Grab bag- KNOW THESE

Question 1

what four diseases require notification to WHO in all circumstances under the IHR (2005) (4)

Answer 1

1- smallpox
2- poliomyelitis due to wild type poliovirus
3- human influenza caused by a new subtype
4- severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)

Question 2

what are the 4 principles from Upshur’s ethical framework for public health (4)

Answer 2

1- harm principle
2- least restrictive or coercive means
3- reciprocity principle
4- transparency principle

Question 3

what is a standard drink in Canada (4)

Answer 3

1- 12oz bottle of beer
2- 5oz glass of wine
3- 1.5oz shot of spirits

Question 4

as per Canada’s low risk drinking guidance, what is the drinks/week that constitutes low risk (1)

Answer 4

1- having 2 or less standards drinks per week

Question 5

as per Canada’s low risk drinking guidance, if you drink 3-6 standard drinks per week, your risk of what health outcomes increase? (1)

Answer 5

1- risk of developing certain cancers - breast, colon, GI (rectum, liver, esophagus, larynx, throat, mouth)

Question 6

as per Canada’s low risk drinking guidance, if you drink 7+ standard drinks per week, your risk of what health outcomes increase? (1)

Answer 6

1- risk of heart disease and stroke

Question 7

as per Canada’s low risk drinking guidance, what are some short-term risks of alcohol consumption (5)

Answer 7

1- injury to self and others
2- behaviours - impulsive, aggressive
3- impaired attention/judgment
4- impaired memory/cognition
5- nausea/vomiting

etc.

Question 8

as per Canada’s low risk drinking guidance, what are some short-term risks of alcohol consumption after severe intoxication (3)

Answer 8

1- coma
2- respiratory arrest
3- death

Question 9

what is latent period (1)

Answer 9

1- interval between initial contact with an infectious agent and the beginning of the communicable period (individual is not infectious
during the latent period)

Question 10

what is incubation period (2)

Answer 10

1- interval between initial contact with an infectious agent and the first appearance of symptoms
2- can overlap with communicable period - I.e. you can be infectious before symptoms have appeared

Question 11

what are the steps for drinking water treatment (7, 7ab)

Spicy Pickles Can Force Sylas (to) Fart Dangerously

Answer 11

1- Screening
2- Pre-chlorination
3- Coagulation
4- Flocculation
5- Sedimentation
6- Filtration
7- Disinfection:
7a- Primary disinfection
7b- Secondary disinfection

Question 12

re: steps for drinking water treatment, what is ‘screening’ (1)

Answer 12

1- Screening: remove debris

Question 13

re: steps for drinking water treatment, what is ‘pre-chlorination’ (1)

Answer 13

1- Pre-chlorination: arrests biological growth of
incoming source water

Question 14

re: steps for drinking water treatment, what is ‘coagulation’ (1)

Answer 14

1- Coagulation: chemicals rapidly mixed water in
order to bind large particles together

Question 15

re: steps for drinking water treatment, what is ‘flocculation’ (1)

Answer 15

1- Flocculation: gentle mixing used to increase the
particle size to create even larger suspended
particles (flocs)

Question 16

re: steps for drinking water treatment, what is ‘sedimentation’ (1)

Answer 16

1- Sedimentation: suspended particles settle out

Question 17

re: steps for drinking water treatment, what is filtration (1)

Answer 17

1- Filtration: pass water through filter to capture
solid particles. Effective against protozoa and cysts

Question 18

re: steps for drinking water treatment, what is disinfection (1)

Answer 18

1- Disinfection: inactivation of pathogens not
physically removed by filtration

Question 19

re: steps for drinking water treatment, what is primary disinfection (1a, 1b examples - UV-CO)

Answer 19

1a- Primary disinfection: kills/inactivates bacteria,
viruses, other pathogens early in treatment process
before water enters distribution system
1b- e.g. chlorine, ozone, UV

Question 20

re: steps for drinking water treatment, what is secondary disinfection (1a, 1b examples - MCC)

Answer 20

1a- Secondary disinfection: provides longer-
lasting water treatment as the water moves through
distribution system
1b- e.g. monochloramine, chlorine, chlorine dioxide

Question 21

re: primary disinfection ‘chlorination’, are secondary residuals/byproducts formed - TCB (3)

Answer 21

YES
1- trihalomethanes
2- chloroform
3- bromodichloromethane

Question 22

re: primary disinfection ‘ozone’, are secondary residuals/byproducts formed (1)

Answer 22

1- no

Question 23

re: primary disinfection ‘UV radiation’, are secondary residuals/byproducts formed (1)

Answer 23

1- no

Question 24

re: primary disinfection ‘chlorination’, what are pros - CM (2)

Answer 24

1- residuals are easy to monitor
2- it is cheap

Question 25

re: primary disinfection 'chlorination', what are cons -TB (2)

Answer 25

1- May leave taste/odour 2- Disinfection by-products can be harmful

Question 26

re: primary disinfection 'ozone', what are pros - TD (2)

Answer 26

1- high disinfectant capacity 2- removes taste/odour

Question 27

re: primary disinfection 'ozone', what are cons - EES (3)

Answer 27

1- expensive 2- energy intensive 3- requires secondary disinfection

Question 28

re: primary disinfection 'UV radiation', what are pros (1)

Answer 28

1- simple process

Question 29

re: primary disinfection 'UV radiation', what are cons (2)

Answer 29

1- requires Pre-treatment filtration 2- Requires secondary disinfection

Question 30

define bias (2)

Answer 30

1- Consistent and systematic deviation from the truth 2- impacts the difference between the observed value and true value in a predictable manner (i.e. always occurs in the same direction)

Question 31

what are biases in screening (3)

Answer 31

1- Selection bias: healthy people more likely to be screened 2- Lead-time bias: overestimate survival by detecting disease earlier 3- Length-time bias: overestimate survival by detecting slowly progressing disease

Question 32

if H0 (null hypothesis) is no disease/outcome, what is meant by alpha (1)

Answer 32

1- Type 1 error - false positive - error that occurs when you reject the null when it is true e.g. you tell a man they they are pregnant

Question 33

if H0 (null hypothesis) is no disease/outcome, what is meant by beta (1)

Answer 33

1- Type 2 error - false negative - error that occurs when you don’t reject the null when it is false e.g. you tell a visibly pregnant woman that they are not pregnant

Question 34

define basic reproductive number (R0) (1)

Answer 34

1- Average number of secondary infections generated by the first infectious individual in a population of completely susceptible individuals

Question 35

what are SMART objectives/goals (5)

Answer 35

1- specific 2- measurable 3- achievable 4- relevant 5- timely

Question 36

what is the scope of the federal Quarantine Act (1)

Answer 36

1- Quarantine Act can only be invoked for issues between points of entry and exit into Canada (i.e. no jurisdiction on movement between PT)

Question 37

what are the most effective strategies to prevent falls, generally (in the elderly) - STN SMSM (8)

Answer 37

1- Exercise: challenge your balance and build strength. 2- sleep sufficiently 3- Take your time: don’t rush when walking or getting up. 4- Nutrition and hydration 5- Get your sight and hearing checked regularly - use glasses/hearing aids as needed 6- Medications - avoid polypharmacy, some meds can make you dizzy/prone to fall 7- shoes - Wear well-fitting, sturdy shoes. 8- mobility device - Consider using a cane or other mobility device if needed.

Question 38

what are strategies to prevent falls indoors (in the elderly) - LCGRW (5)

Answer 38

1- Lighting - sufficient 2- clutter-free - Keep stairs free of clutter and exterior stairs and walkways free of clutter, ice or snow. 3- grab bars - Install hand rails along stairs and safety grab bars in the bathroom. 4- remove hazards - slipping and tripping hazards, and use non-slip mats or rugs. 5- within reach - Ensure regularly used items are within reach.

Question 39

define primary data (1)

Answer 39

1- new data collected as part of an assessment, study, etc.

Question 40

define secondary data (1)

Answer 40

1- pre-existing data is then synthesized or processed and can come from multiple sources of primary data

Question 41

what are some sources of primary data - SIP-FF (5)

Answer 41

1- interviews (key informant) 2- focus groups 3- surveys/questionnaires 4- public meetings 5- forums

Question 42

what are some sources of secondary data - SHG MRCS (7)

Answer 42

1- statistics canada (e.g. CCHS) 2- health care data (e.g. from CIHI) 3- government reports and websites 4- municipal planning documents 5- reports from public health agencies 6- community - data from community organizations 7- school board data

Question 43

what are groups generally considered at higher risk for various diseases - depends on disease, look at the context (10)

Answer 43

1- extremes of age - young children, elderly 2- immunocompromised 3- chronic medical conditions 4- comorbid medical conditions 5- rural/remote/Northern place of living 6- pregnant people 7- indigenous people 8- new immigrants 9- those who are hospitalized or in ICU 10- institutionalized (incarcerated, LTC, etc.)

Question 44

define vaccine hesitancy (1)

Answer 44

1- Delay in acceptance or refusal of vaccines despite availability of vaccine services

Question 45

what are categories of reasons for vaccine hesitancy (3)

Answer 45

1- complacency 2- convenience 3- confidence

Question 46

re: vaccine hesitancy, what does complacency mean - NE (2)

Answer 46

1- need - Lack of perceived need or value for vaccine 2- experience - Lack of experience with vaccine preventable diseases

Question 47

re: vaccine hesitancy, what does convenience mean - AC (2)

Answer 47

1- access - Lack of access (geographic barriers, time barriers) 2- Cost barriers

Question 48

re: vaccine hesitancy, what does confidence mean - LF- PI-PARDS (9)

Answer 48

1- Lack of trust in vaccine, provider, or the process 2- Fear of being injected with a substance derived from disease-causing organisms 3- Past adverse experiences 4- intimidated - Feeling intimidated 5- Perceived risk/benefit 6- Actual risk/benefit (technical concerns over probability of side effects) 7- Religious beliefs 8- Social context and media personalities 9- Distrust of health system, industry, government

Question 49

SEE MEASLES, MPOX, (CONGENITAL) SYPHILIS SLIDE DECKS

Question 50

What are modifiable risk factors that could be relevant to many (if not most) diseases (4)

Answer 50

1- exercise/physical activity 2- diet 3- alcohol consumption & tobacco use 4- overweight/obesity

Question 51

what are the core pillars of the PHAC STBBI action plan (4 +1)

Answer 51

1- prevention 2- testing 3- initiation of care and treatment 4- ongoing care and support 5- enabling environment underpinning it all