Haematology Flashcards

(54 cards)

1
Q

AML poor prognostic factors (2)

A

> 60yo
20% blasts after first chemo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Translocation 15;17
Average age 25yo
Auer rods
Presents with thrombocytopenia/ DIC
=

A

Acute promyelocytic leukaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Antiphospholipid syndrome
Features (3)

Could be secondary to which condition?

A

Predisposition to:
1. Venous and arterial thrombus
2. Recurrent fetal aloss
3. Thrombocytopenia

SLE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Antiphospholipid syndrome
In pregnancy which complications may occur? (6)

A

Recurrent miscarriage
IUGR
PET
Abruption
Pre-term labour
VTE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mx antiphospholipid syndrome in pregnancy (3)

A

Low dose aspirin once pregnancy confirmed
LMWH once FHR on US
Discontinue at K34

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Pancytopenia
  2. Hypoplastic bone marrow
  3. Could be the presenting feature of AML/ALL
  4. Normochromic, normocytic anaemia
  5. Lekopenia with lymphocytes spared

30yo

A

aplastic anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Auto immune haemolytic anaemia classification
Which is more common?
Which antibody?
Extra/intravascular?

A

Warm - most common, IgG, extravascular e.g spleen

Cold - less common, IgM, intravascular
Features Raynaud’s, acrocyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Causes of warm (3) and cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (2)

Which one response well to steroids?

A

Warm - underlying autoimmune condition e.g SLE, lymphoma, CLL
Steroids

Cold - lymphoma, EBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Beta thalassemia trait
What type of anaemia?
What may be raised?

A

Hypochromic, microcytic anaemia
HbA2 raised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

‘starry sky’ appearance: lymphocyte sheets interspersed with macrophages containing dead apoptotic tumour cells

Classification (2)

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma
1. Endemic (African) form - involves maxilla or mandible
2. Sporadic (most common) - common in pts with HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is strongly implicated in the development of the endemic Burkitt’s lymphoma?

A

EBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Tumour lysis syndrome signs (5)

A

AKI
Low calcium
High potassium, phosphate, uric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

CLL complications (3)

A

Hypogammaglobulinaemia leading to recurrent infections
Warm autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
High grade lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Richter’s transformation?

Features (5)

A

Leukaemia turning into high grade Hodgkin’s lymphoma

  1. Lymph node swelling
  2. Fever without infection
  3. Weight loss
  4. Night sweats
  5. AP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

CLL
Blood film
What will you seen on FBC?

A

Smudge cells
Anaemia
Lymphocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Raynaud’s
Ulceration
Arthralgia
Glomerulonephritis
=
Can be caused by? (3)

C4 high or low
ESR high or low

A

Cryoglobulinaemia
HIV/ hep C/ lymphoma

C4 low
High ESR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Where would you see Howell Jolly bodies?

A

Asplenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How to diagnose DVT

A

Wells score
If =>2 US within 4 hours

If +ve - DOAC
If -ve do a d-dimer

If scan -ve but d-dimer +ve stop DOAC and repeat scan in 1 week

If <2
D-dimer within 4 hours
If negative then likely alternative diagnosis
If positive then US within 4 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

DVT length of anticoag

A

Provoked 3 months
Unprovoked 6 months total

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Three DOACs direct factor Xa inhibitor
x1 direct thrombin inhibitor
Reversal drugs

A

Rivarox
Apix
Edox
Reversal: Andexanet

Dabigatran
Reversal: Idarucizumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Fanconi anaemia? (5)

A

Aplastic anaemia
Increased risk of AML
Pancytopenia
Short stature
Cafe au lai spots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

G6PD deficiency is most common in which patient group?
Inheritance?

A

X linked recessive
Mediterranean & AFrica

23
Q

Features G6PD deficiency (4)
Blood film (2)

A

Neonatal jaundice
Intravascular haemolysis
Gall stones
Splenomegaly

Heinz bodies
Bite and blister cells

24
Q

G6PD deficiency
Diagnosis

A

G6PD enzyme assay three months after an acute episode of haemolysis

25
Which drugs can precipitate haemolysis in G6PD defiency?
Primarquine Cipro Sulphonamides
26
Hereditary spherocytosis Inheritance Patient group Features that make it different from G6PD deficiency(1)
AD Northern European Extravascular haemolysis
27
Primary immunodeficiency Recurrent bacterial infections Eczema Thrombocytopenia Low IgM levels X linked recessive
Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
28
Weight loss Visual disturbance Hepatosplenomegaly Lymphadenopathy Cryoglobulinameia e.g Raynaud's
Waldenstrom's macroglobulinaemia
29
Most common inherited bleeding disorder Inheritance Features (2)
Von Willebrand's disease AD Epistaxis Menorrhagia
30
Von Willebrand's Ix (2) Mx (3)
APTT prolonged Factor VIII reduced TXA Desmopressin Factor VIII concentrate
31
Rx essential thrombocytopenia (3)
Hydroxyurea Interferon a Low dose aspirin
32
Essential thrombocytosis features (3)
Burning sensation in the hands Thrombosis and haemorrhage Platelet count >600
33
Causes of splenomegaly (4)
Myelofibrosis CML Malaria Visceral leishmaniasis
34
How often should sickle cell patients receive the pneumococcal vaccine?
Every 5 years
34
Secondary causes of polycythaemia (4)
COPD Altitude Obstructive sleep anoea Excessive EPO
34
Secondary causes of polycythaemia (4)
COPD Altitude Obstructive sleep anoea Excessive EPO
35
What is polycythaemia? Mutation of what gene?
Overproduction of red blood cells JAK2
36
Fatigue Dizziness Increased sweating Redness in the face Blurred vision Itchiness after a hot shower =
Polycythaemia rubra vera
36
Polycythaemia features (7)
Hyperviscosity Pruritus Splenomegaly Haemorrhage Plethoric appearance HTN Low ESR
37
Polycythaemia Age Mx (3)
60yo Aspirin, venesection, chemo (hydroxyurea)
38
Polycythaemia can go on to develop which two diseases?
Myleofibrosis Acute leukaemia
39
Haemophillia Inheritance A deficiency in factor? B deficiency in factor? Ix
X linked recessive A - factor 8 B factor 9 deficiency Prolonged APTT, all the rest normal
40
Reed-Steenberg cell = Age?
Hodgkin's lymphoma 30yo and 70yo
41
Hodgkin's lymphoma features (5)
Lymphadenopathy Weight loss Alcohol pain Eosinophilia LDH raised
42
Mx immune thrombocytopenia
PO prednisolone IVIG
43
What is Evan's syndrome?
ITP in association with autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
44
In IDA a High TIBC/ transferrin =
Low iron stores
45
abdominal pain peripheral neuropathy (mainly motor) neuropsychiatric features fatigue constipation blue lines on gum margin (only 20% of adult patients, very rare in children) =
Lead poisoning
46
Lead poisoning investigations (3) Blood film (2)
Lead levels >10 Microcytic anaemia Raised serum and urine levels of aminolaevulinic acid Blood film: basophillic stippling, clover leaf morphology
47
Mx lead poisoning (2)
Dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) D penicillamine
47
Causes of megaloblastic macrocytic anaemia (2)
B12 and folate
48
usually asymptomatic no bone pain or increased risk of infections around 10-30% of patients have a demyelinating neuropathy paraprotinaemia normal immune function =
Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance
49
Myeloma features (5) Ix (3)
Bone pain Hypercalcaemia Renal failure Lethargy Infection Monoclonal antibodies (bence jones proteins) Whole body MR XR rain drop skull
50
What is paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria? Features (4)
Acquired disorder leading to haemolysis More prone to venous thrombosis Haemolytic anaemia Pancytopenia Haemoglobinuria (dark coloured urine in the morning) Thrombosis (Budd Chiari syndrome)