ICVA form 2

Question 1

what is erythema multiforme? (dogs)

Answer 1

acute onset of erythematous skin lesions which may be bulls-eye shaped. most commonly drug-induced, especially by TMS

Question 2

what is the most common type of IBD in cats?

Answer 2

lymphocytic-plasmacytic enterocolitis

Question 3

what is the best tx for a cow with pyelonephritis?

Answer 3

IM PPG

Question 4

what signs does renal neoplasm cause in birds?

Answer 4

coelomic distention, (unilateral) paralysis

Question 5

who are the susceptible populations and what are the signs of vesicular stomatitis?

Answer 5

pretty much all species! including humans.
vesicular lesions / circular erosions can be seen esp at mucous membranes

Question 6

rotavirus in pigs

Answer 6

watery to pasty diarrhea in very young piglets

Question 7

what does clinical toxoplasmosis look like in a cat?

Answer 7

almost any organ can be affected… fever, diarrhea, cough, dyspnea, icterus, seizures, and death

Question 8

what is the tx for spirocerca lupi?

Answer 8

ivermectin

Question 9

neuro lesions at which localizations would give you contralateral gait abnormalities?

Answer 9

cerebrum (diencephalon)
sometimes midbrain
that’s it

Question 10

what type of organisms usually cause pyothorax in cats?

Answer 10

obligate anaerobes

Question 11

how does polycystic kidney dz present in cats?

Answer 11

AKI with enlarged irregular kidneys

Question 12

what do you feel first when preg checking a mare?

Answer 12

the chorionic vesicle

Question 13

what does sulfadimethoxine treat?

Answer 13

coccidia

Question 14

what is the first-line treatment for feline chin acne?

Answer 14

shave the area and apply benzoyl peroxide

Question 15

what bacteria is the common culprit if RODS are seen on dog ear cytology?

Answer 15

pseuomonas aeruginosa

Question 16

what % of mammary tumors are cancerous in cats? dogs?

Answer 16

90% in cats. 50% in dogs

Question 17

what are you listening to at a horse’s right paralumbar fossa?

Answer 17

the cecum

Question 18

what is the current management strategy for brucellosis in cattle?

Answer 18

test and cull

Question 19

what is seen in piglets with Haemophilus parasuis AND in piglets with Strep suis?

Answer 19

• young piglets
• pleuritis, pericarditis, peritonitis
• polyarthritis / lameness
• fever, lethargy, dyspnea

Question 20

who is affected by orf disease (contagious ecthyema), what are the signs, and what is the tx?

Answer 20

• goats and sheep
• crusted proliferative lesions on the lips
• self-limiting disease; monitor only

Question 21

what does eimeria cause in young broiler chickens?

Answer 21

acute D+, intestinal dilation/inflammation, and bloody GI contents

Question 22

what gait abnormality is seen in horses with stringhalt?

Answer 22

jerky hyperflexion of the hock, most obvious at the walk or when backing. (horse snaps hind leg up toward abdomen involuntarily)

Question 23

what antibiotics are prohibited for use in food animals?

Answer 23

• chloramphenicol
• fluoroquinolones (EXCEPT enrofloxacin)
• DES

Question 24

how long is the meat withdrawal period for gentamicin in cattle?

Answer 24

18 months

Question 25

is diazepam safe for cats?

Answer 25

oral form - no, risk of acute fulminant hepatic necrosis (if want to use, check liver values in 5 days) IV form - yes

Question 26

what is habronemiasis in horses?

Answer 26

worms infiltrate cutaneous tissue via a small wound or mucous membrane, migrate locally and cause a chronic proliferative granulomatous lesion

Question 27

where do dogs get Mycobacterium tuberculosis (TB) infections from?

Answer 27

people!

Question 28

What happens to horses with a large number of Anoplocephala perfoliata worms?

Answer 28

ileocecal intussusception

Question 29

describe the appearance of each yeast malassezia - blastomyces - cryptococcus - histoplasma - coccidioides - aspergillus -

Answer 29

malassezia - footprints blastomyces - broad-based budding cryptococcus - large clear capsules histoplasma - small with narrow-based budding coccidioides - spherules with multiple endospores aspergillus - branching fungal hyphae

Question 30

what "toxo" causes visceral larval migrans and ocular larval migrans in people?

Answer 30

toxoCARA canis

Question 31

what do brodifacoum and bromadiolone cause?

Answer 31

fatal coagulopathy due to Vit K antagonism ("superwarfarin")

Question 32

what medication is used to treat myasthenia gravis in dogs?

Answer 32

pyridostigmine

Question 33

what can be seen with chlamydophilosis (= psittacosis = parrot fever) in birds?

Answer 33

anorexia, nasal discharge, dyspnea, lime green droppings, organomegaly

Question 34

what is the most common cause of hypercalcemia in the dog?

Answer 34

lymphoma

Question 35

what causes infectious foot rot in sheep and how do you treat it?

Answer 35

Dichelobacter nodosus foot baths with zinc sulfate for entire herd

Question 36

what organism is most likely to cause anal sac infection?

Answer 36

e coli

Question 37

what are the cytological factors of malignancy?

Answer 37

- prominent nucleoli - increased nuclear-to-cytoplasm ratio - increased mitotic figures - high cellularity (depending on type) - cellular enlargement / anisocytosis - anisokaryocytosis

Question 38

why are cardiac and masseter muscles routinely inspected in slaughtered cattle?

Answer 38

to look for Taenia saginata infection (bovine cysticercosis)

Question 39

at what gestation day can mineralized skeletons be seen radiographically in dogs?

Answer 39

day 42-45

Question 40

what is the holding layer of the small intestine?

Answer 40

submucosa

Question 41

what cestode causes hydatid cysts in people if eggs are eaten?

Answer 41

echinococcus granulosus

Question 42

what is seen with UMN vs LMN bladder?

Answer 42

UMN is distended and difficult to express; LMN is distended and easy to express

Question 43

what can cause an LMN bladder

Answer 43

Damage to the sacral spinal cord, pelvic nerve, and detrusor atony

Question 44

what can cause an UMN bladder

Answer 44

Damage to the thoracolumbar spinal cord or disease of the cerebrum, cerebellum, or brain stem

Question 45

what type of classification are horse and cat estrous cycles?

Answer 45

seasonally polyestrous

Question 46

what antibiotic is often used in dairy cattle because there is NO milk withdrawal time?

Answer 46

ceftiofur

Question 47

what signs are seen in a horse with navicular syndrome?

Answer 47

chronic bilateral forelimb lameness that worsens when circling toward the direction of the leg in question; mild reaction to hoof testers across the heels

Question 48

what pattern of wear is usually seen in horse teeth?

Answer 48

sharper at the buccal surface of the upper teeth and lingual surface of the bottom teeth

Question 49

what is the treatment for cows that have ingested organophosphate?

Answer 49

atropine

Question 50

how long is the horse estrous cycle

Answer 50

21-22 days

Question 51

what is the biggest predisposing factor for ATE in cats?

Answer 51

HCM

Question 52

what pathogens are most associated with contagious mastitis and spread cow to cow by milking?

Answer 52

Strep agalactiae, Staph aureus, Mycoplasma

Question 53

what does amprolium treat?

Answer 53

coccidia

Question 54

what dewormers are currently used to treat H contortus?

Answer 54

ivermectin and levamisole

Question 55

what medication is used to treat scaly leg mites in birds?

Answer 55

ivermectin

Question 56

What % of cattle with BLV develop lymphoma?

Answer 56

0-5%

Question 57

what growth plate is mostly likely to be affected, causing which type of angular limb deformity, when a growing puppy fractures its radius + ulna?

Answer 57

distal ulnar; carpal valgus

Question 58

what is the treatment for Psoroptes cuniculi (rabbit ear mites)?

Answer 58

ivermectin or selamectin

Question 59

when is purpura hemorrhagica seen and what are the signs?

Answer 59

after infection with or vaccination for strangles vasculitis --> distal limb edema, petechiae

Question 60

what dewormer can you NOT give to chelonians and crocodilians?

Answer 60

ivermectin

Question 61

what breeding strategy helps reduce calf dystocias?

Answer 61

breed heifers to bulls with lower expected progeny differences (EPD) for birth weight

Question 62

what condition in cats causes increased resonance on percussion of the chest?

Answer 62

pneumothorax

Question 63

what is the most common clinical sign in horses with guttural pouch mycosis?

Answer 63

epistaxis

Question 64

where does the suspensory ligament insert in horses?

Answer 64

the sesamoid bones behind the fetlock

Question 65

what e-lyte derangements / acid-base disturbance are seen in the rupture of a foal's urinary bladder?

Answer 65

hyponatremia, hypochloremia, hyperkalemia, acidosis because the kidneys save sodium and pass potassium, so urine is high in K+ and low in Na+/Cl- when bladder rupture occurs that fluid equilibrates with the serum

Question 66

what clinical sign in horses do these 4 conditions have in common: vasculitis, liver disease, heart failure, kidney disease?

Answer 66

ventral edema

Question 67

what is seen with clostridium perfringens type C in pigs?

Answer 67

distention of the jejunum with bloody contents and hemorrhagic wall

Question 68

what paraneoplastic condition is associated with mastocytosis in the dog?

Answer 68

gastric hyperacidity

Question 69

what enema should not be used in cats due to risk of e-lyte imbalance?

Answer 69

NaPO3 (sodium phosphate)

Question 70

what organism is the most common agent of SQ abscesses in cats?

Answer 70

Pasteurella multocida

Question 71

when in doubt for horse antibiotic treatment, what is your answer

Answer 71

penicillin

Question 72

what is the best chemical for sterilizing surgical instruments?

Answer 72

ethylene oxide

Question 73

what type of stabilization is used for fractures of the femur or humerus, for immobilization until surgery?

Answer 73

spica splint

Question 74

why are cats with Type B blood harder to transfuse?

Answer 74

they are a small minority and they have naturally occurring anti-A antibodies so will have a reaction if given type A blood

Question 75

what is dermatophilosis?

Answer 75

rain rot