Gastro Flashcards

(98 cards)

1
Q

dysphagia of both liquids and solids

A

achalasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

failure of oesophageal sphincter to close due to degenerative loss of ganglia from the myenteric plexus

A

achalasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

diagnostic test of achalasia

A

oesophageal manometry- LOS which doesn’t relax on swallowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

first line for achalasia

A

pneumatic (balloon) dialtion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

surgery for recurrent achalasia

A

Heller cardiomytomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

is jaundice present in cholecystitis or ascending cholangitis

A

ascending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

roving sign in appendicitis

A

more pain in RIF than LIF when palpating LIF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

loin pain and fever

A

acute pyelonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

loin pain radiating to groin

A

renal colic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ectopic preg presetns with amenorrhoea the past 6-9 weeks

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

central abdo pain and history of fib and may get diarrhoea and metabolic acidosis is often seen

A

mesenteric ishaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

*remember that ‘liver function tests’ do not always accurately reflect the synthetic function of the liver. This is best assessed by looking at the —and — level.

A

prothrombin time and albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what can indicate an upper vs lower Gi bleed

A

upper - high urea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

as duodenal ulcers are posteriorly sited they can erode the

A

gastroduodenal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

GI bleed what risk assessment

A

Glasgow blatchfrod at first assessment
Rockall used after endoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

fresh frozen plasma replaces

A

fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

give what if taking warfarin and actively bleeding

A

prothrombin complex concentrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what should be done in GI bleed within 24hrs after resus

A

endoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

bind ligation is done for oesophageal varices what is done for gastric

A

injections of N-butyl-2-cyanoacrylate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

if do drink more than 14 units of alcohol a days best to

A

spread this evenly over 3 days or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

1 unit of alcohol is

A

half a glass of wine
1/3 of a pint of beer
25ml of a spirit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

mx of alcoholic ketoacidossi

A

saline and thiamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

findings in alcoholic liver disease

A

AST:ALT >2, greater than 3 is strongly suggestive of acute alcoholic hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

mx for alcoholic liver disease

A

steroids and may give pentoxyphylline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
madders discriminant function use in alcoholic liver disease
determines whether would benefit from steroids
25
the aminosalicyclate drugs eg =sulphasalazine and mesalazine associated with haematoligcal adverse effects including agranulocytosis so
FBC is a key ix
26
side effect of sulphasalazine is -- mesalazine s/e is ---
headache, pancreatitis
27
loperamide is a
anti diarrhoea
28
for ascites, in contrast to pleural efussuin where the high one is malignancy, infection
is opposite for ascites. infection, malign saag <11
29
mx of ascites
salt restrict spironolactone paracentesis
30
when doing paracetensis for ascites need cover of what
albumin
31
what might be given in ascites as prophylaxis for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
ciprofloxacin
32
anti nucleus anti smooth liver/kidney microsmal antibodie s
autoimmune hepatit s
33
what is common in autoimmune hepatitis
amenorrhoea
34
more what epithelium in barrets
columnar
35
increased risk of what carcinoma in barrets
adeno
36
what is not a rf for barrets
alcohol
37
mx of barrerts
PPI &endoscopy every 3-5 years
38
if barrets causing dysphasia then what is first line
radio frequency ablation
39
strongest rf or barrets
gord
40
bile acid malabsorption is a cause of
chronic diarrhoea
41
test of choice in bile acid malabsorption
SeHCAT
42
bile acid amalsprotion may be treated With
cholesytramine
43
unconjugated bilirubin raised is a result of
haemolysis
44
A mild glucuronyl transferase deficiency results in Gilbert's Syndrome
more severe def in CRIGLER najjar syndrome
45
triad of Budd chairi syndrome
abdo pain ascites tender hepatomegaly
46
ix for Budd chairi
US with doppler flow studies
47
budd chairi syndrom eis
hepatic vein thrombosis
48
usually occurs when metastases are present in the liver and release serotonin into the systemic circulation
carcinoid syndrome
49
flushing and diarrhoea can be seen in
carcinoid syndrome
50
ix for carcinoid syndrome
urinary 5-HIAA
51
drugs for carcinoid syndrome
somatostatin analogue eg ocreotide
52
what can be sued for hyperlipidaemia as it reduces LDL cholesterol
Cholestyramine
53
cholestryramine can be sued for ongoing diarrhoea after
bowel resection in crohns
54
other risk factor for c diff
PPI
55
antibiotic class that are leading cause of c. diff
cephalosporins
56
what is characteristic of c diff
raised WCC
57
C. difficile antigen positivity only shows exposure to the bacteria, rather than current infection
First episode of C. difficile infection first-line therapy is oral vancomycin for 10 days second-line therapy: oral fidaxomicin third-line therapy: oral vancomycin +/- IV metronidazole
58
recurrent c diff
fidaxomicin
59
life threatening c diff
oral Vanc and Iv metr
60
dermatitis herpetiformis
blistering itchy rash
61
villas atrophy
coeliac
62
features of coeliac
diarrhoea persistent nausea and vomit tired all the time abdo pain,crampign
63
coeliac effect on fertility
subfertility
64
in coeliac what happens to villous atrophy when on gluten free diet
reverses
65
ix for coeliac -
tissue transglutimate antibodies (bloods) & IgA level
66
if IgA deficiency test for IgG endomyseal antibodies, IgG deamidated gliadin peptide (DGP) or IgG transglutaminase antibodies
need to introduce gluten into diet how long before testing - 6 weeks
67
gold standard for coeliac dx
endoscopic intestinal biopsy
68
villous atrophy crypt hyperplasia increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes
findings of coeliac
69
gluten foods
bread past, beer, rye oats
70
gluten free bu can drink
whiskey rice potatoes
71
Tissue transglutaminase antibodies may be checked to check--- with a gluten-free diet.
compliance
72
Patients with coeliac disease often have a degree of functional hyposplenism For this reason, all patients with coeliac disease are offered the pneumococcal vaccine Coeliac UK recommends that everyone with coeliac disease is vaccinated against pneumococcal infection and has a booster every 5 years
73
most common form of inherited colon cancer
Lynch syndrome
74
pts with lych syndrome also at risk of
endometrial cancer
75
Lynch syndrome naem is
hereditary non polyposis colorectal carcinoma
76
osteomalacia of skull and mandible
gardner syndrome
77
Amsterdam criteria for
hereditary non polyposis colorectal cancer
78
cosntiaption if under
3 stools weekly
79
first line laxative in consipation
bulk forming eg ispaghula
80
weight loss, diarrhoea
crohns
81
most common extra intestinal manifestation in crohns and UC
arthritis
82
episcelrisi is more common I crohns
uveitis is more common in UC
83
goblet cells and granulomas strictures - kantor string sign rose thorn ulcers fistulae
crohns
84
ix of choice in crohns
colonoscopy
85
second lien to steroids in crohns
5ASA drugs eg mesalazine
86
azathioprine or mercaptopurine* may be used as an add-on medication to induce remission but is not used as monotherapy. Methotrexate is an alternative to azathioprine
crohns
87
what is used in refractory crohns and fistualting crohns
inflixamb
88
what is a priority in crohns dx
stopping smoking
89
what is used first line to maintain remission in crohns
Azathioprine or mercaptopurine
90
what acitivty should be assess before starting azathioprine or mercaptopurine in crohns
TMPT activity
91
ix of choice for perianal fistula in crohns
MRI
92
what is given for perianal fistula incrohns
metronidazole
93
diarrhoea greater than how many water stools per day
3
94
mouth ulcers
crohns
95
diverticulosis is most commonly in
sigmoid colon
96
2 drugs that can cause a cholestatic liver disease
COC and co -amox
97