Handouts/Miscellaneous (Irene Gold) Flashcards Preview

Boards Part II and III (Irene Gold) > Handouts/Miscellaneous (Irene Gold) > Flashcards

Flashcards in Handouts/Miscellaneous (Irene Gold) Deck (72):
1

What is the dermatonal levels that the Sciatic nerve is found?

Begins at L4- S3

2

What muscle does the Sciatic nerve go through?

Piriformis

3

Where is the end of the Sciatic nerve?

Just above the popliteal fossa

4

What two nerves does the Sciatic nerve divide into?

Common peroneal nerve
Tibial nerve

5

What named nerve does the common peroneal nerve become on the medial side of the leg and foot?

Deep peroneal nerve

6

What is the name of the nerve found on the lateral side of the leg and foot?

Superficial peroneal nerve

7

What is the distribution of the Tibial nerve?

Travels down the back of the leg through the tarsal tunnel, posterior to the medial malleolus
-Becomes the medial and lateral plantar nerves on the bottom of the foot

8

What is the initial treatment of Deep Vein Thrombophlebitis?

Referral to a vascular specialist
Anticoagulant therapy
Elevate the legs

9

What are two follow up procedures to do after Anticoagulant therapy of Deep Vein Thrombophlebitis?

Venous stripping
Graduated compression stockings

10

How is the Stork Orthopedic test performed?

Patient is instructed to stand on one leg and place the lumbar spine into extension.
Repeat on the other side

11

What does a positive Stoke test indicate?

Spondylolytic Spondylolisthesis

12

What is indicated if there is only pain on one wrist when the Bracelet test is performed?

Wrist injury

13

What condition is diagnosed if there is pain bilaterally with the Bracelet test?

Rheumatoid Arthritis

14

When does Reyes Syndrome most commonly occur?

Giving an aspirin to a child
Recovery from a viral infection
i.e. Measles, Chicken Pox, Flu

15

What two conditions can Reyes Syndrome be diagnosed as?

Encephalitis
Meningitis

16

What are the symptoms of Reyes Syndrome?

Persistent/Recurrent vomiting
Personality Changes
(i.e. Combativeness, Irritability, Disorientation/Confusion, Delirium, Convulsion, Loss of Consciousness)

17

What two things can Reyes Syndrome lead to?

Hepatomegaly (Enlarged Liver)
Brain Damage

18

What is the name of the condition that is "Autoimmune demyelinating disease of the peripheral nervous system"?

Guillain Barre Syndrome

19

Where does Guillain Barre Syndrome start and what kind of Paralysis is it?

Starts- in the Legs
Paralysis type- Asending

20

What are three precursors to Guillain Barre Syndrome?

Immunizations
Viral infection
Following the flu

21

Is Guillain Barre Syndrome self resolving?

Yes

22

What percentage of people with Guillain Barre Syndrome have permanent muscle weakness or fatigue?

20%

23

Guillain Barre Syndrome becomes life threatening when what muscle is involved?

Diaphragm

24

What condition has the characteristics of:
Clicking of the jaw
Jaw locking
Change in bite
Ear problems/pain
Hearing loss

Temporomandibular Joint (TMJ) Headache

25

What two things can provoke Temporomandibular Joint (TMJ) headaches?

Dental work
Grinding teeth at night

26

What are three treatments for Temporomandibular Joint (TMJ) headaches?

Refer to a dentist
Adjust the jaw
Tension relaxation techniques

27

What is the cause of Rheumatic Fever?

Beta hemolytic Streptococcal Infection

28

What lab is ordered to diagnosis Rheumatic Fever

ASO-Titre

29

What is damaged in a patient with Rheumatic Fever?

Endocardium (Lining of the heart)

30

What heart valve is effected in Rheumatic Fever

Mitral Valve Stenosis

31

What is a patient with Rheumatic Fever predisposed to?

Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis (SBE), caused by Alpha hemolytic Streptococcal infection

32

How does a primary heart block show up on a electrocardiogram (EKG)?

Increased PR interval; Prolonged Atrioventricular (AV) block

33

On an electrocardiogram (EKG), what does it mean when there are two P waves before the QRS complex?

Weinkbochs- block at the bundle of HIS
(Secondary Heart Block)

34

What will be missing on the electrocardiogram (EKG), if there is complete heart block (no ventricular contraction)?

QRS complex

35

If the ST segment of a electrocardiogram (EKG) is enlarged or inverted, what does that indicate?

Myocardial Infarction (MI)
(Acute Heart Failure)

36

In what condition will you see no P wave on a electrocardiogram (EKG)?

Atrial Fibrillation

37

An absent Q wave on a electrocardiogram (EKG) indicates what?

Myocardial Infarction (MI)

38

Where would you find a Type I (1) Salter Harris fracture?

Transverse Fracture through the growth plate/phsis
(6% of the time)

39

What Type of Salter Harris fracture goes through the growth plate and metaphysis but spares the epiphysis?

Type II (2) (Salter Harris)

40

What percentage of fractures are Type II (2) Salter Harris fractures?

75%

41

How long does it take a Salter Harris Type II (2) fracture to heal?

2-3 weeks

42

What is a Type III (3) Salter Harris fracture?

Fracture through the Growth Plate and Epiphysis, sparing the metaphsis

43

What is the incidence of a Salter Harris Type III (3) fracture?

8%

44

What Type of Salter Harris fracture goes through all three areas, (Growth plate, Metaphysis, Epiphysis)?

Slater Harris Type IV (4)

45

What is the incidence of a Salter Harris Type IV (4) fracture?

10%

46

What Type of Salter Harris fracture is seen in 1% of the population?

Type V (5)

47

What Type of Salter Harris fracture is described as: "Compression Fracture of the growth plate, resulting in a decrease in the perceived space between the epiphysis and diaphysis on x-ray"?

Salter Harris Type V (5) fracture

48

What condition does heat make it better and cold makes it worse?

Fibromyalgia

49

What is the treatment for Fibromyalgia?

Conservative Chiropractic care
Aerobic Activities

50

How is Fibromyalgia diagnosed?

Pain at 11 of 18 tender points on digital palpation

51

What condition is "Chronic muscle pain in muscle and soft tissue surrounding joint, often seen with depression"?

Fibromyalgia

52

What are the four views taken for a wrist radiograph?

P-A
Lateral
Ulnar deviation
Medial Oblique

53

What is the most commonly fractured carpal?

Scaphoid

54

What is it called if the Scaphoid dislocates?

Signet Ring or Terry Thomas Sign

55

What is the clinical name for Avascular Necrosis (AVN) of the Scaphoid?

Preisser's

56

What carpal is dislocated to give the "Pie Sign"?

Lunate

57

What is the clinical term for Avascular Necrosis (AVN) of the Lunate?

Keinbock's

58

What are the four characteristics of all Benign Bone Tumors (BBT)?

Short Zone of Transition
Incidental Finding
Geographic Lesion
Encapsulated

59

What are the 5 D's and the 3 N's for a stroke patient?

5 D's
Dizziness
Drop Attack
Diplopia (Double Vision)
Dysarthria (Difficulty with speech)
Dysphagia (Difficulty Swallowing)

3 N's
Nausea
Numbness
Nystagmus

60

What five things are you Listening for in a patient that may be drunk?

Slurred speech
Giddiness
Voice Change
Lack of context in speech
Inappropriate reactions to situations

61

What is another name for the Supraspinatus Press test?

Empty Can test

62

How is the Supraspinatus Press test performed?

Patient is seated, patient abducts their arms to 90 degrees with elbows flexed at 90 degrees. Patient resist downward pressure on both arms.

Patient is then instructed to medially rotate the shoulder and point the thumbs downward.

63

If patient is unable to resist downward pressure from the doctor during the Empty Can test, what condition is indicated?

Tear of the Supraspinatus muscle

64

How is Speed's Test carried out?

Patient is directed to flex the arm while doctor offers resistance on the forearm.

Patient further resist forearm into supination and extension

65

What does a positive Speed's Test indicate?

Bicipital Tendinitis

66

If Speed's Test is positive where will there be increased tenderness?

In the bicipital groove

67

What is the name of the condition and nerve involved in wrist issues?

DR CUMA
Drop wrist/ Radial nerve
Claw hand/Ulnar nerve
Median nerve/ Ape hand

68

What type of lesion is EVERY peripheral nerve lesion?

Lower Motor Neuron Lesion (LMNL)

69

What are two terms that are associated with and Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm (AAA)?

Fusiform means Ballooning Out

70

What two "terms" should be associated with Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?

Baker's Cyst (Located in the Popliteal Fossa)
Inflammatory

71

What is a term that is often associated with Facet?

Meniscoid Enlargement

72

What exercises should a patient with the following issues do:

Disc

Facet

Disc: McKenzies Extension Exercises

Facet: Williams Flexion Exercises