change positions slowly and dangle legs
48
what preexisting condition should we avoid giving decongestants to?
HTN
49
What may be caused by potassium sparing diuretics and ACE inhibitors?
hyperkalemia
50
What adverse effect may occur with fluoroquinolones?
tendon rupture and arthropathy
51
What class of medication is diltiazem? What effects may occur with this med?
calcium channel blocker and bradycardia and peripheral edema
52
What safety precautions should patients taking heparin and warfarin take to prevent bleeding?
soft bristle toothbrush, electric razor; they can also wear medic alert bracelet
53
What is required by the nurse before administering digoxin?
obtain an apical pulse; must be > 60 bpm
54
What is a major side effect of opioids that may also become an adverse effect if not treated?
constipation
55
What is an adverse effect of mannitol?
heart failure
56
What is used to treat anaphylaxis?
epinephrine
57
What may happen to the effectiveness of birth control while taking antibiotics or seizure medications?
Decrease effectiveness of oral contraceptives, so barrier method is important
58
How does sucralfate work?
by forming a protective layer over ulcers, allowing them to heal
59
What lab may increase the risk for digoxin toxicity?
hypokalemia
60
What lab can help determine appropriate kidney function?
creatinine
61
What symptom may occur if a patient is experiencing salicylism?
tinnitus
62
What medication is given as the antidote for hypermagnesemia?
calcium gluconate
63
What intake should be increased while taking loop diuretics?
potassium
64
How can peripheral neuropathy be prevented in patients taking INH (isoniazid)?
taking pyridoxine (B6)
65
what should be avoided while taking methylxanthines?
caffeine
66
When should levothyroxine be taken?
1hr before breakfast and 4hrs before other meds
67
When is a trough level taken?
just before the next dose of medication
68
What should be consumed while taking ferrous sulfate to enhance absorption?
Vitamin C/orange juice
69
Which MDI should be used first in respiratory pts?
bronchodilators (albuterol)
70
What adverse effect may occur while taking albuterol?
palpitations