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1
Q

Ich (“white spot disease”) in fish –
1. full name of agent
2. type of agent
3. treatment
4. what environmental factor needs to be correlated with treatment frequency?

A
  1. Ichthyophthirius multifiliis
  2. large, rolling ciliates
  3. formalin
  4. higher temps => more frequent treatments necessary
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2
Q

What are the viruses of sheep and pigs that mirror BVDV in cows?

A

sheep - border virus
pigs - classical swine fever

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3
Q

what fundic changes are seen in cats with taurine deficiency?

A

feline central retinal degeneration; elliptical area(s) of tapetal hyperreflectivity centrally

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4
Q

what block is specific and provides full relief for laminitis?

A

abaxial sesamoid

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5
Q

what are the 4 main leg blocks used for horses, in ascending order?

A
  • palmar digital
  • abaxial sesamoid
  • low 4 point
  • high 4 point
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6
Q

what cat breeds tend to be blood Type B (rather than Type A like most cats)?

A

the extra fancy ones = british shorthair, devon & cornish rex, Ragdolls, Scottish Folds, Persians, and Himalayans

(NOT tonkingese, siamese, oriental shorthairs)

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7
Q

what is the protocol for an unvaccinated dog bitten by a suspected rabid animal?

A

1) euth and test
OR
2) vaccinate immediately and quarantine for 4 months

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8
Q

what animals get urate uroliths?

A

dalmations & PSS/liver disease patients

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9
Q

what is the classic population presentation for equine herpesvirus?

A

URI foals with copious nasal discharge; followed by an abortion storm of late-term pregnancies several months later

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10
Q

what kinds of drugs cannot be administered into the caudal half of reptiles and why?

A

nephrotoxic drugs (ie. aminoglycosides like gentamicin) because they have a renal-portal system and blood from the caudal half first goes to the kidneys

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11
Q

what clinical sign(s) does fusobacterium necophorum cause in each of the following species:
cow
pig
ruminant

A

cow - metritis, hepatic abscess, necrotic laryngitis
pig - necrotic rhinitis (young pigs) or foot rot
ruminant - foot rot or gastroenteritis

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12
Q

what is candidiasis and a common etiologic factor for it?

A
  • yeast infection with normal flora
  • overgrowth occurs due to long-term systemic antibiotic therapy altering the natural microbiome
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13
Q

what is necrotic laryngitis (cows) and how to treat it?

A

= calf diphtheria
caused by Histophilus somni –> fusobacterium necrophorum
treat aggressively with abx (ie. tetracycline IV then subq) and NSAIDs

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14
Q

What does papple shape in cows indicate?

A

vagal indigestion, ie. failure of omasal transport

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15
Q

what is the purpose of feeding a DCAD (dietary cation-anion difference) diet to cows?

A

prevent milk fever by enhancing parathyroid function which allows increased Ca absorption

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16
Q

what are the ferret “big three”?

A
  • insulinoma
  • adrenal gland tumor
  • lymphoma
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17
Q

what does fescue toxicosis (Neotyphodium coenophialum ingestion) cause in pregnant mares?

A

prolonged gestation and agalactia

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18
Q

What agent can cause severe abdominal pain and fever in humans after eating pork?

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

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19
Q

what is the incubation period for Clostridium tetani?

A

~2 weeks

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20
Q

what is Tyzzer’s disease and who does it affect?

A

Clostridium piliformis infection, which causes an acute necrotizing hepatitis in neonatal foals

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21
Q

what are the signs of fowl/avian pox and how is it spread?

A

wart-like nodules and scabs on the comb, waddles, feet, and vent. spread by mosquitoes

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22
Q

what can cause hypothyroidism in foals?

A

inappropriate dietary iodine by mare or foal

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23
Q

list some symptoms of traumatic reticuloperitonitis in cattle

A
  • muffled heart sounds or heart murmur
  • fever
  • stiff, arched gait
  • distended jugular veins
  • positive grunt test (pain when pressing on xiphoid)
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24
Q

What are the signs of infectious bovine rhinotracheitis?

A
  • white plaques on conjunctiva & nasal epithelium
  • hacking cough
  • fever
  • abortions
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25
What predisposes for right dorsal colitis in horses?
NSAID admin
26
Describe grass tetany (who, why, what)
- lactating ewes/cows/goats on lush pasture - hypomagnesemia (and often concurrent hypocalcemia) - weakness, hyporexia, collapse, convulsions, tetany, death
27
What parasite makes young puppies cough?
toxocara canis
28
what management strategy is employed for reducing caseous lymphadenitis in sheep herds?
vaccination
29
how do you treat heartworm in cats?
prednisolone and heartgard! adulticidals can be fatal to cats
30
how long do you treat deep pyoderma in a dog?
1-3 weeks past clinical resolution of signs (usually 6-8 weeks total)
31
what etiologic agent often causes pulmonary abscesses to form in horses?
rhodococcus equi
32
what does the % in X% mannitol mean?
add a 0 to the number and that is the mg/mL concentration (ie. 25% mannitol = 250 mg/mL mannitol)
33
what is the PRIMARY agent of infectious footrot in small ruminants? (fusobacterium necrophorum is secondary)
Dichelobacter nodosus
34
what is American Foulbrood in bees?
the worst!!! spore-forming bacteria called Paenibacillus; spores can last 70 years!!! brood turns brown and desiccates, easily diagnosed by match stick test where desiccated brood can be pulled up in a 2 cm rope (stringy). management is burning all bees and equipment. reportable in some states; always need to alert nearby beekeepers
35
what is European Foulbrood in bees?
Melisococcus pluton, disease of stressed bees, brood turns brown and desiccated, treatment is stress reduction and oxytetracycline (mix with powdered sugar or sugar water) but honey withdrawal time is 6 weeks
36
what are varroa mites in bees?
blood-sucking red mites that live on the dorsum of bees, low level is normal, higher level is a problem -- should not be able to see them normally. integrated pest management (check counts, rotate treatment with mite-specific pesticides)
37
what is colony collapse disorder in bees?
all adult bees (workers and drones) disappear, and no dead bodies seen -- the queen, brood, and honey are all fine
38
what causes bacillary hemoglobinuria (redwater) in cattle?
liver fluke migration causing damage --> clostridium novyi type D (AKA clostridium hemolyticum) infection
39
what can cause vulvar and rectal edema (+/- prolapse) in pigs?
mycotoxin zearalenone
40
what is treatment for listeria in ruminants?
penicillin
41
what is chorioptes equi?
mange mite usually located at the foot/fetlock, esp in feathered hair
42
what are osselets in horses?
inflammation of the periosteum of the front canon bone & fetlock joint, causing a short choppy gait and progressive lameness
43
what pathogen causes SCUD in turtles?
citrobacter freundii
44
how is AFRICAN swine fever transmitted?
soft ticks or direct contact
45
what does organophosphate exposure cause in bird embryos?
skeletal developmental abnormalities and subq emphysema
46
if a cat presents with rapid shallow breathing, quiet lung sounds, and normal heart sounds, where is the disease and what should be done?
pleural space (effusion or pneumothorax); thoracocentesis
47
what are signs of chlamydia psittaci (ornithosis) in turkeys?
multi-system disease and **basophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions** of infected organs
48
what are signs of HGE and what is the most important component of treatment?
vomiting, bloody diarrhea, discordantly HIGH PCV; aggressive IVF therapy
49
what type of "normal" GI parasite usually causes the most severe illness across various species of various ages, and can even be deadly?
whipworms - trichuris spp.
50
what is the most common side effect of KBr?
sedation
51
what are the signs seen with acute ileitis in pigs?
sudden death of multiple adult pigs; large amounts of red, clotted blood in SI and spiral colon with NO gross mucosal thickening
52
what is the causative agent of acute ileitis in pigs?
lawsonia intraccellularis
53
what is administered in the case of sand colic in horses?
psyllium
54
why can neuro signs sometimes be seen with colic in horses?
intestinal disease --> hyperammonemia --> encephalopathy and neuro signs
55
what is seen with milkweed ingestion?
acute death
56
what is seen with bracken fern ingestion in ruminants?
BM suppression after a long period
57
what is seen with ragwort ingestion?
liver disease after several months
58
what is seen with moldy sweet clover ingestion?
vit K antagonism coagulopathy after a long period
59
what volume of fluids should you give to an extremely dehydrated cow/calf?
10% of body weight in kg = amount of fluids in liters
60
what pig disease causes stillborns/mummies but NOT abortions?
parvovirus
61
what treatment is used for ARVC?
sotalol
62
what is seen with Salmonella dublin in cattle?
septicemia in calves 4-8 weeks; petchiae; heavy wet red lungs on post
63
what is seen with onchocerca cervicalis in horses?
patchy alopecia and scaling around the face and neck +/- ventral midline dermatitis
64
what forelimb injury is commonly seen in cats with high-rise syndrome, and what is the treatment?
carpal hyperextension; carpal arthrodesis
65
what does choline deficiency cause in turkeys (ad sometimes chicks)?
growth stunting, poor feathering, short/thick bowed legs, chondrodysplasia
66
how often do neonatal rabbits need to nurse?
1-2 times per day!!
67
what disease should be suspected in a dog with progressive tetraparesis and a thymoma?
myasthenia gravis
68
what is the musculature of the dog, cow, cat, and horse esophagus?
dog, cow - 100% striated cat, horse - cranial 2/3 is striated, caudal 1/3 is smooth
69
what # arch is implicated in PRAA in dogs?
the 4th
70
what signs are seen with RMSF?
vasculitis --> edema, hyperemia, petechiation, and ecchymoses
71
list the species of salmonella within each serotype (B, C1, C2, D)
B - typhiurium C1 - cholerasuis C2 - newport D - dublin, enteritidis
72
what is the prognosis for EPM?
most horses (70%) improve with treatment but relatively few (25%) recover fully, and a small subset (10%) improve with treatment but relapse without it
73
what topical treatment options can be used to treat ringworm?
lime sulfur dip or miconazole shampoo
74
what is the ear mite of horses?
psoroptes
75
what are the signs of hog cholera = classical swine fever?
immunosuppression, reproductive failure, GI signs, paresis/paralysis, conjunctivitis, oral ulcers, petechiation. NOT coughing/sneezing
76
what is the classic situation for a fish with ammonia toxicity?
new tank; fish is showing neurological behaviors like swimming in circles
77
what is the treatment for a cow with a retained placenta who is systemically doing well?
leave her be, in a clean area, and monitor her closely
78
what are the signs of "upward patellar fixation" in horses?
pelvic limb locks in rigid extension, and a delay in flexion of the stifle causes dragging of the toe
79
tell me about coccidia
= isospora infection very environmentally resistant and difficult to disinfect BUT species-specific
80
what are the signs of tetanus in a horse?
bilaterally prolapsed 3rd eyelids, sawhorse stance, stiff gait, stiff tail, sensitivity to stimuli
81
what vitamin deficiency causes night blindness?
vitamin A
82
what are the signs of bordetella avium in turkeys?
nasal discharge, "snick" cough, swollen eyelids, "raccoon eye", exudate, collapsed trachea on necropsy
83
what type of valvular regurgitation do elderly horses get?
aortic regurg
84
what can amprolium, bracken fern, and excess grain all cause in ruminants?
thiamine deficiency / polioencephalomalacia
85
what zoonotic fungus grows in pigeon feces?
cryptococcus
86
what vein(s) normally enter the vena cava between the renal and hepatic veins?
the phrenicoabdominal veins
87
why is a positive windsucker test bad for the mare?
it heavily predisposes to vaginitis and endometritis
88
what type of pathogen should be suspected when mastitis includes a serum-like secretion with clots and systemic illness of the cow?
coliform
89
what genetic condition causes colic in newborn white foals bred from Overo parents?
Ileocolonic agangliosis
90
what anesthetic drug is contraindicated in epileptic dogs?
ketamine
91
what is the method of choice for diagnosing rabies?
direct fluorescent antibody test
92
what is strep equi ssp equi?
the agent of strangles in horses
93
what is strep equi ssp zooepidemicus?
a normal inhabitant of the equine upper respiratory tract that can cause opportunistic infections in horses and in other species
94
what drug combo can be used in a surgery that requires periods of complete stillness of the animal, including respiratory?
a neuromuscular blocking agent (succinylcholine) and an anesthetic (inhalant isoflurane for example)
95
what is the biggest predisposing factor of metritis in cows?
dystocia
96
what is the management for an actinobacillus pleuorpneumoniae (APP) outbreak in pigs?
immediately treat ALL pigs with an injectable antibiotic (ie. enrofloxacin) bc the toxins produced by APP can cause death within hours
97
what is the treatment for "choke" in horses?
sedate the horse and gently pass an NG tube OR restrict the horse to an empty stall and monitor until resolution (12-24 hours)
98
what is the treatment for EPM?
ponazuril
99
match the plant with its toxic effects (horses): Fescue - St john's wort - Pyrrolizidine alkaloids - Red maple - Cantharidin -
Fescue - repro failure St john's wort - primary photosensitization Pyrrolizidine alkaloids - secondary photosensitization Red maple - heinz body anemia Cantharidin - colic
100
what happens with GGT in cats with cholangiohepatitis vs hepatic lipidosis?
cholangiohepatitis - markedly elevated hepatic lipidosis - usually normal

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