Principles (Part II) (Irene Gold) Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Principles (Part II) (Irene Gold) Deck (348):
1

Who is the Discoverer/Founder of Chiropractic?

Daniel David (DD) Palmer

2

What year was Chiropractic founded in?

1985

3

What are the "Short Levers" used by DD Palmer?

Spinous Processes
Transverse Process

4

What is the foundation that Chiropractic is Based upon?

Tone (Nerves to tense or too slack)

5

What does the Nerve Compression Theory state?

Causes of Subluxations are one of the following:
Psychic (Thoughts)
Mechanical (Trauma)
Chemical (Toxins)

6

What phrase did DD Palmer coin?

Innate from Christianity

7

Where did DD Palmer learn Chiropractic from?

Eastern European Bone Setters

8

What is Chiropractic philosophy based on?

Principle of Structure (Spinal Column) to Function (Nervous System for healing)

9

What is a term that is similar to Innate?

Homeostasis (Self Regulating and Self Healing)

10

What term is defined as "Suggest that the body requires something greater than physical and chemical processes to function"?

Vitalism

11

Who is the Developer of Chiropractic?

Bartlett Joshua (BJ) Palmer

12

What three things did BJ Palmer introduce to the profession?

Neurocalometer (hand held instrument to detect heat imbalances)

Meric Chart of Nerve Tracing

Hold In One (HIO) Technique

13

At what vertebral complex does the Hole In One (HIO) Technique apply?

C1/C2; were thought to be the only place a subluxation would occur, producing significant problems. Cord Compression Theory

14

Who thought that "Subluxations are from abnormal Biomechanics caused by an imbalance in a weight bearing spine"?

Carver

15

What did Carver think that all distortion of the spine started?

Pelvis

16

What technique is Cox credited with developing?

Flexion/Distraction

17

What five conditions can Flexion/Distraction technique help with?

Lumbar disc protrusion
Spondylolisthesis
Facet Syndrome
Subluxation
Scoliosis Curves

18

Who developed the Sacro-Occipital Technique (S.O.T)

DeJarnette

19

What is the "definition" of the Sacro-Occipital Technique (S.O.T)

Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) flow through the pumping action of the sacrum and the cranial Dura mater

20

Who is paired with "Fixation theory of joint Hypomobility"?

Gillet/Faye

21

What technique/person believed that "Subluxations are all posterior with disc wedging"?

Gonstead

22

What technique is; upper cervical specific and deal with the dentate ligament?

Grostic

23

Who is the Father of Homeopathy?

Hahnemann

24

Who is the Father of Modern Medicine and was the first to manipulate?

Hippocrates

25

What four things did Illi determine?

Joint Hypermobility
Sacroiliac (SI) joint movement
Pelvic dynamics
Discovered and tested Sacroiliac (SI) ligaments

26

What is credited with the "3 Phase model of Instability"?

Kirkaldy-Willis

27

What are the three Phases of Instability?

Dysfunction
Unstable
Stabilization; breaking up spinal adhesions on and injured segment

28

Who is associated with the Segmental Facilitation Theory?

Korr

29

What is the center of Korr's Segmental Facilitation Theory?

Muscle

30

What Theory is described as the following "Subluxation creating a hyperactive nervous system rather than a decease in nerve impulses"?

Segmental Facilitation Theory, Korr

31

Who is the first to use heel lifts, and "sacrum is the keystone to the spine"?

Logan, Founded Logan Basic Technique

32

Who are the two "World Renowned scientist in the field of Biomechanics of the spine"?

Panjabi
White

33

What is the General Adaptation Syndrome?

Under optimum conditions the body can respond to stressors

34

Who came up with the General Adaptation Syndrome?

Selye

35

What three things did Stephenson come up with?

Wrote Chiropractic Textbook
Identified 33 Principles of Chiropractic
"Safety Pin" Cycle

36

Who is the Founder of Osteopathy?

Andrew Taylor Still

37

Who "related the integrity of the spine and skeleton to the proper function of the circulatory system"?

Andrew Taylor Still

38

Who named the profession of Chiropractic?

Samuel Weed

39

What are the four parts of the Core Chiropractic Paradigm?

1. The Body is Self Regulating and Self Healing
2. Nervous System is the master system, regulates everything and connects person to their environment
3. Spinal biomechanics can cause subluxations and affect the body's nervous system and body function
4. Chiropractor; correct, manage and minimize vertebral subluxation through adjusting

40

What are the five components of a Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC)?

Neuropathophysiology
Kinesiopathophysiology
Myopathoology
Histopathology
Pathophysiology (Biochemical)

41

Who came up with the Five components of the Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC)?

Faye

42

What are three parts of the Neuropathophysiology of the Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC)?

Irritation (Sustained Hyperactivity)

Compression or Mechanical Insult (Pressure, Stretching, Angulation, Distortion)

Decreased Axoplasmic Transport

43

What does Irritation of the Neuropathophysiology of the Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC) result in?

Facilitation

44

Irritation of the Anterior Horn cell exhibits what response?

Hypertonicity or muscle spasm

*Acute Facilitated*

45

What is exhibited when the Lateral Horn Cells are Irritated?

Vasomotor Changes

i.e.: Hypersympatheticotonic Vasoconstriction

*Acute Facilitated*

46

What Horn is Irritated when Sensory Changes are exhibited?

Posterior Horn Cells

*Acute Facilitated*

47

What does Compression in the Intervertebral Foramen (IVF) result in?

Degeneration, which leads to:
Muscle atrophy (Anterior Horn)
Anesthesia (Posterior Horn)
Sympathetic Atonia (Lateral Horn)

*Chronic Inhibited*

48

What "Alters development, growth, and maintenance of cells or structures that are dependent on this trophic (Growth) influence expressed via the nerves"?

Decreased Axoplasmic Transport

49

What three phases can describe Kinesiopathophysiology?

Hypomobility
Diminished/Absent Joint Play
Segmental hypermobility due to compensation

50

What is Lack of Appropriate Joint Motion associated with in Kinesiopathophysiology?

Nociceptive and Mechnoreceptive reflex functions that include Proprioception

51

What do Early manifestations of Vertebral Subluxation lead to? (Kinesiopathophysiology)

Chronic Vertebral articulations
Shortening of Ligaments-->Limited Range of Motion (ROM)

52

What is the Cornerstone Model of Chiropractic because it's the goal of adjusting to restore motion?

Kinesiopathophysiology

53

What component of the Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC), may include spasm or Hypertonicity of muscles as a result of compression/facilitation?

Myopathoology

54

What is Hilton's Law? (Myopathoology)

A nerve supplying a joint also supplies the muscles which move the joint and skin covering the articular intersection of those muscles

55

What is an Acute Condition of Myopathoology?

Spasm

56

What is a Chronic Condition of Myopathoology?

Atrophy

57

What are the four component of Histopathology of the Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC) relate to?

Inflammation
Pain
Heat
Swelling

58

How can the four components of Histopathology happen/become a result?

Trauma
Hypermobility Irritation
Repair Process

59

What are the five signs of Inflammation seen in Histopathology?

Redness (Rubor)
Heat (Calor)
Swelling (Tumor)
Pain (Dolor)
Loss of Function (Functio Laesa)

60

What component of the Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC) is described as "Hormonal and chemical effect or imbalances related to the pre-inflammatory stress syndrome"?

Pathophysiology (Biochemical)

61

What three things are produced in the Pathophysiology (Biochemical) of the Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC)?

Histamines
Prostaglandins
Bradykinins

62

What are two areas you will see the Pathophysiology (Biochemical) of the Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC)?

Stress Syndrome
Pro-Inflammatory

63

What is the end result of the Vertebral Subluxation Complex (VSC)?

Dis-Ease

64

What are the four Neurological Reflex Models?

Somatosomatic
Viscerovisceral
Somatovisceral
Viscersomatic

65

What must all reflex arcs involve?

Spinal Cord

66

What is a Reflex Arc?

Where the sensory meets the Motor

67

What Neurological Reflex Model is described as "Stimulus at one level of the musculoskeletal system produces reflex activity in the nervous system, which is then exhibited elsewhere in the musculoskeletal system"?

Somatosomatic

68

What is an example of the Somatosomatic Reflex?

Knee-Jerk reflex

69

What Reflex Model is "Afferent and Efferent are visceral sensory and autonomic nerve fibers"?

Viscerovisceral

70

What is a Somatovisceral reflex?

Afferents= Somatic Sensory Fibers
Efferents= Autonomic Fibers

71

What reflex is described as "Stimulus to nerves or receptors related to spinal structures produces reflexive responds to influencing function in the visceral organs"?

Somatovisceral

72

What is an example of Somatovisceral Reflex Arc?

Relieving pain and distress of primary dysmenorrhea via adjustments

73

What is a Viscerosomatic reflex?

Afferents= Visceral Sensory Fibers
Efferents= Somatic Motor Fibers

**Opposite of Somatovisceral Reflex**

74

What four things does the term "Somatic" refer to?

Skin
Bone
Muscle
Nerve

75

What is another term for Visceral?

Autonomic

76

What three things are related to Visceral (Autonomic)?

Organs
Lymph
Blood

77

What is the term defined as "Thinking about something"?

Psycho

78

Where does the "GATE" control theory of pain start?

Substantia Gelatinous (Lamina II of the Grey Mater)

79

What determines the degree of which the "Gate" is opened or closed?

Spinal Cord

80

Signals travelling on what fibers greatly depress pain transmission?

Type 1A (A Alpha), Fast, Afferent

81

What fibers does Pain travel on?

Type C (IV) Fibers

82

Where do pain fibers terminate?

Dorsal Horn of the Spinal Cord in the Substantia Gelatinosa

83

In the "Gate" Theory, when second order mechanoreceptor axon terminate what is caused?

Presynaptic inhibition

84

What do the subclavian arteries become?

Vertebral Arteries, then join to become the basilar arteries

85

What does the majority of the blood from the Vertebral Arteries supply?

Cranium
Brain Stem

86

What are the nine symptoms that may be included with Vascular Insufficiency Models?

5 D's, 3 N's and an A

Diplopia (Double Vision, other visual disturbance)
Dizziness (Vertigo, Light Headedness)
Drop Attacks (Loss of Consciousness)
Dysarthria
Dysphagia

Nausea (Vomiting)
Numbness (On one side of the body or face)
Nystagmus

Ataxia of Gait

87

Where is the most common location for compression of the vertebral artery?

Over the posterior arch of C1

88

What movements cause the most compression of the Vertebral Artery?

Rotation and Extension of C1/C2

89

What is the area of importance in the Nerve Compression Theory?

Intervertebral Foramen (IVF)

90

What hypothesis "States that intervertebral subluxations may interfere with the normal transmission of nerve energy by irritating or compressing spinal nerve roots"?

Nerve Compression theory

91

What are the six anatomical components that can be found in the Intervertebral Foramen (IVF)?

Spinal Nerve
Nerve Root
Recurrent Meningeal Nerve
Blood Vessels
Lymphatics
Connective Tissue

92

What effects will be seen when a bone is on a nerve?

Decreased sensation
Pain in dermatome patterns
Decreased Deep Tendon Reflexes (DTR)
Decreased nerve conduction
Muscle Atrophy

93

Why are Nerve Roots more mechanically predispose to irritation or compression than peripheral nerves?

Nerve Roots are placed in tension by traction of peripheral nerves, with head and neck movements

94

What are Nerve Roots (Endoneurium) lacking?

Strong Connective Tissue Sheaths that support Peripheral nerves (Epineurium and Perineurium)

95

Under what kind of strength will a Nerve Root fail before a Peripheral Nerve?

Tension

96

What is the term for Chemicals transported along Axoplasmic Transport?

Trophic

97

What is the slower kind of flow called?

Axoplasmic Transport (Retrograde)

98

What are four things to know about Antegrade Transport?

Forward Moving-- Cell Body to Terminal
Nerve Growth (Tropic)
Faster
More Common

99

What are four things to know about Axoplasmic Flow?

Backwards Moving
Bring products/waste to the cell body
Slower
Less Common

100

What will the alteration of Axoplasmic Flow lead to?

Aberrations of:
Structures
Function
Metabolism

**Leading to Disease or Dysfunction**

101

What are the four things that can cause Cord Compression (Compressive Myelopathy)?

Destruction of the Spinal Cord Tissue by:
Neoplasms
Hematomas
Congenital Defects
Extreme Trauma

102

What Hypothesis was used by BJ Palmer to describe the Hole In One (HIO) Technique?

Cord Compression

103

What vertebral level did BJ Palmer think would affect any and all functions of the body?

C1/C2

104

What are six other names for the Facilitation Hypothesis?

Fixation Theory
Segmental Facilitation
Segmental Hypothesis
Gamma Motor Gain
Proprioceptive Insult
Sympatheticotonia

105

What hypothesis is described as "A lowered threshold for firing in a spinal cord segment, as a result of afferent bombardment associated with spinal lesions"?

Fixation Theory

106

Who developed the first model to describe the neurological effects of segmental dysfunction?

Korr

107

How did Korr's model describe segmental dysfunction?

Sustained hyperactivity of a segment caused by a muscle spindle of activity

108

What are the neurological implications of Korr's Fixation Theory?

Segmental Dysfunction causes pathological somatic and visceral processes

109

Korr stated that a vertebra "stuck" in a normal or abnormal position but has normal Range of Motion is do to what?

Muscle spasm, producing Hypomobility and nociception (Pain)

110

What is the definition of Proprioceptive Insult?

Constant bombardment of nociception, lowering the threshold

111

What is another name for Neurodystrophic Hypothesis?

Neuroimmunomodulation

112

What theory is described as "Spinal biomechanical insult to nerves may affect intra-neural Axoplasmic transport mechanisms and, in turn, affect the quality of neurotropic influence and molecular (chemical) changes in the cell?

Neurodystrophic Hypothesis

113

In what theory did DD Palmer state that "Lowered tissue resistance is the cause of disease"?

Neuroimmunomodulation

114

Who stated that exposure to stress can cause "diseases of adaptation"?

Selye

115

What are the four stages of Adaptation?

Alarm
Resist
Adapt
Exhaust

116

What is the name of the mechanism that coordinates the response to stress?

Neuroendocrine

117

What is the name of the ligament that holds the dens in the fovea dentalis of atlas? (The indent on the posterior side of the anterior tubercle)

Transverse Ligament

118

What ligament goes from occiput to C2, includes the transverse ligament as the horizontal position and is Cross Shaped?

Cruciate Ligament

119

What ligament limits rotation of C2?

Alar Ligament

120

What is another name for the Alar Ligament?

Check Ligament

121

Where is the Alar ligament attached?

Sides of the dens to the occipital condyles

122

What motion is limited by the Apical Dental Ligament?

Limits flexion/extension of C2

123

Where is the attachment sites of the Apical Dental Ligament?

Apex of the dens to the anterior aspect of the foramen

124

What is the name Ligaments that connects the Pia to the Dura along the spinal cord?

Dentate Ligament (21 total ligaments)

125

What ligament limits Extension?

Anterior Longitudinal Ligament

126

Where is the Anterior Longitudinal Ligament located?

Front of the vertebral bodies from Sacrum to C2

127

What is the Tectorial Membrane?

Continuation of the Posterior Longitudinal Ligament from C2 to the Occiput

128

Where is the Posterior Longitudinal Ligament the Widest, Thinner and Thinnest?

Widest- Cervicals
Thin- Lumbar
Thinnest- L5

129

What is the most important posterior ligament in limiting flexion?

Ligamentum Flavum

130

What is the name of the Ligament that is a continuation of the Anterior Longitudinal Ligament from Atlas to Occiput?

Anterior Atlanto-Occipital Ligament

131

What Ligament limits flexion?

Posterior Longitudinal Ligament

132

Where is the Posterior Longitudinal Ligament located?

Back of the Vertebral Bodies (Anterior Portion of the Canal)

133

Where is the Ligamentum Flavum Located?

Lamina to Lamina (Posterior portion of the canal)

134

What Ligament has a high elastic content and is "yellow" in color?

Ligamentum Flavum

135

What is the name of the Ligamentum Flavum as it continues for C2 to C1?

Posterior Atlanto-Axial Ligament

136

What is the name of the Ligament given to the continuation of the Ligamentum Flavum from C1 to the Occiput?

Posterior Atlanto-Occipital Ligament

137

Where can the Capsular Ligament be found?

Between Articular Processes

138

Where is the Supraspinous Ligament found?

From Spinous Process to Spinous Process

139

What is the name of the ligament between transverse processes?

Intertransverse Ligament

140

What is the name of the Ligament between Spinous Processes?

Interspinous Ligament

141

What is the name of the Ligament that is a continuation of the Supraspinous Ligament from C7 to the Occiput?

Ligamentum Nuchae (Nuchal Ligament)

142

At what levels is the Intervertebral Disc found?

Between the bodies of C2/C3 to the Lumbosacral Junction

143

What are the two basic components of the Intervertebral Disc?

Central- Gelatinous Nucleus Pulposus

Peripheral- Fibrocartilaginous Annular Fibrosus

144

What part of the disc allows for "limited torsion and limited rotation of the vertebra"?

Annulus Fibrosus

145

What is one function of the Annulus Fibrosus?

Allows the disc to adapt to stress

146

What is the blood supply that innervates the outer portion of the Annulus Fibrosis?

Sinuvertebral Nerves

147

What causes disc herniation, during the aging process?

Water content gradually decreases

148

Why are thoracic disc herniations rare?

Disc is very thick in this part of the spine

149

What is the positions that will increase pressure of the disc?

Recumbent
Standing
Sitting
Sitting Leaning Forward
Jumping

150

Where is the weakest part of the disc?

Posterolateral Aspect (narrowing of the Posterior Longitudinal Ligament)

151

What will cause a fracture to the endplate but not a herniation?

Compressive Loads to the disc

152

How is the disc provided nutrients?

Imbibition (Motion)

153

What is the name given to "the connective tissue coverings arranged in thee distinct layers that cover and protect the spinal cord from excessive movement and damage"?

Meninges

154

What is the most external layer of the meninges?

Dura Mater

155

What layer of the meninges is the thickest and toughest?

Dura Mater

156

Where is the Dura Mater located?

Continuous for the cranial cavity to the Sacrum

157

What two thing does the Dura Mater cover?

Individual nerve roots
Nerves as they exit the spinal canal

158

The sleeves of the Dura Mater follow what?

Nerves to the Intervertebral Foramen (IVF)
Surround a Swelling, which is the Dorsal Root Ganglion

159

What part of the Meninges is delicate and avascular?

Arachnoid Mater

160

What part of the Meninges is attached to the inner surface of the Dura?

Arachnoid Mater

161

What word is described for the projections from the Arachnoid to the Pia Mater?

Web-like

162

What is the name of the meninges that is a singular layer of connective tissue that adheres directly to the surface of the neural tissue, including individual cranial nerves and spinal rootlets?

Pia Mater

163

Where is the primary location of the Dentate Ligaments?

Thoracic Region

164

What side of the spinal cord do the Dentate Ligament project from and where do they attach?

Project- Lateral surface

Attach- Penetrate the Arachnoid Mater and anchor to the Dura Mater

165

What Theory does the Dentate Ligament go with?

"Dural Torque Theory"

Rotational stresses, meningeal torsion

166

In what movement will the Intervertebral Foramen (IVF) open and close?

Open-Flexion

Close-Extension

167

What are the boundaries of the Intervertebral Foramen (IVF)?

Anterior: Bodies (Cervical and Uncinates)
Intervertebral Disc (IVD)

Superior: Pedicle
Inferior: Pedicle

Posterior: Zygopophyseal Joints (Facet Joints)

168

What are the anatomical contents of the Intervertebral Foramen (IVF)? (Six things)

Spinal nerve
Nerve root
Recurrent Meningeal nerves
Blood Vessels
Lymphatics
Connective Tissue

169

What is the order of compression in an Intervertebral Foramen (IVF)?

Adipose Tissue
Veins
Artery
Nerve

170

What is located inside the Intervertebral Foramen (IVF)?

Dorsal Root Ganglion (DRG)

171

What type of pressure is a Dorsal Root Ganglion (DRG) most sensitive to?

Compression

172

What is most effected by a subluxation?

Dorsal Root Ganglion (DRG)

173

What is another name for a Cell body?

Soma

174

What part of the neuron structure extends from the soma an receives signal information from the local environment?

Dendrite

175

What term is "Signals which travel as action potentials are generated here"?

Axon

176

What is an Action Potential?

Summation of signals received from dendrites, which can be stimulatory or inhibitory . When it reaches the end of an axon it causes the release of a neurotransmitter

177

What two factors are action potentials based on?

Diameter of the nerve
Degree of myelination

178

What is the name of the cell that produces myelin in the Central Nervous System (CNS)?

Oligodendrocytes

179

What condition has demyelinization of the Central Nervous System (CNS)?

Multiple Sclerosis (MS)

180

What is the name of the cell that produces myelin in the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) (Insulates Nerve Fibers)

Schwann Cells

P.S- I Love you Schwann)

181

What condition has demyelinization of the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS)?

Guillain-Barre

182

Where are cell bodies located?

Dorsal Root Ganglion (DRG)

183

What two processes does each Dorsal Root Ganglion (DRG) contain?

Peripheral Process- extends to the periphery along he path taken by the spinal nerve and it's branches

Central Process- extends into the Central Nervous System (CNS), as the dorsal root of the spinal nerve

184

What two "senses" does a Mechanoreceptor determine?

Touch
Hearing

185

What "sense" does a Thermoreceptor determine?

Temperature

186

What "sense" does a Nocioceptor determine?

Pain

187

What cell helps with determining Vision?

Electromagnetic

188

What two "senses" does a Chemoreceptor determine?

Smell
Taste

189

What type of Somatic Motor Neuron, innervate and active skeletal muscle fibers through the Myoneural Junction?

Alpha Motor Neurons

190

What are two characteristics of an Alpha Motor Neuron?

Large Diameter
Fast Conducting

191

What neurotransmitter is released by Alpha Motor Neurons?

Acetylcholine

192

What are two functions of Gamma Motor Neurons? (Somatic Motor Neuron)

Innervates muscle spindles
Establishes a set point for muscle tone

193

What are four characteristics of A Alpha nerves?

Heavily Myelinated
Fastest
Largest
Most Sensitive

194

What are the six nerve fibers that are Peripheral Nerve Fibers?

A Alpha
A Beta
A Gamma
A Delta
B
C

195

What are three characteristics of C Fibers?

Un-Myelinated pain fibers
Small Diameter
Slow Conductivity

196

What is the Primary Neurotransmitter of C Fibers?

Substance P

197

What types of Sensory Only nerve fiber goes to the Muscle Spindle?

1A (Sensory Fiber)
A Alpha (Peripheral Nerve)

198

What type of Sensory Only nerve fiber is associated with Golgi Tendon Organs?

1B (Sensory Fiber)

199

What Type of nerve fibers is linked to "Muscle Spindle detects stretch/velocity"?

1A Motor (Contraction of Muscle) (Sensory Fiber)
A Alpha (Peripheral Nerve)

200

What Nerve fiber is linked with "Muscle Spindle effect, muscle tone"?

A Gamma Motor Neuron (Peripheral Nerve)

201

What nerve fiber is Preganglionic Autonomic Effect and White Rami Communicantes?

B (Peripheral Nerve)

202

What nerves are Fast Pain (Pressure Pain)?

A Delta (Peripheral Nerve)
III (Sensory Fiber)

203

What two nerves are with the following:
Slow Pain
Temperature Afferent
Postganglionic Autonomic Efferent
Gray Rami Communicantes

C (Peripheral Nerve)
IV (Sensory Fiber)

204

What two nerves are with the following:
-Touch Pressure Receptor Afferents
-Golgi Tendon Organs (GTO) detects tension on joint/tendon

Sensory:
Joint position sense
Vibration sense
Two Point discrimination

A Beta (Peripheral Nerve)


1B (Sensory Fiber)

205

What is the most important function of the Autonomic Nervous System(ANS)?

Regulate Blood Flow

206

What hormone is released by the Sympathetic Nervous System?

Epinephrine

207

What is the location, Level and Horn, of the Sympathetic Nervous System?

T1-L2

Lateral horn of the spinal cord

208

What is the phrase that is usually associated with the Sympathetic Nervous System?

Fight or Flight

209

What are the body responses of the Sympathetic Nervous System?

Vasoconstriction of the Skin
Increased sudomotor activity (Sweat Glands)
Pilomotor Response (Hair Standing on End)
Pupils Dilate
Bronchodialation
Tachycardia
Blood to large Muscles

(Vasomotor, Sudomotor, Pilomotor=Sympathetic)

210

What is the term when the Sympathetic Nervous System is stimulated/facilitated?

Sympathicotonia

211

What is the term when the Sympathetic Nervous System is inhibited?

Sympathetic Atonia

212

What neurotransmitter is released by the Parasympathetic Nervous System?

Acetylcholine

213

What is another term for the Parasympathetic Nervous System?

Cholinergic

214

What is another term for the Sympathetic Nervous System?

Adrenergic

215

What is the location of the Parasympathetic Nervous System?

Cranio-Sacral Division
Cranial Nerves: III, VII,IX,X
("Cranial Nerves 3,7,9,10 are Parasympathetic Friends")

Sacral Nerves: S2,S3,S4 ("Keep the Penis off the Floor")

216

What is the phrase usually associated with the Parasympathetic Nervous System?

Rest and Digest

217

What are the two terms when the Parasympathetic Nervous System is stimulated/facilitated?

Parasympathicotonia
Vagotonia

218

What is the term when the Parasympathetic Nervous System is inhibited?

Parasympathetic Atonia

219

What are the body responses of the Parasympathetic Nervous System?

Increased Peristalsis
Increased Smooth Muscle activity
Depressed respiration
Pupil Constriction
Bradycardia
Bowel and Bladder activity increased
Stimulation of secretions

220

What spinal tract is responsible for "Proximal Muscle Flexors of the upper extremity"?

Rubrospinal Tract

221

What spinal tract is responsible for "Extensor Muscle of the back and arms"?

Reticulospinal Tract

**Except and back muscles innervated by a Plexus;
Dorsal Scapular Nerve: Rhomboids and Levator Scapula
Thoracodorsal Nerve: Latissimus Dorsi

222

What spinal tract is responsible for "Neck Muscles"?

Tectospinal Tract

223

What area of the brain is responsible for reflex to light?

Superior Colliculus

224

What area of the brain is responsible for the reflex of sound?

Inferior Colliculus

225

What spinal tract is responsible for "information from the cerebellum and vestibular nuclei" (Extensor Muscle of Back and Legs)?

Vestibulospinal Tract

226

What spinal tract is responsible for "For Flexors of the distal extremities (hands and feet)"?

Corticospinal Tract (Pyramidal Tract)

227

What are the two sensations picked up by the Lateral Spinothalamic Tract?

Pain
Temperature

228

What are the two sensations picked up by the Ventral Spinothalamic Tract?

Crude Touch
Pressure

229

The Dorsal Columns Medial Lamniscus (DCML) carry what sensation?

Conscious Proprioception

230

What are three examples of Conscious Proprioception?

Vibration
Joint Position Sense
2-Point Discrimination

(Dorsal Columns; Medial Lamniscus)

231

What two receptors in the Dorsal Columns pick up Touch?

Meissner's
Merkel's

232

What receptor in the Dorsal Columns pick up Vibration?

Pacinian Corpuscle

233

What receptor in the Dorsal Columns pick up Joint Position Sense?

Ruffini

234

What sensation is picked up by the Spinocerebellar Tract?

Unconscious Proprioception

235

What two types of cells are found in the Spinocerebellar Tract?

Muscle Spindle Cells (MSC)
Golgi Tendon Organs (GTO)

236

What type of fiber and "Feeling" are determined by Muscle Spindle Cells?

Type 1a fiber

Feeling- Stretch

237

What type of fiber and "Feeling" are determined by Golgi Tendon Organ?

Type 1b fiber

Feeling- Tension

238

What are the six Goals of Adjustments?

1. Stimulate the 1b Golgi Tendons and Postsynaptic Inhibition of the alpha motor neurons due to fast stretch on the tendon

2. Close the pain gait by sending a proprioceptive message to the Central Nervous System (CNS) on large type A fibers

3. Increase mechanoreceptors bombardment (closing pain gait)

4. Break up adhesions

5. Increase Mobility/Motion

6. Improve Neurological Function

239

On the Meric Chart what are the levels of C2/C3 associated with?

Tonsils

240

What levels on the Meric Chart are associated with the Heart and Lungs?

T1-T4

241

On the Meric Chart what level is associated with the Gallbladder?

T4

242

What level on the Meric Chart are associated with the Stomach?

T5-T9

243

What three organs are associated with the T6-T10 area of the Meric Chart?

Liver
Pancreas
Gallbladder

244

On the Meric Chart what levels are associated with the Kidney?

T10-T12

245

What levels and two organs are Sympathetically Driven on the Meric Chart?

Level: L1-L2

Organs:
Ovary
Colon

246

What area and two organs are Parasympathetically Driven on the Meric Chart?

Area: Sacrum

Organs:
Colon
Uterus

247

What term has the following definition: Sensory impulses from the periphery to the posterior horn of the spinal cord?

Afferent

248

How is the term Allodynia defined?

Perception of pain from a normally non-painful stimulus

249

What term has the following definition: Pathological fusion of bone across a joint?

Ankylosis

250

What are the components of a Anterior Motion Segment?

Two Vertebral Bodies
Intervertebral Disc
Weight Bearing

251

What term has the following definition:
Type II nerve injury
Physical disruption of the axon with Wallerian degeneration results in temporary paralysis and sensory changes. Intact sheath of the Schwann allows recovery in weeks to month. Partial reaction of degeneration.

Axonotmesis

252

What is released from a damaged muscle cell
Is part of the inflammatory process
Sensitizes Nociceptors

Bradykinin

253

Which nerve fibers are: Small, Slow, Non-Myelinated and carry pain sensation (Nociceptors)

C Fibers

254

The following definition describes what word:
An increase in strain of a material that occurs during constant stress from loading. It is a deformation of viscoelastic tissue to a constant, steadily applied load. In the body, the structure may or may not return to it's original length or shape?

Creep

255

What structure innervates the skin and muscles of the back?

Dorsal Rami

256

What kind of pain is seen by nerve root compression?

Dermatogenous Pain

257

What are three words to describe a Dermatogenous Pain Pattern?

Sharp
Burning
Radicular

258

How is the term Efferent defined?

Motor impulses from the Anterior horn of the spinal cord to the periphery

259

What word is defined by the following:
The tendency of a tissue under load to return to it's original size and shape after the removal of the load?

Elasticity

260

What structure in the body has a major elastic component?

Ligaments

261

What word has the following definition:
Connective Tissue that surrounds an individual nerve fiber?

Endoneurium

262

What is the definition of Epineurium?

Connective tissue that surrounds the entire nerve and it's major branches

263

What anatomical structure is responsible for direction of motion (Directional Guidance)?

Facets

264

What term has the following definition:
Increase in afferent stimulation causes a decrease threshold for firing?

Facilitations

265

What will a continued stimulation resulting in?

Hyperactive Responses

266

Where are Golgi Tendon Organs (GTO) located and what do they detect?

Location: End of the Muscle

Detect: Muscle Tension

267

What is inhibited when a Golgi Tendon Organ (GTO) is stimulated?

Muscle Contraction

268

What term has the following definition:
Treats the patient with heavily diluted preparations (Primarily from plants and mineral sources) which are thought to cause effects similar to the symptoms present?

Homeopathy

269

The following definition is paired with what word?
Presences of excess blood in the vessels supplying a particular region of the body with hyper-active responses (Hypersympathicotonia)

Hyperemia

270

What is the term for an effect of constant loading and unloading of a tissue?

Hysteresis

271

What is thought to be an over use movement in the body causing Hysteresis?

Leaning Forward

272

What is the term for "Intra-Articular synovial tabs"

Meniscoid

273

What can a Meniscoid prevent?

A joint from having full mobility

274

What is a Motion Segment?

Function Unit of the Spine

275

What are the parts that make up a Motion Segment?

Two Vertebral Bodies
Disc (Between the Bodies)
Articular Facets
Ligaments binding the two vertebra together

276

What components of the Motion Segment make up the
Anterior and Posterior parts?

Anterior: Vertebral Bodies and Disc

Posterior: Articular Facets

277

What term is defined by the following:
A receptor that is sensitive to the length/stretch of an intrafusal fiber?

Muscle Spindle

278

What term has the following definition:
Type I nerve injury

A local nerve conduction block (Nerve pressure or blunt trauma) with no physical disruption of the axon resulting in transient paralysis, slight sensory change

No reaction of degeneration

Recovery is usually hours to days

Neurapraxia

279

What is the name of the structure that is a "Sensory receptor sensitive to pain"?

Nocioceptor

280

What term has the following descriptions:
Type III Nerve Injury

Most serious degree of nerve injury. Involves the disruption of the nerve and the nerve sheath

Full reaction of degeneration

No recovery is possible

Neurotmesis

281

What occupation had the "Focus was on the "rule of the Artery" and used nonspecific manipulation to enhance the flow of blood"?

Osteopathy

282

What is the definition of Perineurium?

Connective tissue that surrounds smaller bundles of nerve fibers

283

What term has the following definition:
Property of material that instantly deforms when a load is applied and does not return to it's original shape when the load is removed?

Plasticity

284

What is an anatomical example of Plasticity?

Bone

285

What makes up the Posterior Motion Segment?

Articular Facets

286

What two type of receptors surround the Posterior Motion Segment?

Mechanoreceptors
Nociceptors

287

Where are and what is the function of Proprioceptors?

Location: Muscles, Tendons, Joints

Function: Detect position and motion of the body

288

What kind of pain is often seen in a Facet or Sacroiliac (SI) joint?

Scleratogenous Pain

289

What are to characteristics of Scleratogenous Pain?

Pain is dull in nature
Poorly localized pain

290

What is another name for the Sinuvertebral Nerve?

Recurrent Meningeal Nerve

291

What term is described by the following:
Recurrent branches of the primary dorsal rami of the spinal nerve that innervates the fascia, ligaments, periosteum, intervertebral joints and intervertebral disc of the vertebra

Goes to the Posterior Longitudinal Ligament (PLL), Ligamentum Flavum, and anterior Dura

Sinuvertebral Nerve

292

What ligament does the Recurrent Meningeal Nerve not go to?

Anterior Longitudinal Ligament

293

What term "essentially refers to the skin, bone, nerve and muscle"?

Soma (Somatic)

294

What is the term that refers to growth and nutrition?

Trophic

295

What structure runs through the transverse foramina of the cervical vertebra, beginning at C6?

Vertebral Arteries

296

Obstruction of what area and artery may lead to insufficient blood flow to the head?

Area: Transverse Foramina

Artery: Vertebral Artery

297

What structure in the spinal cord, innervates the skin and muscles of the trunk and limbs?

Ventral Rami

298

What is the term that refers to the autonomic organs, blood and lymph vessels?

Viscera (Visceral)

299

What is the term that has the following definition:
The principle that maintains the laws of physics and chemistry cannot explain the nature of life?

Vitalism

300

What is the definition of Wolff's Law?

Bone is shaped by the forces placed on it or the lack of forces as in immobilization

301

What Law has the following definition:
The trunk of a nerve sends branches to a particular muscle, the joint moved by the muscle and the skin overlaying the insertion of the muscle.
Altered nerve activity to a muscle may be associated with altered nerve activity to the segmentally related spinal joints.

Hilton's Law

302

What Law is described by: Increased epiphyseal pressure leads to decreased grown and vice versa

Heuter-Volkman's Law

303

What disease is an example of Heuter-Volkman's Law?

Scheuermann's Disease

304

What law states; the Anterior horn of the cord is motor, while the posterior horn is sensory?

Bell-Magendie

305

What sensation is perceived by the examiner during passive range of motion of a joint?

End Feel

306

What is Soft Tissue Approximation?

Normal resistance felt with the joint motion is restricted by soft tissue (i.e. Elbow Flexion)

307

How is Bony Palpation described?

Abrupt halt as two hard surfaces meet
Full range of motion has been achieved

308

What is another term for a Spasm?

Guarded, resisted by muscle contraction

309

What should you feel in a Spasm?

Muscle reaction

310

Why can end feel not be felt is Spasm?

Because of pain or Guarding

311

What is one condition that is a spasm that may be a contraindication to adjust?

Torticollis

312

What term is defined as "Perceived as a hard arrest with a slight give"?

Capsular feel

313

What condition may have a Capsular Feel of Palpation?

Sub-acute or chronic arthritis (Rheumatoid Arthritis)

314

How Is Springy Block Palpation defined?

Slight "rebound" at the end range of motion

315

What is one condition that may have a Springy Block feeling?

Meniscal Tear, internal derangement of the joint (Positive Bounce Home Test)

316

What is the term used when a patient feels pain before full range of motion is achieved?

Empty Feel

317

What is possibly suggested by Empty Feel?

Pathology (i.e. Bursitis, Abscess, Neoplasm)

318

What kind of Fixation has the following description:
Secondary fixation due to chronic involuntary Hypertonicity of muscles

Palpates as deep, taut and tender fibers,

Exhibits restricted mobility and rubbery end bock

Muscular Fixation

319

What is an example of Muscular Fixation?

Acute Torticollis

320

What kind of Fixation has the following characteristics:
Chronically fixed segment that may lead to ligamentous shortening

Palpates as an abrupt hard block with no end play with a normal range of motion

Ligamentous Fixation

321

What is an example of Ligamentous Fixation?

Chronic Whiplash

322

What kind of Fixation has the following characteristics:
Fixation due to Exostosis

Joint exhibits free motion up to a point where there is an abrupt, complete, hard arrest

Bony Fixation

323

What is an example of Bony Fixation?

Advanced Degenerative Joint Disease (DJD)

324

What kind of Fixation has the following characteristics:
Major Fixation due to intra-articular adhesions

Joint has no end movement and is painful when challenged

Articular/Capsular Fixation

325

What is an example of Articular/Capsular Fixation?

Frozen Shoulder (May become Ankylosed)

326

What term is defined as the following:
A written report on the details of a series of related cases

Case Series

327

What term is defined as the following:
A written report on the details of a single case

Case Study

328

What term is defined as the following:
Research that address issues directly related to patient care

Clinical Research

329

What term is defined as the following:
A prospective longitudinal experiment design to assess the comparative efficacy of effectiveness of a treatment, often labeled a randomized clinical trial if random assignments of subject are made to each of the comparison treatment groups

Clinical Trial

330

How is the term Cohort defined?

Defined group of people observed over a period of time

331

What term is defined as the following:
Comparison group assignment in a clinical trial that receives no treatment, a placebo treatment or an alternative treatment

Control group

332

What is the term defined as "Measurements taken at one moment in time"?

Cross Sectional Studies

333

What term is defined as the following:
An experiment in which patients and either doctors or outcome assessors are blind

Double Blind Study

334

What is the definition of Frequency?

A general or statistical expression of how often a condition or disease occurs

335

What is the definition of a Gold Standard?

A measured of agreed upon accuracy and validity

336

What term is defined as the following:
The proportion of a clearly defined group, initially free of a condition, that develops it over a period of time

Incidence

337

What term is defined as the following:
The consistency of measured results between different practitioners evaluating the same thing

InTERobserver reliability

338

What term is defined as the following:
The consistency in which one practitioner can consistently arrive at the same result

InTRAobserver reliability

339

What term is defined as the following:
A study in which the researcher observes events as they occur naturally or in the course of normal practice, without attempting to have any influence

Observational Study

340

How is the term Prevalence defined?

The proportion of a population having a particular condition or outcome at a given moment

341

What term is defined as the following:
A study that reviews events that have already occurred

Prospective Study

342

What term is defined as the following:
A prospective longitudinal study in which the patients are divided into two or more groups on a randomized basis

Randomized Control Study

343

How is the term Reliability defined?

The consistency of a measurement when repeated

344

What is a Retrospective Study?

A study that reviews events that already occurred

345

What term is defined as the following:
The proportion of times a diagnosis study is correct in patients without a specific diagnosis

Sensitivity

346

What term is defined as the following:
A study in which the patients are blind as to weather they are in the experimental or comparison group

Single Blind Study

347

What term is defined as the following:
The proportion of times a diagnostic procedure is correct in a patient without a specific diagnosis

Specificity

348

What term is defined as the following:
The degree to which an observation or measurement provides an indication of the true state of the phenomena being measured

Validity