Firefighter Personal Protective Equipment (IFSTA) Flashcards
(398 cards)
1
Q
Two types of safety equipment
A
- PPE
- Respiratory protection
2
Q
PPE usually consists of ___
A
- Respiratory protection equipment
- PASS
- Helmets, coats, trousers, boots, protective gloves, and protective hoods
- Eye protection
- Hearing protection
3
Q
PASS
A
Personal Alert Safety System
4
Q
Types of PPE
A
- Station and work uniforms
- Structural firefighting protective clothing
- Wildland firefighting protective clothing
- Roadway operations protective clothing
- Emergency medical protective clothing
- Special protective clothing such as chemical protective clothing
5
Q
Two basic functions of station and work uniforms
A
- ID the wearer as a member of the organization
- Provide a layer of protection against direct flame contact
6
Q
Firefighters should not wear clothing made of non-fire-resistant synthetic materials while on duty or under PPE because ___
A
These materials can melt when heated and stick to skin, causing serious burns
7
Q
Types of non-fire-resistant synthetic materials include ___
A
- Nylon
- Polyester
- Iron-on patches
- Transfer decals
8
Q
All station and work uniforms should meet ___ requirements
A
NFPA 1975
9
Q
This standard provides the minimum requirements for work wear that is functional, will not contribute to firefighter injury, and will not reduce the effectiveness of outer PPE
A
NFPA 1975
10
Q
Garments not addressed in NFPA 1975
A
Underwear
11
Q
Underwear recommended
A
100% cotton
12
Q
NFPA 1975 garments have a ___ stating their compliance certification
A
Permanently attached label
13
Q
While clothing certified NFPA 1975 compliant is designed for fire resistance, it is not designed for ___
A
Firefighting operations
14
Q
Some station and work uniforms are dual certified at both ___
A
Work uniforms and wildland protective clothing
15
Q
Dual certified uniforms will always carry the ___
A
Appropriate certification labels
16
Q
Required footwear when working around the station
A
Safety boots or shoes
17
Q
Safety boots or shoes usually have ___
A
Steel toes, puncture-resistant soles, or special inserts
18
Q
Do not wear station footwear during emergency operations because they might ___
A
Contaminate living quarters with potentially hazardous substances when you return to the station
19
Q
Do not wash uniforms in ___
A
Personal washing machines or at public laundromats
20
Q
Contaminated uniforms must be laundered at ___
A
The fire station or by a contractor
21
Q
PPE design and construction standard
A
NFPA 1971 and NFPA 1500
22
Q
PPE care and maintenance standard
A
NFPA 1851
23
Q
Wildland firefighting protective clothing standard
A
NFPA 1977
24
Q
SCBA standard
A
NFPA 1981
25
PASS device standard
NFPA 1982
26
Safety glasses standard
ANSI Standard Z87.1
27
Goggles for wildland firefighting standard
ANSI Standard Z87.1
28
All PPE designed for structural and proximity firefighting must meet the requirements of ___
NFPA 1971
29
Activities required for rescue, fire suppression, and property conservation at fire that produce high radiant, conductive, or convective heat; includes aircraft, hazmat transportation, and storage tank fires
Proximity fire fighting
30
NFPA 1971 addresses the requirements for ___
1. Helmets
2. Trousers
3. Eye protection
4. Protective hoods
5. Coats
6. Boots
7. Protective gloves
31
NFPA 1971 requires that all components must include a ___ that shows compliance with the standard
Permanent label
32
NFPA 1971 certification labels must include ___
1. Manufacturer's name, ID, or designation
2. Country of manufacture
3. Month and year of manufacture
4. Size or size range
5. Footwear size and width
6. Manufacturer's address
7. Manufacturer's lot or serial number
8. Model name, number, or design
9. Principal materials of construction
10. Cleaning precautions
33
PPE components must be ___ with each other to provide the level of protection intended by the NFPA standard
Compatible
34
Changing, adding, or removing components from the PPE may ___
1. Endanger your life
2. Void the manufacturer's warranty
3. Affect your worker's comp benefits
35
Structural PPE is designed to ___
1. Cover all portions of your skin when you are reaching, bending, or moving
2. Prevent heat transfer from the fire to your body
36
The usual temperature limit for structural firefighting PPE
Somewhere above 400°F
37
The time until the protective clothing reaches a dangerous absorption limit varies upon the ___
Heat transfer rate
38
During heat exposure, the protective clothing ___
Absorbs the heat
39
Since protective clothing ___, it can take longer than expected to cool
Absorbs and stores heat
40
You may experience contact burns or heat stress even after leaving the heated environment if you do not follow rehab protocols that ___
Allow enough time for the clothing to cool
41
How does structural firefighting PPE inhibit cooling?
Traps body heat and moisture inside the clothing barriers, not allowing sweat to cool you
42
Because of the trapped body heat in PPE, ___ may significantly increase
1. Breathing and heartrate
2. Core temp
3. Skin temp
4. Physiological stress
43
Benefits a helmet provides during structural fire fighting operations
1. Preventing heated or scalding water and embers from reaching the ears and neck
2. Protecting the head from impact injuries caused by objects or falls
3. Providing protection from heat and cold
44
Shell color of the helmet indicates the ___
Firefighter's rank
45
Markings on the helmet indicate ___
The unit
46
Removable ID labels on the helmet indicate ___
Accountability
47
Proper helmet wear ___
Chin strap secured, ear flaps down, ratchet at the back tightened
48
Forms of eye protection
1. SCBA facepieces
2. Helmet-mounted faceshields
3. Goggles
4. Safety glasses
49
Faceshields do not provide adequate protection from ___ and should be used ___
1. Flying particles or splashes
2. With a primary form of eye protection
50
Requires that goggles or other appropriate primary eye protection be worn when participating in operations where protection from flying particles or chemical splashes is necessary
NFPA 1500
51
During fire fighting operations, your primary eye protection is your ___
SCBA facepiece
52
Helmets must come equipped with ___
Faceshields or goggles
53
Situations where you will need eye protection when respiratory protection is not required
1. Emergency medical responses where exposure to body fluids is possible
2. Vehicle extrication operations
3. Industrial occupancy inspections
4. Station maintenance
54
Prescription safety glasses must have frames and lenses that ___
Meet ANSI standards for safety glasses
55
Fire-resistant fabric covering that protect your ears, neck, and face from exposure to heat, embers, and debris
Protective hoods
56
Protective hoods cover areas that may not be protected by the ___
SCBA
57
The protective hood's face opening has an ___
Elastic edge that fits tightly to the SCBA facepiece
58
Hoods are available with ___
Long or short skirts
59
Three components of firefighting protective coats
1. Outer shell
2. Moisture barrier
3. Thermal barrier
60
Function of the barriers in the firefighting protective coats
1. Absorb heat and trap insulating air that prevents heat transfer from the fire to your body
2. Limited protection from:
- Direct flame contact
- Hot water
- Steam
- Cold temps
- Other environmental hazards
61
Protective coat required design features
1. Retroreflective trim
2. Wristlets
3. Collar
4. Closure system
5. Drag rescue device
62
DRD
Drag rescue device
63
Protects the wrist from water, embers, and other debris. Keeps coat sleeves from riding up when reaching
Wristlets
64
Make the coat more visible at night or in low light conditons
Retroreflective trim
65
The collar must be ___
Turned up and under the helmet ear flap
66
Harness and hand loop at the back of the neck that enables a rescuer to grab and drag a downed firefighter
DRD
67
Coats typically contain reinforcement in what areas?
1. High compression areas, such as the shoulders
2. Areas prone to wear, such as the elbows
68
Protective trousers are constructed from ___
The same fabric, moisture barrier, and thermal layering used in protective coats
69
___ hold up the trousers
Heavy-duty suspenders
70
Protect hands and wrists from heat, steam, or cold penetration, and resist cuts, punctures, and liquid absorption
Protective gloves
71
Gloves must allow ___
Enough dexterity and tactile feel for you to perform your job effectively
72
Properly worn, the gloves ___
Cover the wristlet of the protective coat to form a complete seal
73
Firefighting boots must protect the foot, ankle, and lower leg from ___
1. Puncture wounds to the sole
2. Crushing wounds to the toes and instep
3. Scalding water or contaminated liquids
4. Burns from embers and debris
74
Firefighting boots have a ___ inner sole and a ___ toe cap
1. Steel
2. Steel or reinforced
75
___ are required in the shell of the firefighting boots
Thermal, physical, and moisture barriers
76
Boot tops fit inside the ___
Trouser legs
77
Emit a loud alarm to alert other personnel that a firefighter is in danger
PASS
78
The PASS alarm activates when the user is motionless for more than ___
30 seconds
79
The PASS alarm volume and duration
At least 95 dBA for at least 1 hour
80
PASS devices are useful in ___
1. Total darkness
2. Dense smoke
3. Confined spaces
81
PASS devices have at least three settings ___
1. Off
2. Alarm
3. Sensing
82
The pre-alarm tone is intended to ___
Prevent false alarms
83
Requires hearing protection devices
NFPA 1500
84
When to wear hearing protection
1. When riding on an apparatus where the noise exceeds 90 dBA
2. When operating:
- Power tools
- Apparatus pump
- Generators
- PASS device tests
85
Most effective hearing protection method when riding on the apparatus
Intercom/ear protection systems
86
Hearing protection during firefighting prevents you from ___
1. Communicating with other firefighters
2. Hearing changes in fire behavior
3. Hearing radio transmissions
4. Hearing calls from trapped victims
87
Wildland PPE and equipment includes
1. Gloves
2. Goggles
3. Jackets
4. Trousers
5. One-piece jumpsuits
6. Long sleeve shirts
7. Helmet
8. Face/neck shrouds
9. Footwear
10. Fire shelter
11. Load-carrying or load-bearing equipment
12. Respiratory protection
13. Chainsaw protection
88
Wild land gloves are made of ___
Leather or inherently flame-resistant materials
89
Contains the specifications for wildland firefighting PPE and equipment
NPFA 1977
90
Wildland gloves protect ___
The hand and wrist from sharp or hot objects, temp extremes, and scalding water
91
Wildland goggles protect ___
The eyes from ash, embers, dust, and other particulates
92
Wildland jackets are made of ___
High-strength, flame-resistant fabric, such as aramid or treated cotton. May have a thermal liner.
93
Wildland jacket cuffs must ___
Close snugly around the wrists
94
Wildland trouser leg cuffs must ___
Close securely around the boot tops
95
___ are worn under the wildland jackets
Long-sleeve shirts
96
Wildland footwear
Typically lace-up safety boots with lug or grip tread soles
97
Why are steel toes not recommended in wildland boots?
Absorb and retain heat
98
Fire-resistant aluminized fabric covers that protect the firefighter from convected and radiant heat
Fire shelter
99
Requires the use of a fire shelter
NFPA 1500
100
The design of the fire shelter must meet ___
USDA Forest Service specification 5100-606
101
Belt and suspender systems that distribute the weight of the wildland firefighter's equipment
Load-carrying or load-bearing equipment
102
APR
Air purifying respirators
103
PAPR
Powered air purifying respirators
104
APR and PAPRs must be ___
NIOSH certified, NFPA approved
105
Chainsaw protection
Chaps, leggings, or protective trousers made of ballistic nylon fibers that protect the legs
106
What do wildland firefighter's carry in their packs?
Fusees, extra food, water, clean socks, and other items
107
Pyrotechnic flare sometimes used in wildland firefighting to start controlled burns
Fusee
108
Wildland protective garments will not protect you from ___
Extreme heat
109
In the absence of full, wildland firefighting gear, the minimum PPE to participate in ground cover firefighting is ___
1. Helmet with eye protection and neck shroud
2. Flame retardant shirt and pants (or one-piece jumpsuit)
3. Protective footwear (sturdy boots without steel toes)
4. Gloves
5. Fire shelter (in crush resistive case)
110
Best protection when working on a roadway
Be visible to motorists and to work behind a barrier formed by your apparatus
111
Reflective vests should meet ___
ANSI 107, Class 2 or 3 (ANSI 207 are also an option)
112
Requires all personnel at roadway incidents to wear high visibility vests
DOT regulations
113
Reflective vests must have ___
Reflective trim and a five-point breakaway fasteners at the shoulders, side, and waists to meet NFPA safety standards
114
Moisture in the shell and liner can ___
Transfer heat rapidly
115
Make sure the overlap between the coat and trousers is a minimum of ___
2" at the waist when you bend over at a 90° angle
116
Hydrocarbon contamination will reduce the ___ of your PPE
Fire resistance
117
How often to inspect PPE?
1. At the start of your work shift
2. After every use
3. After washing, repair, or decontamination
4. On a periodic basis
118
If your PPE requires only routine cleaning that will not cause the item to be removed from service, you should ___
Perform the cleaning yourself
119
If your PPE requires advanced cleaning or decontamination, repairs, or replacement, ___
Report this to your supervisor immediately
120
Who should perform the annual inspection on PPE?
A member of the department trained in advanced inspection requirements
121
The amount and type of contamination and whether or not the equipment must be removed from service determines the ___
Type of cleaning
122
___ defines the 4 types of cleaning for PPE
NFPA 1851
123
Four types of cleaning for PPE
1. Routine cleaning
2. Advanced cleaning
3. Specialized cleaning
4. Contract cleaning
124
Number of sets of structural firefighting gear recommended for issue to each firefighter by the NFPA
Two
125
Wearing uncontaminated PPE is a preventive measure against the risk of ___
Cancer later in life
126
___ cleaning does not require that the clothing be removed from service
Routine
127
The process for routine cleaning includes ___
1. Brushing off loose debris with a broom or soft bristle brush
2. Using a gentle spray of water to rinse off debris or soil
128
To remove heavy soil in PPE ___
Clean manually in a utility sink in the designated cleaning area at the station
129
When cleaning PPE, always wear ___
Appropriate gloves and eye protection
130
Advanced cleaning should be done by ___
Personnel trained in the care and cleaning of protective clothing
131
Advanced cleaning personnel should use ___
A washing machine dedicated to cleaning protective clothing that is designed to handle heavy loads
132
___ cleaning is required when clothing is contaminated with hazmat or body fluids that cannot be removed by routine or advanced cleaning
Specialized
133
Who may perform specialized cleaning?
A trained department member or an outside contractor
134
___ cleaning typically removes accumulated grime or contaminants
Contract
135
Contractors who perform specialized cleaning may include the ___
Manufacturer, manufacturer's representative, or a certified vendor
136
PPE should not be stored where it can come in contact with ___
Vehicle exhausts
137
PPE that is carried in personal vehicles should be placed in ___
Closable garment bags to protect it from sunlight degradation
138
Damaged protective clothing must be removed ___
Immediately
139
Clothing damaged beyond repair must be ___
Removed from service and destroyed
140
Some damaged clothing may be marked ___
"for training use only" and used in training that does not involve fire
141
Inhalation of smoke and other products of combustion poses ___ health hazards
Short term, long term, and even fatal
142
Most effective way to protect your health
Wear appropriate respiratory protection
143
SCBA
Self Contained Breathing Apparatus
144
The use of an SCBA is a required skill for firefighters according to ____
NFPA 1001
145
Operations requiring SCBA protection include any activities that may take place in or near a ___
Potentially IDLH environment
146
IDLH
Immediately dangerous to life and health
147
Byproducts of combustion present during overhaul can cause ___
Long-term health risks such as cancer or respiratory disease
148
Two categories of respiratory protection equipment
1. Atmosphere-supplying respirators
2. Air-purifying respirators
149
ASRs
Atmosphere-supplying respirators
150
APRs
Air-purifying respirators
151
Provide breathable air when working in oxygen-deficient, toxic, or gas-filled atmospheres
ASRs
152
Only filter particulates out of the surrounding air
APRs
153
The primary type of respiratory protection that you will use in the fire service
ASR
154
Classifies atmospheres as IDLH
NFPA 1500 and OSHA
155
Before entering a potentially IDLH structure or area, you must ___
Don the correct level of PPE and respiratory protection
156
Common respiratory hazards
1. Oxygen deficiency
2. Elevated temperatures
3. Particulate contaminates
4. Gases and vapors
5. Airborne pathogens
157
When oxygen concentrations fall below ___, the human body increases its respiratory rate
18%
158
As less oxygen reaches body tissues, ___ occurs
Hypoxia
159
Most common cause of oxygen-deficient atomospheres
Combustion
160
Breathing air that has been heated can seriously damage the respiratory tract, the damage can be much worse when the air is ___
Moist
161
Excessive heat inhaled quickly into the lungs can cause a serious ___
Decrease in BP and failure of the circulatory system. Can cause pulmonary edema and lead to asphyxiation
162
Small particles that may be suspended in the air and are harmful to the respiratory system
Particulate contaminates
163
Smaller particulates are especially dangerous because the ___
Nasal membranes filter particulates larger than 1 micrometer but cannot keep the smaller particulates from entering the lungs
164
Sources of smaller particulates
1. Vehicle exhaust emissions
2. Chemical reactions
3. Heated metals or metal compounds
4. Combustion
165
Exposure to particulate contaminates can cause ___
1. Asthma
2. Lung cancer
3. Cardiovascular disease
4. COPD
5. Premature death
166
Firefighters may encounter particulate contaminates in a variety of operations, including ___
1. Wildland fires
2. Welding and metal cutting
3. Operation of fire apparatus and small engines
4. Operations following an explosion or building collapse
5. Structural fires, especially during overhaul
167
___ APR/PAPRs have half or full facepiece units with replaceable filter elements that capture the particulates
Cartridge and canister type
168
Pass ambient air through a single-use filter, canister, or cartridge as the wearer is breathing
APRs
169
When using a half facepiece mask, ___ is required
Eye protection
170
Particulate filters are used primarily at emergency medical incidents to protect against ___
Airborne diseases
171
Limitations of the APR
1. Limited life of the filters, canisters, and cartridges
2. Constant monitoring of the contaminated atmosphere
3. Normal oxygen content of the atmosphere before use
172
Other than EMS, APRs are appropriate for ___
1. Investigations or inspections involving body recovery
2. Bird, bat, or rodent excrement
3. Agricultural and industrial accidents
4. Particulate-producing tools
173
___ exist at standard temperature and pressure, while ___ result from temperature or pressure changes that affect a solid or liquid
1. Gases
2. Vapors
174
Exposure to gases and vapors can cause ___
1. Cancer
2. Thyroid damage
3. Eye irritation
4. Cardiovascular disease
5. Respiratory problems
175
Common fire gases and vapors
1. CO
2. CO2
3. Hydrogen cyanide (HCN)
4. Hydrogen chloride
5. Hydrogen sulfide
6. Nitrous gases
7. Phosgene
8. Sulfur dioxide
9. Ammonia
10. Formaldehyde
176
Hazardous concentrations of smoke above ___ are likely to be present during overhaul operations
Short-term exposure limits
177
In many cases, the hazards from smoke increases as the size of the particulates ___
Decreases
178
Hazmat can produce potentially hazardous gases and vapors in nonfire emergencies, such as ___
1. Incidents involving industrial, commercial, or warehouse occupancies
2. Spills resulting from transportation accidents
3. Leaks from storage containers or pipelines
179
At any hazmat incident, always remain at a safe distance until ___
The completion of a risk analysis
180
At a hazmat incident, you should always consider the atmosphere to be dangerous and wear the SCBA until ___
Air monitoring demonstrates that the atmosphere is safe
181
Common nonfire gas and vapor types
1. CO2
2. Ammonia
3. Sulfur dioxide
4. Chlorine
5. Pesticides
182
Nonfire source of CO2
Produced by fire suppression systems
183
Common source of ammonia
AC and cooling systems, chilling systems for hockey rinks, and agricultural applications
184
Nonfire source of sulfur dioxide
Produced by AC and cooling systems
185
Common source of chlorine
Found in water treatment facilities, water parks, and swimming pools
186
Common source of pesticides
Found in commercial outlets, farms, nurseries, and residences
187
Toxic gases may also be found in ___
1. Sewers
2. Caves
3. Storage tanks
4. Bins
5. Storm drains
6. Trenches
7. Tank cars
8. Other confined spaces
188
Disease causing microorganisms suspended in the air
Airborne pathogens
189
Disease causing microorganisms
1. Viruses
2. Bacteria
3. Fungi
190
Airborne pathogens may cause infection through ___
Inhalation or direct contact
191
You may encounter airborne pathogens during ___
1. Medical responses
2. Vehicle extrications
3. Rescue and recovery operations
4. Terrorist attacks
192
Protection against airborne pathogens includes ___
HEPA filters, APR/PAPRs, and SCBA
193
HEPA
High-efficiency particulate air
194
HEPA filter masks are ___ masks
Single-use
195
Surgical masks are not approved for use against airborne pathogens but may be used on patients to prevent ___
Them from spreading diseases by exhaling coughing, or sneezing
196
A type of atmosphere-supplying respirator that provides air in a cylinder
SCBA
197
Two main types of SCBA
1. Open-circuit SCBA
2. Closed-circuit SCBA
198
Open-circuit SCBA use ___
Compressed air
199
Closed-circuit SCBA use ___
Compressed oxygen
200
In ___ SCBA, exhaled air is vented to the outside atmosphere
Open-circuit
201
In ___ SCBA, exhaled air stays within the system for reuse
Closed-circuit
202
A closed-circuit SCBA is also called a ___
Rebreather
203
Closed-circuit SCBAs are much less common and are mainly used ___
1. In shipboard operations
2. At extended hazmat incidents
3. At some rescue operations
4. By industrial fire brigades
204
Four basic components of an open-circuit SCBA
1. Backplate and harness assembly
2. Regulator assembly
3. Air cylinder assembly
4. Facepiece assembly
205
Rigid frame with adjustable straps holds the breathing air cylinder on the backplate, and onto the firefighter's back
Backplate and harness assembly
206
Stabilize the SCBA, carry part of its weight, and provide a secure and comfortable fit
Straps
207
Distributes some of the SCBA weight to the hips
Adjustable waist strap
208
The air cylinder contains ___
Breathing air under pressure
209
Construction of SCBA cylinder
Steel, aluminum, aluminum wrapped in fiberglass, or a Kevlar/carbon composite material
210
Cylinder weight
8 to 20 lbs
211
The weight of the SCBA air cylinder significantly increases ___ during emergency operations
Physical stress
212
Connected to the cylinder
1. Control valve
2. Threaded stem and/or quick connect fitting
3. Pressure gauge
213
When the cylinder is in operation, the wearer ___ the control valve to permit air into the system
Fully opens
214
___ attaches to the stem and connects the cylinder to the regulator assembly
High-pressure hose
215
Air from the cylinder travels through the high-pressure hose to the ___
Regulator
216
The pressure gauge displays an estimate of the amount of air in the cylinder in ___
Pounds per square inch
217
Effect of breathing air with 8% oxygen
Exposure for 8 min is fatal; exposure for 4-5 min can be treated resulting in recovery
218
Effect of breathing air with 6% oxygen
Coma occurs in 40 seconds followed by death
219
Effect of breathing air with 8% to 10% oxygen
Exposure results in mental failure, unconsciousness, ashen face, cyanosis, nausea, and vomiting
220
Oxygen percentage that causes dizziness, headache, and rapid fatigue
10% to 12%
221
Oxygen percentage that decreases the ability to perform strenuous work and coordination is impaired
15% to 19%
222
30 minute cylinder pressure and volume
45 cu/ft @ 2216 psi
or
45 cu/ft @ 4500 psi
223
45 minute cylinder pressure and volume
66 cu/ft @ 3000 psi
or
66 cu/ft @ 4500 psi
224
60 minute cylinder pressure and volume
87 cu/ft @ 4500 psi
225
The regulator reduces the high pressure of the cylinder air to ___ and controls ___
1. Slightly above atmospheric pressure
2. Air flow to the wearer
226
When the wearer inhales, a ___ occurs in the regulator
Pressure differential
227
How does the regulator admit air to the facepiece?
When the pressure differential occurs, the apparatus diaphragm moves inward, tilting the admission valve so that LP air can flow into the facepiece. The regulator diaphragm is held open to create positive pressure
228
How does exhalation interact with the regulator?
Exhalation moves the diaphragm back to the closed position
229
The regulator may be located on the ___
Facepiece, shoulder harness, or waist belt harness
230
Depending on the SCBA model, the regulator will have control valves for ___ operations
Normal and emergency
231
What are the valves on the regulator?
1. Mainline valve
2. Bypass valve
232
On regulators equipped with both valves, the mainline valve ___ during normal operations and the bypass valve is ___
1. Locks into the open position
2. Closed
233
On some SCBA, the bypass valve controls a ___ in the event that the regulator fails
Direct air line from the cylinder
234
Once the regulator valves are set in their normal operating position, they should not be changed unless ___
The wearer needs the emergency bypass function
235
The current generation of regulators includes only the ___ valve
Bypass
236
Provides fresh breathing air while protecting the eyes and face from injury
Facepiece assembly
237
To provide fresh breathing air while protecting the eyes and face from injury, the facepiece must ___
Fit tightly to the face
238
Facepiece assembly components
1. Facepiece frame and lens
2. Head harness and straps
3. Exhalation valve
4. Hose cup
5. Speaking diaphragm
6. Regulator fitting or hose connection
239
According to ___, all new SCBA facepieces must be equipped with a HUD
NFPA 1981
240
HUD
Heads up display
241
Facepiece frame and lens construction
Made of clear safety plastic and mounted in a flexible rubber facepiece frame
242
This feature displays a series of lights on the inside of the facepiece lens indicating the approximate amount of air remaining in the cylinder
HUD
243
With adjustable straps, net or some other arrangement, holds the facepiece snugly against the face
Head harness and straps
244
Simple, one-way valve that releases exhaled air without admitting any of the contaminated outside atmosphere
Exhalation valve
245
Deflects exhalations away from the lens, reducing fogging or condensation on the lens
Nose cup
246
Mechanical diaphragm grants the wearer limited comms. May be replaced by an electronic one connected to a portable radio
Speaking diaphragm
247
Permits the regulator or hose to attach to the facepiece fram
Regulator fitting or hose connection
248
The wearer of an SCBA facepiece must undergo a ___ to determine the correct fit for a proper seal
Fit-test
249
The fit-test must use the same ___
Make, model, style, and size of facepiece that will be worn during emergency operations
250
Two fit-tests accepted by OSHA
1. Qualitative fit tests
2. Quantitative fit tests
251
QLFT
Qualitative fit test
252
QNFT
Quantitative fit test
253
QLFT and QNFT both provide an adequate assessment of ___
A facepiece's ability to maintain a complete seal to the face
254
Frequency of fit-tests
Annually or on a regular schedule
255
___ prohibits beards or facial hair that prevents a complete seal between the facepiece and the wearer's face
NFPA 1500
256
Wearing eyeglasses is prohibited if ___
The side frames pass through the seal area
257
___ allows firefighters to wear soft contact lenses while using full facepieces
NFPA 1500 and CFR 1910.134
258
Conditions for wearing soft contact lenses while using full facepieces
The firefighter has demonstrated successful long-term (at least 6 months) use of contact lenses without any problems
259
NIOSH
National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health
260
Provides the lowest thermal protection of any part of the PPE ensemble
Facepiece lens
261
When should facepiece lenses be inspected?
Before and after each use
262
Facepieces should be inspected in accordance with ___
NFPA 1852
263
SCBA facepieces that exhibit evidence of exposure to intense heat must be ___
Removed from service and repaired or replaced
264
Signs of exposure to intense heat to an SCBA facepiece
1. Cracking
2. Crazing
3. Bubbling
4. Discoloration
5. Deformation
6. Gaps between the lend and frame
265
___ and ___ are essential to preventing facepiece failure
1. Situational awareness
2. An understanding of fire behavior
266
Facepiece radiant heat requirements
Must be able to withstand radiant heat conditions typical for a structure fire for 24 minutes
267
Remote pressure gauge must be mounted ___
In a visible position
268
The remote pressure gauge shows pressure in the ___
Cylinder
269
Pressure readings are most accurate at or near ___
The upper range of the gauge's rated working pressures
270
At lower pressures, assume the ___ reading is correct
Lower
271
EOSTI
End-of-service-time indicators
272
How many EOSTIs are installed on SCBAs
2
273
The EOSTIs alarm warns the user that ___
The system is reaching the end of its air supply
274
When will the EOSTI warn the user typically?
33% of the cylinders capacity
275
EOSTI alarm
Both an audible alarm and a flashing light or physical vibration
276
The EOSTI alarm cannot be turned off until ___
The air cylinder valve is closed and the system is bled of all remaining pressure
277
RIC UAC
Rapid intervention crew universal air coupling
278
The RIC UAC is located ___
Within 4" of the cylinder outlet
279
The RIC UAC allows ___
Any cylinder that is low on air to be transfilled from another cylinder, equalizing the pressure between the two
280
The use of the RIC UAC requires ___
Thorough training
281
Allows two firefighters to share air from one cylinder without removing their facepieces
EEBSS
282
EEBSS
Emergency Escape Breathing Support System
283
The firefighter with the malfunctioning SCBA can connect their regulator to ___ on the working SCBA
The buddy breathing output
284
As both firefighters use the same air, they should ___
Make their way out of the dangerous environment toward the nearest means of emergency egress or nearest safe haven
285
Contain analog or digital displays to provide info about the operation of the the SCBA and PASS device
PASS control modules
286
The PASS control modules are required to show ___
Remaining breathing air cylinder content
287
Other info that may be show on a PASS control module
1. Cylinder pressure
2. Alarms
3. Remaining battery life
4. Estimates for remaining operational time
288
Show vital equipment info on the inside of the facepiece
HUD
289
HUD locations
Integrated into the facepiece or mounted on the shoulder and project an image onto the facepiece
290
HUD displays breathing cylinder content in what increments?
100, 75, 50, and 33 percent
291
What standard determines the increments displayed using the HUD?
NFPA 1581
292
The HUD should flash at ___ increments to indicate to the wearer ___
1. 1%
2. The rate at which air is being used
293
All PASS devices are designed to emit ___ when they activate
An alarm
294
The intention of the PASS device
For rescuers to receive both a visual and audio signal to follow when searching for a downed firefighter
295
NFPA 1581 allows voice communication systems to have a ___
Volume control
296
Wearer limitations for SCBA
1. Lack of physical condition
2. Lack of agility
3. Impaired balance
4. Inadequate pulmonary capacity
5. Weakened cardiovascular ability
6. Psychological limitations
7. Unique facial features
297
Equipment limitations for SCBA
1. Limited visibility
2. Decreased ability to communicate
3. Decreased endurance
4. Decreased mobility
5. Poor condition of apparatus
6. Low air cylinder pressure
298
How to offset wearer limitation for SCBA
Through constant training with each type of respiratory protection equipment used, period medical evaluations, and proper fit testing
299
Training will make you more ___ while wearing respiratory protection equipment
Confident and more effective
300
SCBA weight
25 to 35 lbs
301
How to control SCBA equipment limitations
Frequent and proper inspections, care, and maintenance
302
Four common methods of donning SCBA
1. Over the head
2. Coat
3. Seat
4. Side mount
303
Checks to make immediately prior to donning the SCBA if daily inspections are not performed
1. Check air cylinder gauge to ensure it is full
2. Check the remote gauge and cylinder gauge to ensure that they read within limits
3. Check the harness assembly and facepiece to ensure straps are fully extended
4. Operate all valves to ensure they function properly and left in the correct position
5. Test the LP alarm
6. Test the PASS device
7. Check all battery-powered functions
304
SCBA stored in cases can be donned using the ___
Over the head or coat method
305
Requires that SCBA be held in place by a mechanical latching device
NFPA 1901
306
The facepieces should be stored in ___
A drawstring bag or other quick opening bag, or in a pouch on your protective coat
307
Do not keep the facepiece connected to the ___ during storage
Regulator
308
Why shouldn't the facepiece be stowed connected to the regulator?
In order to check for proper facepiece seal
309
Never connect the regulator and breath cylinder air when seated in the apparatus because ___
Doing so will deplete your air supply before you arrive at the incident
310
___ requires firefighters to remain seated and belted at all times while the apparatus is in motion
NFPA 1500
311
The air cylinder's position in the seat back should match the ___
Proper wearing position for the firefighter
312
A seat mounted SCBA allows personnel to ___ and makes ___
1. Check the equipment for frequently
2. Conducting safety check more convenient
313
The extra weight of the SCBA makes slips and falls ___
More likely
314
Different facepiece harnesses
Some use a rubber harness, while others use a mesh skull cap
315
General considerations for donning the facepiece
1. Fully extend all straps
2. Ensure that no hair is between the skin and the facepiece sealing surface
3. Center the chin in the chin cup and the harness at the rear of the head
4. Tighten the straps by pulling the opposing straps evenly and simultaneously to the rear
5. Tighten the lower straps first and work up
6. Ensure a complete seal, the exhalation valve is functioning, and all connections are secure
7. Ensure the hood is over the facepiece harness and covering all exposed skin, vision is not obscured, and not portion of the hood is between the facepiece and your face
8. Wear the helmet with the chin strap secured
316
___ establishes the frequency of SCBA inspections
NFPA 1852
317
SCBA inspections are typically performed ___
Daily, weekly, or whenever firefighters report for duty
318
The period between SCBA inspections must not exceed ___
One week
319
Qualified SCBA repair technicians must inspect the units ___
Annually and after any repairs
320
When to clean the SCBA
1. After each use
2. At the start of each duty shift
3. Every week
321
Daily/weekly SCBA inspection should include ___
1. Facepiece
2. Breathing air cylinder assembly
3. LP alarm
4. Pressure indicator gauges
5. Backplate and harness assembly
6. Hoses
7. Regulator
8. Integrated PASS
322
What date should be checked on the SCBA air cylinder?
Hydrostatic test date
323
You should clean and sanitize the SCBA facepiece after each use to prevent ___
Debris from collecting in the exhalation valve and regulator fitting
324
Dirt or foreign materials can cause the exhalation valve to malfunction and allow ___
Cylinder air to escape
325
How to clean the facepiece
Wash thoroughly with warm water containing a mild commercial disinfectant and then rinse with clear, warm water
326
After cleaning the facepiece, take special care to ensure the proper operation of the ___
Exhaust valve
327
How to dry the facepiece
Either air dry or use a lint free cloth
328
Do not use paper towels to dry the facepiece because ___
They will scratch the facepiece lens
329
Although facepieces are impact resistant, they ___ easily
Scratch
330
What causes facepiece lenses to fog?
Difference between inside and outside temps or a defective nose cup
331
Who performs the annual SCBA maintenance?
Specially trained, factory-qualified technicians
332
Three breathing air sources to refill depleted SCBA air cylinders
1. Stationary fill systems
2. Mobile fill systems
3. Firefighter Breathing Air Replenishment Systems
333
FBARS
Firefighter Breathing Air Replenishment Systems
334
Stationary fill systems are installed at ___
Stations
335
Mobile fill systems are installed on ___
Apparatus or trailers
336
FBARS are installed in ___
High-rise buildings
337
FBARS are also called ___
FFARs
338
FFARs
Firefighter Air Replenishment Systems
339
SCBA fill systems must provide ___
Type I Grade D quality air
340
Safety precautions when filling an SCBA cylinder
1. Check the hydrostatic test date
2. Perform required cylinder inspection before filling
3. Check the working pressure
4. Wear the required hearing and eye protection
5. Place the cylinder in a shielded fill station
6. Fill the cylinder slowly to prevent overheating
7. Ensure that the cylinder is completely full but not overpressurized
8. Only allow trained personnel to operate the fill equipment
341
Filling unshielded cylinders while a firefighter wis wearing the SCBA is prohibited. However, ___ may be granted an exception to this rule
A RIC rescuing a trapped or incapacitated firefighter
342
RIC
Rapid intervention crew
343
Criteria to meet before filling a worn SCBA
1. NIOSH-approved RIC UAC fill options are used
2. Risk assessment conducted to limit safety hazards and ensure necessary equipment is fully operational
3. Imminent threat to the safety of the downed firefighter, and immediate action is required to prevent loss of life or serious injury
344
Two types of stationary fill stations
1. Cascade system
2. Directly from a compressor air purification system
345
Filling procedures must be posted on the ___
Fill station
346
When filling at a stationary system, cylinders are placed in ___
Rupture proof sleeves
347
A fill station must have the breathing air ___
Tested by a third party regularly and document the results
348
Person usually responsible for maintaining the documentation showing the testing of the fill station breathing air
Department's health and safety officer
349
Type of stationary fill station that is completely automated
Auto-cascade system
350
Auto-cascade systems fill cylinders to a ___
Programmable desired pressure
351
Designed to refill air cylinders at emergency incidents
Mobile breathing air systems
352
Typically consist of a fill station equipped with a breathing-air compressor or cascade fill station and are mounted on a trailer or the apparatus chassis
Mobile breathing air systems
353
A mobile breathing air systems may be designed to support a ___ or a ___ installed in a high-rise structure
1. SAR system
2. FBARS
354
SAR
Supplied Air Respirator
355
FBARS is typically required on new construction taller than ___
75'
356
Allows high-rise fires to be fought more effectively and avoid the need to carry many full SCBA cylinders to upper floors
FBARS
357
___ provide an endless source of breathing air to any floor within the structure from a ground level connection
FBARS
358
EAS
Emergency Air Storage
359
How full should SCBA cylinders be maintained?
90%+
360
If only one firefighter is available to replace the air cylinder, the firefighter will ___ in order to replace it
Doff the SCBA
361
After changing another firefighter's cylinder, report the ___
New cylinder's pressure to the wearer
362
Keep empty cylinders ___ from full cylinders
Separate
363
What to do with damaged cylinders
Clearly mark and keep them separate from both empty and full cylinders
364
SCBAs should be stored for ___
Quick and easy donning
365
Protect respiratory equipment from ___
Contamination, temperature changes, and UV light
366
If placing the SCBA in seat mounts, arrange it so that you can ___
Don the SCBA without having to remove the seat belt
367
Additional safety concerns when wearing an SCBA
1. Fatigue
2. Regulating air supply
3. Proper exit procedures
368
Before entering the IDLH atmosphere, check the ___ and estimate ___ based on ___
1. Cylinder pressure
2. Your point of no return
3. Your air supply, pressure, and mission objective
369
In any IDLH atmosphere, work in teams of ___
Two or more
370
Team members must remain in ___ while in the the hazardous area
Physical, voice, or visual contact with each other
371
___ is not sufficient to remain in contact
Radio contact
372
A ___ can help maintain contact
Thermal imager
373
TI
Thermal imager
374
Most common exit procedures
Nonemergency exit procedures
375
Exit procedures used in life-threatening situations such as SCBA failures and catastrophic changes during the incident
Emergency exit procedures
376
Situations or events that signal the need for exit
Exit indicators
377
At an incident, the ___ is responsible for having the environment monitored constantly
IC
378
PEL
Permissible exposure limit
379
When monitoring reveals a potential hazard, such as chemical concentrations that approach the PEL, the IC issues orders to ___
Change the required level of respiratory protection or withdraw from the area completely
380
Symptoms of oxygen deficiency to report and evacuate from immediately
1. Light-headedness
2. Loss of coordination
3. Rapid fatigue
4. Disorientation
5. Increased breathing rates
381
Nonemergency exit techniques are based on the ___ and the accountability requirements of ___
1. ICS
2. NFPA 1500
382
Nonemergency exit techniques include ___
1. The buddy system
2. Entry/egress paths
3. Controlled breathing
383
Each team member is responsible for the safety of ___
The other member
384
Team members must leave as ___
A group or pairs
385
The only time one member may work alone
In a confined space where two members cannot fit
386
When one team member is working alone in a confined space, the other should be ___
Outside the area monitoring the search line, ready to enter the space if the need for rescue arises
387
Allow for efficient air use in IDLH atmospheres
Controlled breathing
388
Non-load-bearing rope that is anchored to a safe, exterior location and attached to a firefighter during search operations to act as a safety line
Search line
389
Point at which the air in the SCBA will only last long enough to exit a hazardous atmosphere
Point of no return
390
Maximum time-weighted concentration at which 95% of exposed healthy adults suffer no adverse effects over a 40 hour work week
PEL
391
PEL is expressed in ___
PPM
392
PPM
Parts per million
393
Two controlled breathing techniques
1. Inhale naturally through the nose, then forcefully out the mouth
2. Reilly emergency breathing method
394
Reilly emergency breathing method
Inhale deeply through the nostrils, expanding the diaphragm to fill the lungs fully. When the lungs are full, hum while exhaling in a slow, consistent manner
395
Controlled breathing is an important exit technique because it ___
Reduces air consumption during the time required to exit
396
When you exit an IDLH area, it is important to use the ___
Same path you used to enter
397
You can follow ___ to exit
Hoses or search lines
398
Check in with the ___ after you have safely exited the structure and reached a safe distance
Accountability officer
