practice questions Flashcards
(100 cards)
1
Q
Side effects of azathrioprine
A
- pancreatitis
- GI upset
- hepatotoxicity
- BM suppression
NOT nephrotoxic (“aza not AZO”)
2
Q
Screening test for HAC sometimes useful for differentiation
A
LDDS
3
Q
What is the most common agent of canine pyoderma?
A
Staph pseud
4
Q
Why are dogs more prone to pyoderma than other species?
A
Their follicles lack ostial plugs, allowing bacteria to gain entry easier
5
Q
C1-C5 effects
A
UMN x4
(Increased tone and reflexes)
6
Q
C6 - T2 effects
A
LMN forelimbs (decreased reflexes and tone)
UMN hindlimbs (increased reflexes and tone)
7
Q
T3 - L3 effects
A
Normal forelimbs
UMN hindlimbs (increased reflexes and tone)
8
Q
L4 - CD effects
A
Normal forelimbs
LMN hindlimbs (decreased reflexes and tone)
9
Q
Principles of articular fracture repair
A
1) rigid fixation
2) anatomic realignment (100%)
3) early return to function – rest would promote fibrosis of the joint
10
Q
Organ of toxicity of azoles? (Ketoconazole, itraconazole, fluconazole)
A
Hepatic
11
Q
Thyroid testing
A
Dogs - free T4
Cats - T4
12
Q
“gull-shaped” gram negative rod causing mucous diarrhea
A
Campylobacter
13
Q
internal inguinal ring borders
A
- internal abdominal oblique
- rectus abdominis
- inguinal ligament
14
Q
what toxins are activated charcoal helpful for?
A
idk
15
Q
normal # of teats on different species
A
pig - 14
dog - 10
cat - 8
cow - 4
sheep - 2
goat - 2
horse - 2
16
Q
possible symptoms of OPP in sheep
A
- respiratory distress with meaty non-collapsing lungs on post
- neuro signs
- hard bag / mastitis
- weight loss/muscle wasting, mild fever
17
Q
dx and management of OPP in sheep
A
- agar gel immunodiffusion or ELISA
- no vaccine or treatment
- test and cull positives yearly in affected herds
18
Q
what does PLR evaluate? (6)
A
- ability of light to get to retina (ie. no complete cataract)
- retina
- optic nerve (CN II)
- ciliary ganglia (CN III)
- ciliary nerve
- pupillary constrictor muscle
19
Q
Info on Histophilus somni = TEME (thromboembolic meningoencephalitis) in cattle
A
- shipping disease - young, stressed cattle
- usually starts as resp, than can go anywhere (neuro, GI, ocular)
20
Q
a lesion in what part of the brain causes pacing? (pacing as in walking around a lot)
A
forebrain (prosencephalon)
21
Q
cattle post finds lungs fail to collapse, and have interstitial emphysema and a rubbery consistency. what disease is this and how do you manage it?
A
Bovine Respiratory Syncytial Virus; isolate and vaccinate calves; treat individuals with abx and NSAIDs
22
Q
what are “splints” in horses?
A
periostitis of the interosseous ligament between the third and second metacarpal (or metatarsal) bones
23
Q
what virus family is canine distemper?
A
paramyxoviridae
24
Q
what are the trio of systems affected by canine distemper virus?
A
neuro, respiratory, GI
25
what virus family is rabies?
Rhabdoviridae
26
salmon poisoning agents & treatments in dogs?
1. Fluke - nanophyetus salmincola, treat with praziquantel
2. Bacteria - Neorickettsia helminthoeca, causes clinical signs associated with salmon poisoning, treat with a tetracycline
27
predisposing factors of choke in horses? (4, one is diet-related)
- poor mastication
- rapid eating
- esophageal stricture
- grass clippings, dry beet pulp, pellets, and hay cubes
28
what pig disease disrupts the pulmonary mucociliary apparatus?
Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae
29
how long can a dog normally be in labor before giving birth to the first puppy?
6 - 36 hours
30
what is an acceptable birthing interval between puppies?
30 mins - 4 hours
31
what does sheets of epithelial cells from a LN aspirate indicate?
metastasis
32
Sympathetic innervation of bladder
Hypogastric nerve -- fills bladder, prevents emptying
33
Parasympathetic innervation of the bladder
Pelvic nerve -- empties bladder
34
Bacteria suffix -ella
Gram negative bacilli
35
Gram positive bacilli (MACDONALDS)
Mycobacterium
Anthrax
Clostridium
Diphtherial corynebacteria
NOcardia
Actinomyces
Listeria
Diphtheroids
36
What parasite microfilariae can be found in blood, and looks like heartworm but is not pathogenic?
Acanthocheilonema reconditum
37
List the Salter-Harris fracture classifications
Type I - physis
Type II - physis + metaphysis
Type III - physis + epiphysis
Type IV - physis + metaphysis + epiphysis
Type V - physis compression
38
What is ocular pannus?
chronic superficial keratitis, predisposed in GSDs, related to UV exposure
39
What is the other name and causative agent of Red Water Disease in cattle?
- bacillary hemoglobinuria
- clostridium haemolyticum
40
What does a "blackberry jam" spleen suggest on necropsy?
Anthrax
41
Food animals with star-gazing, blindness, and aimless wandering...
polioencephalomalacia
42
Food animals with polioencephalomalacia signs (star-gazing, blindness) PLUS absent PLRs
Vitamin A deficiency
(PLR is lost due to retinal degeneration without vitamin A)
43
Food animals (esp pigs) with star-gazing, blindness, seizures, ataxia, and head pressing
Salt poisoning
44
signs of listeriosis
vestibular signs + one or more CN affected
45
3 main causes of flea treatment failure
1. incorrect application (ie. on hair, not skin)
2. not treating the environment
3. not treating other pets in the house
46
In a horse, history of recent trauma (ie. rearing over backwards) and epistaxis suggests what?
ruptured longus capitis
47
what kitten disease is associated with severe chemosis?
Chlamydophila felis
48
treatment of calf diphtheria (necrotizing laryngitis)?
IV tetracycline --> SQ tetracycline, plus NSAIDs
49
What disease process in young cats is suggested by necropsy with 1) fibrosis associated with portal triads, 2) bile duct proliferation, and 3) centrilobular accumulation of bile with casts in canalicular areas?
Acute cholangiohepatitis
50
History and causative agent for acute bovine pulmonary edema and emphysema (ABPEE) = Fog Fever
Cattle recently switched to lush grass with soft cough. Related to 3-methylindole
51
What lesions are seen on necropsy from a pic with Ascaris suum?
milk spots on the liver
52
Cause and presentation of Equine Motor Neuron Disease
Low Vitamin E (often dry lot housing); trembling, muscle atrophy, recumbency
53
Explain polioencephalomalacia
Thiamine deficiency (usually functional from grain overload) causes necrosis of cerebral grey matter, leading to neuro signs (cortical blindness, opisthotonia, hypertonia, hyperreflexia, tetraplegia)
54
what parasite of cats is zoonotic and causes visceral larval migrans?
toxocara cati
55
what causes white muscle disease?
low selenium AND low vitamin E
56
most common cause of bacterial keratitis in the horse?
pseudomonas
57
excess molybdenum intake causes what, and is treated how? (cows)
- secondary copper deficiency
- increase dietary copper or inject Copper glycinate
58
mare estrus length
2-10 days (average 6 days)
"you lose a mare for a week"
59
What are the types and causes of photosensitization in cows?
1. primary photosensitization - from Hypericum (st johns wort), buckwheat, or ryegrass
2. hepatogenous photosensitization - phylloerythrin accumulation in the skin due to any cause of liver failure
60
swelling of the supraorbital fossa in horses is characteristic of what exotic disease?
African horse sickness
61
who gets silicate uroliths?
western U.S. range cattle grazing mature pasture
62
who gets calcium carbonate uroliths?
sheep grazing pastures high in calcium and oxalate
63
How is Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae in pigs treated/managed?
vaccination
64
what is the best way to rehab a down cow?
float tank
65
what is bog spavin? (horse)
idiopathic and inconsequential swelling of the tibiotarsal joints
66
epizootic bovine abortion (EBA) = foothill abortion
signs & prevention
- causes 3rd-trimester abortions where fetuses have lymphoid tissue lesions
- prevention involves exposing heifers to endemic areas before breeding age
67
what is the single most important factor in maintaining healthy calves?
ensuring adequate colostrum intake
68
what medicine is used to treat frothy bloat in cows?
Oral Poloxalene
69
what bacteria are acid-fast?
mycobacteria & nocardia
(remember Ajax <3)
70
What is the diagnostic lesion for rabies, seen in 50% of cases?
Negri bodies
71
What enzyme is deficient in Maple syrup urine disease in cattle?
Branched-chain ketoacid decarboxylase
72
What sign is commonly seen with guttural pouch mycosis?
epistaxis
73
Tell me about equine sarcoids
thought to be papilloma-virus related, these gross tumors do not regress. metastasis is virtually impossible, but a 50% recurrence rate is seen after surgery, so they are often benignly neglected
74
what broad classification of bacteria are usually in cat abscesses?
anaerobes
75
which antibiotics are safer to use in small mammals? (GPs, rodents)
- baytril
- chloramphenicol
- TMS
76
what endocrine disease predisposes to SARDS?
cushings
77
what agent often causes guttural pouch mycosis?
aspergillus
78
at what point in a cat's pregnancy can you see fetal skeletons on rads?
36-45 days
79
why do an auriculopalpebral block in a horse with a corneal ulcer?
it disrupts motor innervation to the orbicularis oculi, so the horse does not blink and cause additional pain during examination
80
what is familial dermatomyositis? (Breeds, signs, treatment)
a familial disease causing sensitive but non-pruritic facial lesions. seen in collies and shelties. no concrete treatment - spontaneous regression and return often seen
81
what is the virus responsible for FIP and how is it spread?
feline coronavirus
fecal-oral transmission
82
what is the usual causative agent of infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis (pinkeye)?
moraxella bovis
83
what medication can be useful in restoring digital blood flow to horses with laminitis?
Phenoxybenzamine
84
what is the best treatment for aortic stenosis?
beta blockers
85
what genus of nematodes is eyeworms?
thelazia
86
what is used to treat toxoplasma in cats?
clindamycin
87
What is the recommended treatment for Actinobacillus Lignieresii?
IV sodium iodide
88
What kind of penicillin should never been given IV in horses?
Procaine penicillin! It's the procaine that causes the issue. At NBC this is PenG
89
what parameters of ascites are suggestive of septic abdomen? (re: glucose, lactate, cells)
lower glucose than BG
higher lactate than BG
neutrophils (+/- bacteria)
90
what organism most often causes bacterial keratitis in the horse?
pseudomonas
91
what is HYPP in horses and how to treat?
- hyperkalemic periodic paralysis
- causes stiffness, difficulty walking, and prolapse of the third eyelid, followed by recumbency
- treat by shifting K+ back into cells (non-K+ fluids plus 5% dextrose)
92
signs of copper deficiency in a cow
achromotrichia (loss of hair pigment due to Tyrosinase dysfunction), diarrhea, poor body condition, lameness, anemia, and infertility
93
what type of urolith occurs in cattle eating large amounts of grain?
struvite
94
what does bracken fern cause in cattle?
Chronic intermittent hematuria AND BM suppression after chronic ingestion
95
match the ringworm species to their common source point for infection
- Microsporum gypseum = ?
- Microsporum canis = ?
- Trichophyton mentagrophytes = ?
- Microsporum gypseum = soil
- Microsporum canis = cats
- Trichophyton mentagrophytes = rodents
96
what is the most common cause of urate urolithiasis in small dogs?
portosystemic shunts
97
what disease can occur in cattle due to sheep being housed nearby?
malignant catarrhal fever
98
what agent causes Johne's disease and at what age is it usually diagnosed in cattle?
Mycobacterium avium ssp paratuberculosis; 2-5 years of age
99
What is the most appropriate treatment for hemorrhage secondary to guttural pouch mycosis?
Surgical occlusion of involved arteries under GA
100
what is the treatment for ferret insulinoma?
prednisone and diazoxide
