Immune system Flashcards

(140 cards)

1
Q

Erythropoiesis

A

Making of red blood cells in red bone marrow

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2
Q

How long do RBCs last?

A

120 days

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3
Q

Process of erythrocyte differentiation

A

Haematopoietic stem cells > Common myeloid progenitor > Proerythroblast > Reticulocyte > Erythrocyte
Reticulocyte loses its nucleus to become erythrocyte.

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4
Q

What happens to bone marrow as we age?

A

Red bone marrow is converted to yellow bone marrow, 100% red in children and 50% in adulthood

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5
Q

How is erythropoiesis regulated?

A

Kidneys produce erythropoietin in response to hypoxia

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6
Q

What does erythropoietin do?

A

Stimulates red bone marrow to produce red blood cells

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7
Q

What cells do all blood cells come from?

A

Haematopoietic stem cells

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8
Q

Where do innate immune cells come from?

A

Common myeloid progenitor cells, except natural killer cells which come from common lymphoid progenitor cells

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9
Q

Where do adaptive immune cells come from?

A

Common lymphoid progenitor cells

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10
Q

Where do basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils and monocytes come from?

A

Myeloblasts

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11
Q

Where do macrophages come from?

A

Monocytes

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12
Q

Where do platelets come from?

A

Megakaryocytes

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13
Q

Innate immune response

A

First response to infection - provides the first and second lines of defence
Involves physical and chemical barriers
Occurs quickly within the first 12 hours of infection

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14
Q

What are the proteins involved in the innate immune response?

A

CRP

Complement

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15
Q

What is CRP

A

C reactive protein, produced by the liver. It is an oponising protein

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16
Q

What are the physical barriers in the innate response?

A

Skin
Mucosal membranes
removal of particles by cilia

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17
Q

What are the chemical barriers in the innate response?

A

Normal flora in GI tract which occupy the biological niche
Lysozymes in tears
Stomach acid

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18
Q

What do mast cells do?

A

Degranulate to cause leaky tight junctions in endothelium. This allows other immune cells to enter and plasma to leave causing oedema. Release IL-1, TNF-alpha and CXC18 for chemotaxis

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19
Q

What do dendritic cells do?

A

Recognise PAMPs and DAMPs on their PRRs. Engulf pathogenic peptides and transport them to lymph nodes. Present peptides on MHC 2 molecules

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20
Q

What do neutrophils do?

A

Recognise PAMPs, carry out oxidative burst. Form a pseudopodia and then a phagosome around the pathogen. Granules are released to kill the pathogen.

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21
Q

What do macrophages do?

A

Clear up debris by phagocytosis.
Kupffer cells = liver
Langerhans = skin
Dust cells = alveoli

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22
Q

Adaptive immunity

A

Specific line of defence, but takes longer to occur. Works by recognising non-self from self antigens. Involved in development of immunological memory. Specific responses tailored to maximally eliminate a specific pathogen.

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23
Q

What are the 2 types of immunity that make up adaptive response?

A

Cell-mediated

Humoral

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24
Q

Extracellular pathogen response - TH2/ humoral response

A

Bacteria infect and proliferate the body
LPS of bacteria acts as a PAMP
activates the complement pathway
Activates the complement cascade
C3a and C5a cause degranulation of mast cells
release of histamine
causes inflammation
C3b opsonises
macrophages, dendritic cells and neutrophils carry out phagocytosis
Macrophages recognise PAMPs and release cytokines
C5a causes chemotaxis
so more immune cells are drawn to the site of infection
dendrites present pathogen peptide on their MHC 2 molecules and migrate to the local lymph node
Naive T cells are recruited to the lymph node and recognise the MHC 2 pathogen protein
T cells bind to the MHC 2 molecule
This causes the T cells to release IL-4
IL-4 causes TH2 cells to be formed
This is the humoral response
Plasma cells are formed and release IgM antibodies, then IgG and IgA antibodies.
Memory B cells are formed

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25
Intracellular immune response - TH1
The virally infected cell produces IFN-alpha Neighbouring cells produce antiviral proteins to prevent them being infected IFN-alpha attracts natural killer cells NKs check the MHC 1 molecules and kill abnormal/ absent ones After the cells burst and the viral particles are released the dendritic cells pick the viral particles up and take them to the local lymph nodes Dendritic cells present the antigen on their MHC 2 and CD28 molecules Dendritic cells produce IL-12 to form CD4 TH1 cells TH1 cells release IFN gamma and IL-2 which activates CD8 cytotoxic cells CD8 cells check MHC 1 molecules and kill the abnormal/ absent ones They make holes in the cell using perforin and inject granzymes which kill the cells .
26
Clean up following an adaptive immune response
T regulatory cells are activated by TNF-beta and IL-10. They downregulate TH1 or TH2 cells depending on the type of infection. Macrophages and neutrophils clear away the debris.
27
What is isotype switching?
Change in the B cell's production of an antibody from one class to another
28
Cytokines released by naive Th cell
Activate naive T helper cell produces IL-12 or IL-4, IL-12 produces TH1 cells and IL-4 produces TH2 cells.
29
What cytokines are released by TH1 cells
IFN-gamma which activates macrophages and NK cells and costimulates CD8 activation with Antigen presentation. TNF-beta activates macrophages and NK cells.
30
What are the stages of wound healing?
Haemostasis Inflammation Proliferation Remodelling
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Process of haemostasis
1. Damage to vessel wall exposes underlying collagen and chemical factors from the damaged endothelium. Vascular spasm - blood vessels constrict in response to shock to reduce blood loss 2. Platelet adhesion - platelets adhere to the damaged collage which involves von Willebrand Factor, it activates the platelets so they undergo a structural change that helps them adhere together. 3. Activated platelets release Thromboxane, ADP and Serotonin which causes vasoconstriction and activates more sticky platelets 4. Platelet plug is formed from platelets sticking together and the coagulation cascade is triggered 5. Coagulation cascade converts fibrinogen into fibrin 6. Fibrin reinforces the platelet plug and forms a mesh work that forms a clot
32
Why does the platelet plug not spread all the way along the vessel?
Prostacyclin and nitric oxide from intact endothelium inhibit platelet adhesion and aggregation
33
What are clotting factors?
Proteins in the blood that control bleeding. They are inactive unless needed.
34
How does the clotting cascade work?
Activated form of each factor acts as a catalyst for the next reaction in the cascade. Calcium ions and vitamin K are necessary for activation of some of the reactions
35
What is the purpose of the coagulation cascade?
To make thrombin which converts fibrinogen into fibrin to form a mesh .
36
Fibrin
Is factor 1, it is insoluble so doesn't circulate in the blood as it would form blood clots so fibrinogen is the inactive soluble form
37
What are the pathways of the coagulation cascade?
Extrinsic = activated by tissue damage through release of tissue factors and causes the intrinsic pathway to kick in. Intrinsic pathway = gets most of the coagulation done
38
Which stages of the coagulation cascade are vitamin K dependent?
II,VII, IX, X
39
where is vitamin K synthesised?
By bacteria in large intestine
40
Coagulation cascade
Learn the coagulation cascade!!!!
41
Coagulation cascade drugs
Thrombolytics Antiplatelets Anticoagulants
42
Thrombolytic drugs
Break down fibrin | e.g. tPA, Urokinase
43
Antiplatelet drugs
Aspirin - inhibits COX Clopidogrel - inhibits platelet aggregation Ticagrelor
44
Anticoagulants
Heparin - makes anti-thrombin very active, low molecular weight heparin acts on thrombin and unfractionated heparin works on Xa Warfarin - vitamin K agonist (acts on 10,9,7 and 2) These have to be stopped before surgery
45
Hemophilia
Type A = . factor VIII deficiency, X-linked recessive disease presentation depends on severity. Presents early in life or after surgery/ trauma.
46
what can Excessive bleeding do?
Into joints can cause arthropathy and into muscles can cause hematomas increase in pressure can cause nerve palsies and compartment syndrome
47
Treatment of hemophilia
Avoid NSAIDs and intramuscular injections minor bleeding - pressure and elevation major bleeding - give recombinant factor VIII
48
Type B hemophilia
Factor IX deficiency and behaves clinically like type A
49
Liver disease
Liver makes vitamin K and so liver disease causes a complex bleeding disorder with the decreased synthesis of clotting factors. Decreased absorption of vitamin K and abnormalities in platelet function.
50
Malabsorption of vitamin K
Less uptake of vitamin K | Treat with IV vitamin K
51
Inflammation
Non-specific defensive response to tissue damage .
52
How does inflammation occur
Damaged cells release cytokines and histamines causing vasodilation. Neutrophils phagocytose bacteria and debris. Macrophages carry out debridement/ matrix turnover. Tissue fluid moves into the area providing cells and nutrients.
53
Scab
Blood clot and dead macrophages
54
Signs of inflammation and their causes
Heat - capillary widening causing increased blood flow Redness - increased permeability causing fluid release into tissues Swelling - increased permeability causing fluid release into tissues Tenderness - Attraction of leukocytes and extravasation (movement) of them to site of injury Pain - systemic response, fever and proliferation of leukocytes
55
Acute inflammation
Usually lasts <3 weeks Accumulation of neutrophils Purulent = pus (bunch of dead neutrophils) Increases ESR (sedimentation rate) and CRP
56
Chronic inflammation
Defined as lasting longer than 6 weeks Significant tissue destruction - a typical feature CRP will be less raised Accumulation of macrophages and leukocytes
57
Proliferation of wound healing
Days to weeks timescale Angiogenesis - oxygen needed for growth Fibroplasia - fibroblasts move to the site and grow - forms collagen Epithelialisation - making new skin Contraction - fibroblasts form myofibroblasts, which produce contractile proteins which pull the edges of the wound together
58
What is the dominant cell type at wound edges in the first week?
Macrophages/ mast cells
59
What is granulation tissue?
Collagen and proteoglycans deposited by fibroblasts which hold epidermal cells together
60
Remodelling
Formation of new granulation tissue stops Collagen composition changes from type 3 to 1 Fibrous scar forms due to collagen cross linking The new blood vessels formed are no longer required and so are removed by apoptosis
61
What local factors impair wound healing?
``` Poor blood supply infection oedema movement foreign material moisture ```
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What systemic factors impair wound healing?
``` Diabetes atherosclerosis nutrients immunosuppression connective tissue disorders smoking age alcohol drugs - steroids and antiplatelets ```
63
Maggots
Can be used to differentiate between live and dead tissue in a wound as they eat the dead tissue - allows debridement without surgery
64
Core body temperature
36.5 - 37.5 can be altered by menstrual cycle and circadian rhythms Hypothermia = <35 Hyperthermia = >38 - pyrexia/ fever
65
Thermoreceptors
Cold receptors - in the peripheries, it is conducted by myelinated A fibres (fast) Warm receptors - central in hypothalamus Pain receptors - nociceptors
66
Response mechanisms to temperature changes
Physiological, behavioural, neurological and hormonal
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Behavioural responses to temperature change
Voluntary actions to increase muscle activity | Moving out of the environment you are in
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Physiological responses to temperature change
Involuntary effecting heat loss and production
69
Hormonal responses to temperature change
Thyroxine, T3 and adrenaline will increase metabolism to generate heat
70
Nervous system responses to temperature change
Activation of either the sympathetic or parasympathetic NS and motor system can cause shivering
71
Responses to cold
Cold receptors in skin signal to hypothalamus. Heat loss is reduced by warm clothing and vasoconstriction Heat production is increased by thyroxine/ T3 release, shivering and catecholamine release (adrenaline) .
72
Responses to hot
Warm receptors detect it in the hypothalamus . Heat loss is increased by sweating, vasodilation and exposure Heat production is decreased by decreased activity
73
How to treat heat stoke?
Ice cold IV saline
74
Who is at high risk of hypothermia?
Neonates | People who have experienced near drowning, major trauma or those who have taken drugs/ alcohol
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Why are neonates at greater risk of hypothermia?
They have a high surface area to weight ration and cannot make behavioural changes. They have brown fat found between the scapulae that is especially to be metabolised to produce heat and doesn't produce ATP as oxidative phosphorylation is uncoupled
76
Why are people who experience major trauma at risk of hypothermia?
Blood loss is replaced with cold fluids | Hypothermia impairs blood clotting
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Why are people who nearly drown at risk of hypothermia?
Heat loss via conduction to water
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Why are intoxicated people at risk of hypothermia? (Drugs/ alcohol)
They cannot make behavioural changes
79
Function of lymph
Draining excess interstitial fluid Transport of dietary lipids and lipid soluble vitamins carrying out immune response returns lost plasma proteins into circulation
80
What allows transport of lymph?
Skeletal muscle pump Respiratory pump - pressure changes When you breath in pressure in the abdomen increases, drawing lymph into thorax
81
Lymphatic capillaries
Larger than blood capillaries When pressure in interstitial spaces is higher than the capillaries the cells fluid enters the lymph system due to anchoring filaments being pulled. Endothelial cells overlap = one way valve
82
Passage of lymph
``` Capillaries Vessels Nodes Trunks Ducts ```
83
What are the 5 trunks and what do they drain?
``` Jugular - head and neck Subclavian - upper limbs Bronchomediastinal - thoracic wall, lungs and heart Intestinal Lumbar - lower limb and pelvic organs ```
84
What drains the right upper quadrant of the body?
The right lymphatic duct: - right jugular - right bronchomediastinal - right subclavian
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What drains most of the body?
Thoracic duct: - lumbar - intestinal - left jugular - left subclavian - left bronchomediastinal
86
Venous angle
Site where the lymph drains into the venous system | It is the junction of the subclavian and internal jugular vein bilaterally .
87
virchow's node
In left supraclavicular area that drains lymph from the gut. When it is enlarged it can be an early sign of intra-abdominal malignancy. It is located at the venous angle .
88
Primary lymphatic organs
stem cells which become immune cells | red bone marrow
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Secondary lymphatic organs
Essential for an efficient immune response and surveillance | e.g. peyers patches, spleen, tonsils and MALT and lymph nodes
90
Thymus
soft triangular organ in the mediastinum, enlarges during childhood then atrophies. T cells mature in the thymus, where they undergo tolerance .
91
Spleen
Main storage site of T independent B cells, e.g. the T independent B cells that produce the IgG2 antibody - eliminates encapsulated bacteria. Contains fixed macrophages. Huge network of capillaries with a long transmit time through the organ so encapsulated bacteria are exposed to the spleen's fixed macrophages for a longer time so the body has a greater chance of defending itself.
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Why are encapsulated bacteria difficult to fight?
They are difficult to recognise as non-self pathogens because of their thick capsule.
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Tolerance
Mechanism to remove immune cells that attack self tissue - autoimmunity. T cells undergo central and peripheral tolerance.
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Positive selection
Makes sure T cells can recognise MHC molecules - MHC I = CD8 and MHC II = CD4
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Negative selection
Occurs after positive selection. If the cells bind strongly to self peptides being displayed on MHC molecules they will undergo apoptosis to remove them.
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Lymphatic drainage of bladder
External iliac
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Lymphatic drainage of prostate
Internal iliac
98
Lymphatic drainage of penis
superficial inguinal
99
Lymphatic drainage of Scrotum
superficial inguinal
100
Lymphatic drainage of testes
para aortic - enlargement is a sign of testicular cancer
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Lymphatic drainage of Ovaries
Lateral and pre-aortic
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Lymphatic drainage of Uterus
Fundus = para-aortic | Body and cervix = internal and external iliac
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Lymphatic drainage of Vagina
Upper 1/3 = external and internal iliac Middle 1/3 = internal iliac Lower 1/3 = superficial inguinal
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Antibodies
5 classes | all have the same basic structure
105
What do antibodies do?
Prevent toxins from damaging tissue prevent pathogens from entering cells highlight the pathogen to phagocytes and help phagocytosis important for encapsulated bacteria and viruses antibodies can cause activation of complement so activate mast cells
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What are the different types of immunity?
Natural passive Artificial passive Natural active Artificial active
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What are the different antibody classes?
``` IgG IgA IgM IgD IgE ```
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IgG
``` monomer important in secondary response pass through the placenta to the fetus have the ability to traverse the blood vessels to tissues most abundant of circulating antibodies ```
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IgA
found in GI tract and respiratory tract - mucus membranes high concentration in breast milk help in transferring immunity to the new born infants
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IgM
Produced in the primary immune response. They are restricted to the blood stream due to high mass . They are important in the primary response .
111
IgD
Present on the surface of B cells where they function as receptors for antigens .
112
IgE
Important in protection against parasites. They are involved mainly in the development of allergic responses. They release histamine which causes contraction of smooth muscles and stimulates secretion of mucus .
113
What are the different types of pathogens?
Bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoa, metazoa and prions
114
What are prions?
Misfolded proteins with the ability to transmit their misfolded shape onto normal variants of the same protein
115
Bacterial replication
DNA is replicated DNA is pulled to separate poles of the bacterium as it increase in size to prepare for splitting The growth of a new cell wall begins to separate the bacterium New daughter cells have tightly coiled DNA, ribosomes and plasmids, DNA gyrase and polymerase
116
Spores
Allow the bacteria to exist in a dormant state complex multi-layered coat that is resistant to heat, drying, alcohol and UV bacteria are able to return to a vegetative state when conditions are favourable
117
Biofilms
Community of bacteria attach to surfaces in extracellular polymeric substances It protects them against desiccation and chemical attack can occur on living or inanimate structures
118
Why are viruses easier to remove from the environment than bacteria?
They don't form spores or biofilms
119
Cleaning
Removal of physical debris from a surface that microorganisms might be supported by. Involves handwashing .
120
Disinfection/ antiseptics
Removal of microorganisms doesn't remove everything antisepsis = disinfection of living tissues
121
Sterilisation
``` Process of destroying all micro-organisms destroys spores pressure and heat in an autoclave blast with gamma rays super fine filters gas ```
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Gram staining
Flood with crystal violet Flood with iodine Decolourise with gram's alcohol flood with safranin counterstain
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Interpreting gram staining
Purple = gram postive Pink = gram negative oblong shape = rod Sphere = cocci
124
PCR
Makes it possible to detect pathogenic viruses or bacteria
125
Process of PCR
95 degrees - denaturation 55 degrees - Annealing 72 degrees = Taq polymerase joins free nucleotides to template
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What is the bacteria that commonly causes UTIs
Enterbacteriacae
127
When does testing for microorganisms need to be done?
From site of infection when the patient is acutely ill - start of the infection
128
When does testing antibodies need to be done?
When the patient is recovering, later on and from the blood .
129
What are the 4 main classes of receptor?
Endocrine Paracrine Synaptic Contact-dependent
130
Endocrine signalling
hormones produced by endocrine cells secreted into the bloodstream act on distant tissues and cells
131
Paracrine signalling
``` hormones/ signals are released by various types of cells secreted locally (not into bloodstream) and diffuses between cells act on cells in near vicinity - short distance ```
132
what are the 3 types of surface receptors?
Ion channel coupled receptors G protein coupled receptors receptor tyrosine kinases - enzyme linked
133
Ion channel coupled receptors
Ligand binds to receptor (ion channel) causes a conformational change allows movement of specific ions change in relative ion concentration across the cell may cause other changes
134
G protein coupled receptors
Absence of the ligand - GPCR is inactive GPCRs bind to G proteins which are a trimeric protein - alpha, beta and gamma subunits G proteins bind GDP when the GPCR is inactive but GTP when active. When GTP binds the trimeric protein splits into 2 signals The G protein hydrolyses the GTP to GDP to inactivate GPCR
135
Enzyme linked receptors
Ligand binds to 2 adjacent receptors which then dimerise Receptors phosphorylate each others intracellular domain Initiates a downstream signalling cascade Most receptor tyrosine kinases activate Ras which cause GDP to become GTP This initiates downward signalling
136
Contact dependent signalling
requires direct contact between 2 cells e.g. through gap junctions or through cell surface molecules .
137
Gap junctions
Hexameric channels that allow diffusion of small molecules between the 2 connected cells usually smaller molecules - ions all coordinated contraction of cardiac muscle cells
138
Cell-surface molecules
signalling molecule is not secreted, it is bound to the surface of the signalling cell there is a receptor on the surface of the target cell cells need to be in close vicinity to make a molecular contact
139
what is the difference between gram positive and negative bacteria?
Gram positive has a thick peptidoglycan cell wall and no outer lipid membrane but gram positive bacteria has a thin peptidoglycan cell wall and an outer lipid membrane . The gram positive retain the crystal violet stain, making them purple, but the gram negative are only coloured by the safranin counterstain as they cannot retain the crystal violet.
140
What is peyers patches
Small masses of lymphatic tissue found in the small intestine. They monitor intestinal bacteria