Flashcards in Handouts/Miscellaneous (Irene Gold) Deck (72):
What is the dermatonal levels that the Sciatic nerve is found?
Begins at L4- S3
What muscle does the Sciatic nerve go through?
Where is the end of the Sciatic nerve?
Just above the popliteal fossa
What two nerves does the Sciatic nerve divide into?
Common peroneal nerve
What named nerve does the common peroneal nerve become on the medial side of the leg and foot?
Deep peroneal nerve
What is the name of the nerve found on the lateral side of the leg and foot?
Superficial peroneal nerve
What is the distribution of the Tibial nerve?
Travels down the back of the leg through the tarsal tunnel, posterior to the medial malleolus
-Becomes the medial and lateral plantar nerves on the bottom of the foot
What is the initial treatment of Deep Vein Thrombophlebitis?
Referral to a vascular specialist
Elevate the legs
What are two follow up procedures to do after Anticoagulant therapy of Deep Vein Thrombophlebitis?
Graduated compression stockings
How is the Stork Orthopedic test performed?
Patient is instructed to stand on one leg and place the lumbar spine into extension.
Repeat on the other side
What does a positive Stoke test indicate?
What is indicated if there is only pain on one wrist when the Bracelet test is performed?
What condition is diagnosed if there is pain bilaterally with the Bracelet test?
When does Reyes Syndrome most commonly occur?
Giving an aspirin to a child
Recovery from a viral infection
i.e. Measles, Chicken Pox, Flu
What two conditions can Reyes Syndrome be diagnosed as?
What are the symptoms of Reyes Syndrome?
(i.e. Combativeness, Irritability, Disorientation/Confusion, Delirium, Convulsion, Loss of Consciousness)
What two things can Reyes Syndrome lead to?
Hepatomegaly (Enlarged Liver)
What is the name of the condition that is "Autoimmune demyelinating disease of the peripheral nervous system"?
Guillain Barre Syndrome
Where does Guillain Barre Syndrome start and what kind of Paralysis is it?
Starts- in the Legs
Paralysis type- Asending
What are three precursors to Guillain Barre Syndrome?
Following the flu
Is Guillain Barre Syndrome self resolving?
What percentage of people with Guillain Barre Syndrome have permanent muscle weakness or fatigue?
Guillain Barre Syndrome becomes life threatening when what muscle is involved?
What condition has the characteristics of:
Clicking of the jaw
Change in bite
Temporomandibular Joint (TMJ) Headache
What two things can provoke Temporomandibular Joint (TMJ) headaches?
Grinding teeth at night
What are three treatments for Temporomandibular Joint (TMJ) headaches?
Refer to a dentist
Adjust the jaw
Tension relaxation techniques
What is the cause of Rheumatic Fever?
Beta hemolytic Streptococcal Infection
What lab is ordered to diagnosis Rheumatic Fever
What is damaged in a patient with Rheumatic Fever?
Endocardium (Lining of the heart)
What heart valve is effected in Rheumatic Fever
Mitral Valve Stenosis
What is a patient with Rheumatic Fever predisposed to?
Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis (SBE), caused by Alpha hemolytic Streptococcal infection
How does a primary heart block show up on a electrocardiogram (EKG)?
Increased PR interval; Prolonged Atrioventricular (AV) block
On an electrocardiogram (EKG), what does it mean when there are two P waves before the QRS complex?
Weinkbochs- block at the bundle of HIS
(Secondary Heart Block)
What will be missing on the electrocardiogram (EKG), if there is complete heart block (no ventricular contraction)?
If the ST segment of a electrocardiogram (EKG) is enlarged or inverted, what does that indicate?
Myocardial Infarction (MI)
(Acute Heart Failure)
In what condition will you see no P wave on a electrocardiogram (EKG)?
An absent Q wave on a electrocardiogram (EKG) indicates what?
Myocardial Infarction (MI)
Where would you find a Type I (1) Salter Harris fracture?
Transverse Fracture through the growth plate/phsis
(6% of the time)
What Type of Salter Harris fracture goes through the growth plate and metaphysis but spares the epiphysis?
Type II (2) (Salter Harris)
What percentage of fractures are Type II (2) Salter Harris fractures?
How long does it take a Salter Harris Type II (2) fracture to heal?
What is a Type III (3) Salter Harris fracture?
Fracture through the Growth Plate and Epiphysis, sparing the metaphsis
What is the incidence of a Salter Harris Type III (3) fracture?
What Type of Salter Harris fracture goes through all three areas, (Growth plate, Metaphysis, Epiphysis)?
Slater Harris Type IV (4)
What is the incidence of a Salter Harris Type IV (4) fracture?
What Type of Salter Harris fracture is seen in 1% of the population?
Type V (5)
What Type of Salter Harris fracture is described as: "Compression Fracture of the growth plate, resulting in a decrease in the perceived space between the epiphysis and diaphysis on x-ray"?
Salter Harris Type V (5) fracture
What condition does heat make it better and cold makes it worse?
What is the treatment for Fibromyalgia?
Conservative Chiropractic care
How is Fibromyalgia diagnosed?
Pain at 11 of 18 tender points on digital palpation
What condition is "Chronic muscle pain in muscle and soft tissue surrounding joint, often seen with depression"?
What are the four views taken for a wrist radiograph?
What is the most commonly fractured carpal?
What is it called if the Scaphoid dislocates?
Signet Ring or Terry Thomas Sign
What is the clinical name for Avascular Necrosis (AVN) of the Scaphoid?
What carpal is dislocated to give the "Pie Sign"?
What is the clinical term for Avascular Necrosis (AVN) of the Lunate?
What are the four characteristics of all Benign Bone Tumors (BBT)?
Short Zone of Transition
What are the 5 D's and the 3 N's for a stroke patient?
Diplopia (Double Vision)
Dysarthria (Difficulty with speech)
Dysphagia (Difficulty Swallowing)
What five things are you Listening for in a patient that may be drunk?
Lack of context in speech
Inappropriate reactions to situations
What is another name for the Supraspinatus Press test?
Empty Can test
How is the Supraspinatus Press test performed?
Patient is seated, patient abducts their arms to 90 degrees with elbows flexed at 90 degrees. Patient resist downward pressure on both arms.
Patient is then instructed to medially rotate the shoulder and point the thumbs downward.
If patient is unable to resist downward pressure from the doctor during the Empty Can test, what condition is indicated?
Tear of the Supraspinatus muscle
How is Speed's Test carried out?
Patient is directed to flex the arm while doctor offers resistance on the forearm.
Patient further resist forearm into supination and extension
What does a positive Speed's Test indicate?
If Speed's Test is positive where will there be increased tenderness?
In the bicipital groove
What is the name of the condition and nerve involved in wrist issues?
Drop wrist/ Radial nerve
Claw hand/Ulnar nerve
Median nerve/ Ape hand
What type of lesion is EVERY peripheral nerve lesion?
Lower Motor Neuron Lesion (LMNL)
What are two terms that are associated with and Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)?
Fusiform means Ballooning Out
What two "terms" should be associated with Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?
Baker's Cyst (Located in the Popliteal Fossa)
What is a term that is often associated with Facet?