Immunocompromised Flashcards

(25 cards)

1
Q

Describe the difference between a primary and an opportunistic pathogen?

A

Primary - can cause disease in healthy non immune hosts

Opportunistic - causes serious disease in immunocompromised, rarely in healthy

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2
Q

Describe the difference between primary and secondary immunodeficiency

A

Primary - result of the genetic effect

Secondary - acquired, as a result of the environment

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3
Q

What are the endogenous and exogenous sources of infection?

A

Endogenous - from the patient’s own body - eg e.coli from GI causing infection in urinary tract

Exogenous - external source

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4
Q

Give examples of primary and secondary immunodeficiencies

A

Primary

  • chronic granulomatous disease (neutrophil or macrophage impairment)
  • complement defect
  • T defect / B defect

Secondary

  • HIV
  • diabetes
  • cancer
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5
Q

What two pathogens are patients with the burns most susceptible to?

A

Pseudomonas and staph aureus

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6
Q

What type of bacteria are patients with splenectomy most susceptible to and why? Name them.

A

Most susceptible to capsule bacteria because the spleen’s function is to phagocyte the capsule

  • pneumococci
  • haemophilus
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7
Q

What two infections are pregnant women most susceptible to?

A

UTI and listeria (food, cheese)

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8
Q

Name 3 pathogens that individuals with HIV are most susceptible to

A
  • pneumocystis jirovecii
  • toxoplasmosis
  • CMV
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9
Q

How does pneumocystis jirovecii present in patients with HIV?

A
  • lung infections/pneumonias
  • non-productive cough, fever
  • perihilar infiltrate
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10
Q

How does toxoplasmosis present in patients with HIV?

A
  • CNS lesions
  • CT scan - ring lesions
  • seizures, decreased consciousness
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11
Q

How do humans become infected with toxoplasmosis? Where from?

A

Cats faeces

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12
Q

What the are prophylaxis medication treatment in HIV patients for the following pathogens:

  • pneumocystis
  • mycobacterium avium intracellulare
  • CMV
A
  • pneumocystis - co-trimoxazole
  • mycobacterium avium intracellulare - rifabutin
  • CMV - ganciclovir
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13
Q

Define the classical Pyrexia of Unknown Origin

A
  • pyrexia >38.3
  • no obvious cause
  • for 3 weeks
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14
Q

What categories of the Pyrexia of Unknown Origin exist? Name 4

A
  • classical
  • nasocomial
  • neutropenic
  • HIV associated
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15
Q

What is the difference between the different categories of the Pyrexia of Unknown Origin?

A
  • classical >3 weeks
  • nasocomial - hospital acquired
  • neutropenic - neutrophils <500
  • HIV associated - HIV present
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16
Q

What is the typical treatment Listeria monocytogenes?

A

ampicillin + gentamicin

17
Q

What is the treatment of Listeria in pregnancy?

A

Ampicillin + gentamycin

18
Q

What common organism causes diarrhoea in HIV?

A

Cryptosporidium parvum

19
Q

What is the initial treatment of TB?

A

RIPE - all 4 drugs for 2 months

20
Q

What complications can Chicken pox cause if a pregnant mother is exposed? When is she more susceptible and what can be done?

A

Complications:

  • child - congenital varicella syndrome
  • mother - pneumonitis

In particular if <20 weeks

Give VZIG - antibody within 10 days

21
Q

How is Parvovirus B19 spread?

How is it treated if hydrops fetalis develops?

A

Via respiratory droplets

Fetal (intrauterine )transfusion is possible if hydrops develops due to B19 infection

22
Q

What organism causes Infectious Mononucleosis?

23
Q

How would you test for Infectious Mononucleosis?

A

Monospot serology

24
Q

Which two antibiotics are nephrotoxic and ototoxic?

A

Gentomycin and Vancomycin

therefore calculate the dose carefully based on body weight AND lean body mass

25
What antibiotic would you prescribe for MRSA?
Vancomycin