ICVA form 1 Flashcards

(33 cards)

1
Q

what coagulation factors are vitamin K-dependent?

A

2, 7, 9, 10

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2
Q

what coagulation factors are associated with X-linked hemophilia and what test would support that diagnosis?

A

8 & 9
PTT (would be increased)

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3
Q

what is the most common cause of rectal prolapse in kittens?

A

GI Parasites

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4
Q

which atrium is often enlarged in a dog with CHF?

A

left atrium

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5
Q

what virus causes kittens to be born with cerebellar hypoplasia when the pregnant mother is infected?

A

feline panleukopenia (feline Parvovirus)

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6
Q

what are the signs of Malignant Catarrhal Fever in cows?

A

fever, oral and nasal erosions, enlarged lymph nodes, and centripetal corneal opacity. often fatal

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7
Q

what is the management for Malignant Catarrhal Fever in cows?

A

herd - separate from carriers (sheep) by at least 70 meters
individuals - cull…treatment is often unrewarding and there is no vaccine

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8
Q

what condition does lactic acidosis predispose cows to?

A

laminitis

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9
Q

what is the treatment for chlamydophilosis (psittacosis / parrot fever)?

A

doxycycline for 45+ days

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10
Q

what is the gold standard treatment for prostatitis?

A

antibiotic that crosses the prostate blood barrier (ie. aminoglycoside or fluoroquinolone) for 4+ weeks AND castration

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11
Q

what is the management recommendation for sheep or goats with caseous lymphadenitis?

A

ideally, cull affected animals
otherwise,
isolate and treat affected individuals (abx, surgical excision, lance, etc), but understand that this is not really curable

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12
Q

what is adequate IgG concentration in a foal, and what can be given if it’s low >24 hours after birth?

A

> 800 mg/dL; plasma transfusion

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13
Q

what dewormers treat coccidia (isospora)?

A

sulfadimethoxine (albon), ponazuril, amprolium

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14
Q

what is the treatment for organophosphate toxicity?

A

atropine

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15
Q

what would cause pruritic ulcerated lesions with eosinophilic granulomatous reaction on a horse’s prepuce?

A

habronemiasis

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16
Q

what complications can happen shortly after GDV surgery?

A

SIRS/MODS (reperfusion injury) and cardiac arrhythmias

17
Q

at what age is a PDA considered problematic? should surgery be pursued in a 12 week old puppy?

A

after 1 week of age! yes (after echo)

18
Q

what does a small vulva, hypoplastic uterus, and lack of cycling suggest in a heifer?

A

freemartinism

19
Q

what hormone is used for induction of farrowing in a pig?

A

pgf2a +/- oxytocin 24h later

20
Q

what nerve block will diagnose navicular syndrome?

A

palmar digital

21
Q

what do crackles indicate on lung auscultation?

A

pneumonia or CHF

22
Q

what surgery is indicated for laryngeal hemiplasia in the horse?

A

Prosthetic Laryngoplasty

23
Q

when can heifers be bred?

A

12-14 months of age; 60%+ of mature weight

24
Q

how is canine distemper usually spread?

A

aerosolization

25
what hoof disease causes the horse hoof to grow out forward?
laminitis
26
how long should otitis media be treated with abx?
3-6 weeks
27
how do you treat non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema?
furosemide / diuretics
28
what species can get cheyletiella parasitovorax mites?
rabbits > dogs, cats, rodents, humans
29
what is the most common cause of cow enucleation?
ocular neoplasia (SCC)
30
how is BLV transmitted?
blood
31
what 1mm parasite causes hypertrophic gastritis in cats?
Ollulanus tricuspis
32
what is the rash in humans with lyme disease called?
erythema migrans
33
what is the most common cause of unilateral CN VII palsy in a cat?
otitis media