A 35-year-old woman with Crohn’s disease started azathioprine therapy.
After one week, she developed pancytopenia.
Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism?
Thiopurine methyltransferase deficiency
Thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) deficiency leads to accumulation of toxic metabolites of azathioprine, increasing the risk of bone marrow suppression.
H pylori therapy
amoxicillin, clarithromycin and a PPI twice daily for seven days - so-called triple therapy.
metronidazole in penicillin allergic
previous surgery to the terminal ileum can lead to
bile acid malabsorption
type of anaemia in celiac vs crohns
celiac - microcytic
Patients with vitamin B12 deficiency have megaloblastic anaemia, which is a macrocytic, in crohns (duodenum)
weird crohns symptom
Peripheral neuropathy
The patient likely has Crohn’s disease, which frequently affects the terminal ileum, the site of vitamin B12 absorption. A deficiency in B12 leads to various neurological conditions such as subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord and peripheral neuropathy.
medication induced constipaiotn common cause
Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension, is known to decrease intestinal motility, leading to constipation, and ibuprofen can exacerbate this through effects on the gastrointestinal tract.
Diarrhoea
Dementia
Dermatitis
Death (if untreated)
alcoholic
diagnosis?
Vitamin B3 (niacin) deficiency causes pellagra, a condition which classically presents with the 4 Ds:
Diarrhoea
Dementia
Dermatitis
Death (if untreated)
The hyperpigmented band around the neck seen in this patient is known as “Casal’s necklace”. Chronic alcohol excess and malnutrition significantly increase the risk of niacin deficiency, making this the correct answer.
dermatitis herpetiformis treatment
Dapsone
UC inflammation
colon and rectum
mild UC mx
Mesalazine suppository
crypt abscesses?
UC
what is often used in perianal Crohn’s disease
Metronidazole is often used in perianal Crohn’s disease
epigastric pain improved on eating?
duodenal ulcer, Duodenal improves after Dinner - most likely H pylori !
C diff risk increased by
PPI
A 56-year-old female presents with recurrent indigestion, nausea and weight loss over the past few months. She has no history of dyspepsia or peptic ulcer disease in the past. She is not currently taking any medications.
What is the most appropriate initial diagnostic test?
Upper GI endoscopy
Patients over the age of 55 with weight loss in addition to reflux, dyspepsia or abdominal pain require an urgent referral for an endoscopy (2-week wait). This allows direct visualisation and biopsy of the upper gastrointestinal tract, which can provide a definitive diagnosis.
Infliximab
induced crohns remission
first line to maintain remission in crohns after steroids
Azathioprine
oesophageal webs, dysphagia and iron deficiency anaemia
dx?
Plummer-Vinson syndrome
The history and examination findings are suggestive of iron deficiency anaemia, which, together with the dysphagia, are suggestive of this rare syndrome that is characterised by oesophageal webs, dysphagia and iron deficiency anaemia
food poisoning from chicken abx treatment
This patient has developed gastroenteritis, and infection due to Campylobacter jejuni is one of the commonest causes after exposure to poultry. This should normally be managed with supportive treatment, but more severe symptoms should be treated with a macrolide antibiotic such as Clarithromycin
IBS treatment
Mebeverine is an antispasmodic
Ank spond and IBD flare mx
The symptom of bloody diarrhoea and past medical history of ankylosing spondylitis make ulcerative colitis (UC) more likely than Crohn’s disease in this scenario
rectal mesalazine
A 19 year old man with oedema and feeling generally unwell. On examination he is pale, thin and has evidence of angular stomatitis and oral ulcers. It is noted that his albumin is 15 g/L (normal range 35-50 g/L).
Which of the following is the most likely cause?
crohns malabsoprtion
oral thrush tx
oral fluconazole
Ix for perianal abscess causing sepsis
This patient has sepsis secondary to a perianal abscess, which is likely due to underlying Crohn’s disease. The priority is to delineate the extent of the abscess and potential fistula by an urgent MRI pelvis before draining it via EUA
urgent MRI pelvis