Infectious Diseases Flashcards

(118 cards)

1
Q

Most common isolated organism for animal bites

A

Pasteurella multocida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Mx animal bite + human
Non medical
Abx (1)
Pen allergic abx (2)

A

Clean wound
Abx - co-amox or if pen allergic then doxy and metro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Abx for:
Exacerbation of chronic bronchitis
CAP (+ pen allergic)
CAP if staph suspected i.e in which condition?
Atypical pneumonia
HAP <5/7 >5/7

A

Bronchicitis Amoxi or doxy or clarithro
CAP Amoxi (Doxy or clarithro)
If staph Add fluclox i.e in influenza
Atypical Clarithro
Within 5/7 of admission coamox or cefuroxime
>5/7 taz or ceftazidime or cipro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Abx
Pyelo (2)
Prostatitis (2)

A

Cephalosporin or cipro
Cipro or trimethoprim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Impetigo abx
Top (1)
PO (2)

A

Top hydrogen peroxide
PO fluclox or erythro if widespread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Erysipelas abx (1)
Pen allergic (3)

A

Fluclox
Clarithro/ erythro/ doxy if pen allergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cellulitis if pen allergic (3)

A

Clarithro/ erythro/ doxy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cellulitis near eyes or nose
Abx (1)
Pen allergic (2)

A

Coamox
Clarithro + metro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Gingivitis acute necrotising ulcerative abx

A

Metro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Sinusitus

A

Phenoxymethylpenicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Otitis media pen allergic
Externa

A

Erythro
Fluclox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Gonorrhoea (1)
Chlamydia (2)

A

IM ceftriaxone
Doxy/azithro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

PID (2) OR (3)

A

Oflox + metro OR
IM ceftriaxone + doxy + metro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Syphillis mx
(1) OR (1) OR (1)

A

Benzathine benpen OR
Doxy OR
Erythro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

BV mx (1) or (1)
Treatment length range

A

PO or topical metro
OR
topical clinda
5-7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

C diff mx
First episode
Second or subsequent episode

A

PO vanc
PO fidaxomicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Abx mx
Campylo (1)
Salmonella (1)
Shigellosis (1)

A

Clarithro
Cipro
Cipro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

BV bacterium
pH
Description
Microscopy
Amsell’s criteria

A

Gardnerella vaginalis
Raised pH >4.5
Fishy offensive smell
Clue cells
3 out of 4 criteria should be present, clue cells, +ve Whiff’s test, thin, white discharge, pH >4.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Who is offered the BCG? (7)

A

All infants 0-12 months:
1. in areas where incidence is >40/100,000
2. parent or grandparent born in a country where incidence is >40/100,000 (and older children >6yo need a tuberculin test first)
3a unvaccinated tuberculin negative contacts of TB
3b unvaccinated, tuberculin negative, new entrants <16yo who were born in or lived for >3 months) in a country with incidence > 40/100,000
4. HCP
5. Prison staff
6. Staff of care home of the elderly
7. People who work with the homeless

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

CI to BCG (5)
Age cut off

A

Prev BCG
Positive tuberculin test
HIV
Pregnancy
PMH TB

35yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Bed bugs cause (1)
Mx (1)

A

Cimex hempteru
Topical hydrocort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Bed bugs cause (1)
Mx (1)

A

Cimex hempteru
Topical hydrocort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Middle East
Farmers, vets, abattoir workers
2 week incubation period

Fever, malaise, hepatosplenomegaly, sacroilitis, spinal tenderness, leukopenia

= which condition?
Dx screening and best test
Mx (2)

A

Brucellosis
Rose Bengal plate test
Brucella serology

Doxy or streptomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When to treat campylobacter?
Abx
OR

Complications (3)

A

Severe symptoms, fever, bloody diarrhoea, or >8stools per day OR sx >1 week
Clarithro OR cipro

Guillain Barre
Reactive arthritis
Sepsis, endocarditis, arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Bartonella henselae Gram +ve or negative Disease name
Gram negative rod Cat scratch disease
26
Eron classification of cellulitis (1-4)
I no systemic sx no co-morbidities II systemic sx or not but with co-morbidities III sig systemic sx IV sepsis or severe/life threatening
27
Cellulitis common causes (2)
Strep pyog Staph aur
28
Painful genital ulcers with unilateral painful inguinal lymph nodes Sharply defined, ragged, undermined border (ulcers) = which condition
Chancroid
29
Mx chlamydia and length (1) or (1)
Doxy (7/7) OR azithro 1g OD for 1/7 then 500mg OD for 2/7
30
Chlamydia: For men with urethral symptoms which contacts should be contacted? For women and asymptomatic men who should be contacted?
All contacts since and in the four weeks prior to the onset of sx All partners from the last six months or most recent partner Treat then test
31
Gram +ve rods (5) Gram negative cocci (2) Gram +ve cocci (2)
Actinomyces Bacillus anthracis Clostridium Diphtheria Listeria Neisseria + morzella catarrhalis Staph and strep Remaining organisms are gram negative rods
32
HIV and young children with watery diarrhoea = Dx Mx
Cryptosporidiosis Ziehl Neelsen stain - characteristic red cysts Mx supportive or nitazoxanide or rifaximin
33
intensely itchy, 'creeping' serpiginous rash = which condition? Mx (2)
Cutaneous larva migrans Mx albendazole or ivermectin
34
Recent visitors to Eastern Europe/ Russia/ Asia sore throat grey, pseudomembrane on the posterior pharyngeal wall Bulky cervical lymphadenopathy Bull neck appearancce Neuritis Heart block = Mx (2)
Diphtheria Mx IM penicillin or diphtheria antitoxin
35
Strawberry cervix, vulvovaginitis, pH >4.5, green discharge = Microscopy Mx
TV Motile trophozites PO metro 5-7 days
36
HSV 1 HSV 2 Sx (2)
1 = cold sore 2 = genital Multiple painful ulcers Primary attacks severe with fever, subsequent less severe
37
Painless ulcer (chancre) =
Syphillis primary stage
38
Small painless pustule --> ulcer --> painful inguinal lymphadenopathy --> proctocolitis = Mx
Lymphogranuloma venerum Mx doxy
39
Parapox virus Animals: Scabby lesions around the mouth and nose Humans: Hands and arms affected Small, raised, red blue papules initially then flat topped and haemorrhagic and increase in size = which condition?
Orf
40
Systemic upset Relative bradycardia Constipation Faecal oral route spread Gram negative rods Contaminated food and water = Compliactions (4)
Typhoid GI bleed Osteomyelitis Meningitis Cholecystitis
41
EBV associated conditions (3)
Lymphomas Nasopharyngeal carcinoma Hairy leukoplakia
42
Most common cause of traveller's diarrhoea
E coli
43
Food poisoning most common bacteria (3)
Staph aureus Bacillus cereus Clostridium perfringens
44
Bloody diarrhoea (3)
Shigella Campylobacter Amoebiasis
45
Prolonged non bloody diarrhoea
Giardiasis
46
Short incubation period and severe vomiting =
Staph aureus
47
Flu like prodrome followed by AP, fever, diarrhoea, bloody May mimic which condition? Complication (1)
Campylobacter Appendicitis Guillian Barre
48
Gradual onset bloody diarrhoea + AP which may last for weeks
Amoebiasis
49
Incubation period 1-6 hours (2) 12-48 hours (2) 48-72 hours (2) > 7 days (2)
Bacillus, Staph Aur E coli, Salmonella Shigella, Campylo Amoebiasis, Giardiasis
50
Genital warts caused by which HPV? Mx 1st line (2) 2nd line (1)
6&11 Topical podophyllum or cryo Imiquimod topical
51
Swimming/ drinking water from a river/ lake Foreign travel Faeco-oral route Male to male sexual contact = Mx
Giardiasis Metronidazole
52
Hep A,B,C,D,E RNA or DNA Spread of transmission Which one is self limiting, doesn't cause HCC
All but B is RNA Hep B = double stranded DNA A+E faecal oral route B&D bodily fluids Hep A (self limiting)
53
Gonorrhoea mx (1)
IM ceftriaxone 1g
54
Most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults
Gonococcal
55
Classic triad features of disseminated gonococcal infection (3)
Tenosynovitis Migratory polyarthritis Dermatitis
56
When and who is anti-HBs tested? Interpretation >100 10-100 <10
Those at risk of occupational exposure 1-4 months after primary immunisation >100 adequate response, should receive booster at 5 years 10-100 suboptimal response, one additional vaccine <10 x3 doses vaccine course as non responder
57
Which hepatitis requires another hep surface antigen to complete its replication and transmission cycle
Hep D requires hep B
57
Which hepatitis requires another hep surface antigen to complete its replication and transmission cycle
Hep D requires hep B
58
Herpes simplex mx Gingivostomatitis (2) Cold sores (1) Genital herpes (1) Mode of delivery
Aciclovir + chlorhexidine mouthwash Topical aciclovir PO aciclovir ELCS if primary attack occurs >K28
59
Features herpes simplex (3)
Cold sores Painful genital ulcers Severe gingivostomatitis
60
Most common cause of infective diarrhoea in pts with HIV Microscopy
Crytptosporidium Red cysts on Ziehl Neelsen
60
Most common cause of infective diarrhoea in pts with HIV Microscopy
Crytptosporidium Red cysts on Ziehl Neelsen
61
What is Kaposi's sarcoma caused by?
HHV-8 (human herpes virus 8)
62
What is Kaposi's sarcoma caused by?
HHV-8 (human herpes virus 8)
63
presents as purple papules or plaques on the skin or mucosa (e.g. gastrointestinal and respiratory tract) skin lesions may later ulcerate respiratory involvement may cause massive haemoptysis and pleural effusion =
Kaposi's sarcoma
64
HIV mx SE of NRTI
Start as soon as diagnosis has been made with x2 NRTI + PI/NNRTI peripheral neuropathy
65
Multiple ring or nodular enhancing lesions, SPECT negative = Mx (2)
Toxoplasmosis Sulfadiazine/ pyrimethamine
66
Single or multiple homogenous enhancing lesions, SPECT +ve = Associated with which virus? Mx
CNS lymphoma EBV Steroids
67
Most common fungal infection of CNS in HIV pt CSF High opening pressure, India ink test positive Focal neurological deficit
Cryptococcus
68
symptoms, subacute onset : behavioural changes, speech, motor, visual impairment CT: single or multiple lesions, no mass effect, don't usually enhance. MRI is better - high-signal demyelinating white matter lesions are seen
Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)
69
When should testing for HIV occur in an asymptomatic pt?
4 weeks after possible exposure then again at 12 weeks
70
HPV vaccination is offered to (2)
12 and 13 year old girls and boys (2 doses) Men who have sex with men <45yo
71
Triad of sx for EBV/ glandular fever Why should they avoid playing contact sports?
Sore throat, pyrexia, lymphadenopathy Risk of splenic rupture
72
Influenza vaccine children Route Age Type of vaccine Who needs two doses? How effective in adults?
Intranasal 2-3yo Live vaccine Children aged 2-9 who have not received an influenza vaccine before 75% effective
73
Air conditioning bacteria = Other features (6) Dx Mx
Legionella Dry cough Relative bradycardia Hyponaetraemia Derranged LFTs Pleural effusions Lymphopenia Urinary antigen Erythro/ clarithro
74
Haemolytic anaemia ITP Erythema multiforme Myocarditis = which bacteria causing pneumonia
Mycoplasma
75
Sand flies Crusted liesion at the site of bite Underlying ulcer Can spread to nose, pharynx =
Leishmaniasis
76
Infected rat urine, sewage workers, farmers, vets, returning traveller = Mx (2)
Leptospirosis Benpen or doxy
77
Spread by ticks = which condition Typical rash First line investigation Mx (2) If desseminated
Lyme disease Bulls eye rash (erythema migrans) ELISA antibodies Mx doxy/ amoxi Ceftriaxone
78
Most common cause of non falciparum malaria (and location) = Next most common and location
Vivax = Central America Ovale = Africa
79
Features of vivax/ovale versus malariae Malariae is associated with ?
Cyclical fever every 48 hours versus 72 hours Nephrotic syndrome
80
Antimalarial of choice in pregnancy
Chloroquine
81
Which anti-malarial can cause neuropsychiatric disturbance? GI upset CI in epilepsy Oesophagitis/ photosensitivity
Mefloquine Malarone Chloroquine Doxy
82
Mx meningitis in GP In hospital If <3 months or >50yo add in If caused by listeria give Meningococcal meningitis If pen allergic
IM benpen IV cefotaxime Amoxi IV amoxi IV benpen or cefotaxime Chloramphenicol
83
Prophylaxis of meningitis to close contacts =
Cipro
84
Metronidazole does what to warfarin? Avoid with
Increases anticoagulant effect ETOH
85
Live attenuated vaccines (7)
BCG MMR Influenza (intranasal) PO rotavirus PO polio Yellow fever PO typhoid
86
When to send a urine culture?
>65yo Visible or non visible haematuria
87
Nitro and trimethorpim in pregnancy
Nitro avoid near term Trimethoprim avoid in first trimester (and throughout pregnancy)
88
Active TB Mx
Rifampacin Isoniazid Pyrazinamide Ethambutal (2 months) then R + I for a further 4 months
89
Latent TB Mx
3 months of R + I OR 6 months I
90
SE x1 each Rifampacin Ison Pyraz Etham
R: orange secretions I: peripheral neuropathy, agranulocytosis P: gout E: optic neuritis
91
Disease spread by the tsetse fly Features (3) Mx
= sleeping sickness (African trypanosomiasis) Painless subcutaneous nodule at site of infection Intermittent fever Enlargement of posterior cervical lymph nodes Mx IV pentamidine or suramin
92
What is Chagas disease? Affects which which organs? Mx
American tryponasomiasis Heart and GI tract Benznidazole
93
Adverse effects of tetracyclines (4)
Discoloration of teeth (<12 years) Photosensitivity Angioedema Black hairy tongue
94
Tetanus vaccination Patient has had a full course of tetanus vacc (x5) with the last dose <10 years = Patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines, with the last dose > 10 years ago If tetanus prone wound: High risk wounds: If vaccination history is incomplete or unknown All wounds Tetanus prone and high risk
No vaccine, IG is needed Vaccine Vaccine + IG Vaccine Tetanus prone and high risk vaccine + IG
95
Syphillis features Primary (2) Secondary (3) Tertiary (3)
Chancre - painless ulcer Local non tender lymphadenopathy Systmic sx Rash on trunk, palms and soles Snail track ulcers (buccal) Warty lesions on the genitalaia Tertiary Paralysis of the insane Argyll Robertson Granulomatous lesions (gummas)
96
Congenital syphillis symptoms(4)
Hutchinson's teeth Rhagades Saddle nose Deafness
97
SE of cotrimoxazole =
High K
97
SI of cotrimoxazole =
High K
98
diarrhoea abdominal pain/bloating papulovesicular lesions where the skin has been penetrated by infective larvae e.g. soles of feet and buttocks larva currens: pruritic, linear, urticarial rash if the larvae migrate to the lungs a pneumonitis similar to Loeffler's syndrome may be triggered = Mx
strongyloides Mx ivermectin and albendazole
99
MRSA suppression =
Nose: mupirocin 2% in white soft paraffin TDS 5/7 Skin: chlorhexidine OD 5/7
99
MRSA suppression =
Nose: mupirocin 2% in white soft paraffin TDS 5/7 Skin: chlorhexidine OD 5/7
100
Complications of mumps (3)
Orchitis Hearing loss Pancreatitis
101
Features of mycoplasma pneumonia (3) Dx (2) Mx
Prolonged and gradual onset Dry cough Bilateral consolidation on CXR serology positive cold agglutination test Mx doxy or erythro or clarithro
102
Gram negative diploccoci Purulent urethral discharge =
Gonococcal
103
Unpasteurized eggs or milk + bloody diarrhoea =
Salmonella
104
Rose red rash (slapped cheek syndrome) Does not involve palms or soles Warm bath, sunlight, heat or fever will trigger recurrence of the rash = School?
Parvovirus B19 Can still go to school
105
CAP most common bacteria COPD After influenza infection ETOH Atypical
Strep pneum H. influe Staph A Klebsiella Mycoplasma
106
rapid onset high fever pleuritic chest pain herpes labialis (cold sores) =
Strep pneum
107
prodrome: headache, fever, agitation hydrophobia: water-provoking muscle spasms hypersalivation Negri bodies: cytoplasmic inclusion bodies found in infected neurons =
Rabies
108
How do you manage a dog bite in at risk countries (3)
Clean wound If immunised then give x2 further doses of vacc If not then Human rabies IG + full course of vacc locally around the wound
109
Name the pathogen Bronchiolitis Croup Common cold Flu Common cause of pneumonia in HIV pts
RSV Parainfluenza Rhinovirus Influenza Jiroveci
110
What is caused by togavirus?
Rubella
111
prodrome, e.g. low-grade fever rash: maculopapular, initially on the face before spreading to the whole body, usually fades by the 3-5 day lymphadenopathy: suboccipital and postauricular =
Rubella
112
Swimmers itch + eosinophillia, cough, diarrhoea =
Schisto = parasitic worm Acute
113
frequency haematuria bladder calcification swimmers itch Mx
= chronic schisto Mx PO praziquantel
114
Vaccinations needed with splenectomy Abx prophylaxis
Hib, men A&C Annual influenza 5 yearly pneumococcal Penicillin V