Flight Controls Flashcards

1
Q

Lift condition between initial buffet and stall; onset of initial buffet is indicated by an AOA of ______.

A

1.0

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2
Q

Full stall of the wing occurs at an AOA of ____.

A

1.2

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3
Q

AOA Caution range is ______ to ______ and buffet/stall zone is ______ to _______.

A

0.85 to 0.91 and from 0.91 to 1.10

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4
Q

Max range is depicted by a _________ and max endurance by a ________.

A

Triangle; square

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5
Q

At 3 engine climbout speed plus 50 knots a max bank angle of ______ degrees is permissible.

A

30 degrees

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6
Q

Landing gear down, lowers rate of climb by approx.

A

420 fpm

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7
Q

For the KC-135, ground effect begins about ________ ft. above the runway.

A

130 ft (about one wingspan)

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8
Q

The KC-135 displays an effect known as initial buffet which is airflow separation on ___________ and is an indication that you are approaching ___________.

A

The main wing; stall speed

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9
Q

____________ directly affects induced drag?

A

Ground effect

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10
Q

Approximately ______ % of the roll authority on the KC-135 comes from the spoilers.

A

60%

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11
Q

If gusts are present, the takeoff and climbout speeds are increased. For heavy gross weights, if flap placard speed approaches or exceeds flap retraction schedule, use the flap placard speed minus _________ knots as the flap retraction speed.

A

5

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12
Q

_____ degree flap takeoffs are better for close-in obstacles and short runways.

A

30 degree flaps

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13
Q

Flaps at _____ degrees are preferred on takeoff due to more excess thrust which provides better climb and acceleration rates.

A

20 degrees

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14
Q

We only have a ____% stall margin on takeoff, limit bank when performance is critical

A

10%

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15
Q

The rotation go-around (RGA) computer may use a higher angle of attack (AOA) as the basis for the climbout profile due to _________________.

A

Over rotation on takeoff

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16
Q

Better acceleration and margin above stall during takeoff is obtained using _______ degrees of flap

17
Q

High-speed buffet can be characterized as:

A

Flow disruptions caused by shock waves on the main wing

18
Q

What is the procedure for dealing with Mach tuck?

A

Extend the speed brakes then reduce power

19
Q

What is the procedure for dealing with Dutch roll?

A

Use lateral controls (yoke) or descend/speed up

20
Q

Flying as little as _______kts fast on short final can result in increased flare distances of as much as 1,000 ft (even more when using less than 50 flaps)

21
Q

What do you do if the aircraft bounces on landing?

A

Either hold the landing attitude to land or go-around

22
Q

If you are below 15,000 ft and you find yourself in a stall, extend flaps to _____.

A

30 degrees

23
Q

During takeoff and landing, PWS does not report windshear on the runway at speeds above _____ kts until the airplane is airborne and above ______ft AGL.

24
Q

If excessive windshear is encountered below ________ ft AGL, a go-around should be initiated.

25
Overstressing the vertical fin can occur with the rudder in the high pressure range when above ___ KIAS
230
26
EFAS starts to apply rudder when it detects a speed difference of approx _____% N1 between the two outboard engines.
10%
27
ASM Thrust light will illuminate at a speed difference of ______%N1 between the two engines, indicating a probable engine failure.
30%
28
During takeoff planning, what can you do to counter difficulties following an engine failure?
Use the lowest allowable thrust
29
The EFAS assists during ___________ engine failures only
Outboard
30
You are above Vmca and experience an outboard engine failure. Which control forces do you use to control the aircraft?
Rudder and aileron
31
If rudder hydraulic pressure does not fall into the low range when the flaps are raised either stay below _________kts or ______________.
230; turn the rudder power switch off prior to 230 knots
32
What speed must you be at to reengage rudder power?
220 KIAS or below