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Incorrect MCQ - Week of 11/25 Flashcards

1
Q

What is Dourine disease?
How is it transmitted?
What is the etiologic agent?
What are the clinical signs?
Is this disease commonly found in the U.S?
This disease is similar to what other disease process of horses?

A

Dourine disease is a chronic venereal disease of horses.

Transmitted during sexual intercourse.

Etiologic agent is Trypanosoma equiperdum.

Clinical signs include mucoid vaginal discharge (containing trypanosomes) and genital edema in mares and progresses to gross edema of the genitalia, “silver dollar” dermal plaques, emaciation, progressive paralysis.

This disease is not commonly found in the U.S. It is reportable!!

This disease is similar to Contagious Equine Metritis. Caused by Taylorella equigenitalis. Think of mucopurulent vaginal discharge & endometritis in a horse recently imported from Europe or Japan. This disease is reportable!!!

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2
Q

What dog breeds are prediposed to developing dilated cardiomyopathy?

List the etiologies of DCM.

List the diagnostic and tx options for DCM.

Prognosis

A

Great Danes
Doberman Pinschers
Irish Wolfounds
Standard Poodles
Boxers
Cocker Spaniels

Etiologies:
1. Taurine deficiency
2. Carnitine responsive - boxers
3. Chagas disease
4. Parvovirus infection (in utero) - rare b/c of vaccination
5. Adriamycin/Doxorubicin (cumulative doses)

Dx:
1. Radiographs = generalized cardiomegaly, dilated pulmonary vessels, +/- perihilar infiltrate in compensated disease
2. ECG: ventricular ectopic beats commonly seen
3. Echo: LA and LV dilation (left auricular bulge), mitral valve regurg, +/- RA and RV dilation

Tx:
1. Antiarrthymics: Sotalol, mexilitene
2. ACE Inhibitors: Enalapril (Inhibits conversion of angiotensin I into angiotensin II –> lowers BP)
3. Positive ionotrope/Inodilator: Pimobendan (increases cardiac contractility and promotes vasodilation)
4. Loop diuretic: Furosemide (for CHF cases)

Prognosis is fair. Dogs can live for several years. If started before onset of CHF, Pimobendan can extend life expectancy by 1 yr but then prognosis after that is poor.

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3
Q

Dobermans have two genetic mutations that can lead to the development of DCM - name them. What is the likelihood of developing DCM if a patient has both genetic mutations?

A

PDK4, DCM2
Dogs with both genetic mutations are 30x more likely to develop DCM than a normal dog.

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4
Q

Define insensible fluids. What is the normal volume loss for insensible fluids in a dog for a 24-hr time period?

A

Insensible fluids are fluids the animals loses that are hard to measure, such as breathing.
20 ml/kg/day

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5
Q

What are the clinical signs of small intestinal incarceration or strangulation in horses?

How is it diagnosed? Treated?

SI incarceration can occur through?

A

C/S: Progressively painful, copious nasogastric reflux, deteriorating metabolic status

Dx:
1. Rectal exam - multiple loops of distended small intestine
2. Rectal US - same as above
3. Place NG tube - copious NG reflux (more than 2L)

Tx: Sx +/- resection

SI incarceration can occur through the epiploic foramen, mesenteric rents, inguinal orifice, umbilical orifice

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6
Q

Define Evans syndrome.
What dog breed is predisposed to this condition?

A

Evans syndrome is IMHA + IMT
Cocker spaniels are prediposed.

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7
Q

Pseudocowpox leave what characteristic lesion?

A

Pseudocowpox heal from the center and leave a characteristic horseshoe or ring of scabs.

This disease is zoonotic! Milkers will have lesions on their hands.

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8
Q

Prolonged tx for EPM with antifolate AB like sulfadiazine or sulfamethoxazole may cause?

A

Anemia
Monitor CBC

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9
Q

What is the meningeal worm of white-tailed deer? What does it cause?

A

Paralaphostrongylus tenuis (P. tenuis) causes traumatic and inflammatory myeloencephalomeningitis in cervids, goats, and sheep and less often can infect cattle and camelids. Pass through host CNS as part of their lifecycle.

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10
Q

What AB should be avoided when treating cases of botulism and why?

A

Gentamicin, an aminoglycoside AB, should be avoided due to its association with the adverse effect of neuromuscular blockade. Other adverse effects of aminoglycosides include nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity.

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11
Q

Necroticizing meningoencephalitis is most commonly seen in what dog breeds of what age group?

What are the clinical signs? Dx? Tx?

Prognosis

A

Pugs < 5 yo (usually around 18 mo old), Maltese, Yorkie, Chihuahua, French bulldogs

Clinical signs include forebrain, brainstem, or meningitis neurological signs.

Dx: MRI, CSF tap

Tx:
1. Anti-seizure medications
2. Immunosuppressants: corticosteroids +/- cyclosporine, mycophenolate, cytarabine

Prognosis is fair to guarded; 1-2 yrs

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12
Q

What types of flies are these? What disease do they carry?

What are the C/S, dx, and tx? Prevention?

A

These are horn flies and they carry Stephanofilaria stilesi, the causative agent of stephanofilariasis.

C/S: plaque-like dermatitis along the ventral midline of cattle.

Dx: microfilaria on deep skin scraping.

Tx: Incidental finding - no tx needed.

Prevention: Dust bags, feed-through insect growth regulators or insecticides, insecticide impregnated ear tags, or pour-on insecticides.

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13
Q

What are the clinical signs of pericardial effusion in a dog? List the etiologies, diagnostics, and tx

A

C/S: Exercise intolerance, tachycardia, tachypnea, muffled heart sounds, abdominal distension, pale mm, pulsus paradoxocus

Dx:
1. Radiographs - round, globoid cardiac silhouette; dilated caudal vena cava, ascites
2. ECG - tachycardia, electrical alterans
3. Echocardiogram - fluid filled pericardium, failing right heart, possible mass

Tx:
1. Pericardiocentesis, possible pericardectomy if recurrent effusions occurring.
2. If right auricular hemangiosarcoma - possible surgical resection
3. If lymphoma, chemodectoma, mesothelioma, or RA HSA = chemotherapy

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14
Q

Primiparous blood type B queens can have anti-A antibodies with or without prior exposure?

A

WITHOUT prior exposure

Type A queens can have anti-B antibodies but these are weaker than the antibodies seen in type B queens

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15
Q

Why do dogs with iatrogenic hyperadrenocorticism have little to no response to ACTH stim tests?

A

Chronic steroid use –> negative feedback on adrenals –> renal atrophy –> little to no response to ACTH stim test

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16
Q

What volume of daily water consumption is consistent with polydipsia in a dog?

A

Over 100 ml/kg/d

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17
Q

How long is estrus in gilts compared to multiparous sows?

A

Estrus is shorter in gilts compared to multiparous sows

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18
Q

Describe cryptosporidiosis in an adult corn snake.

A

Cryptosporidiosis affect the gastric mucosa causing decreased segmented motility and significant thickening of the gastric rugae.

C/S: Postprandial regurgitation, weight loss, chronic debilitation.

Dx: Contrast radiographs, endoscopy, acid-fast feces staining, etc.

Tx: Hyperimmune bovine colostrum has been consistently effective + aggressive supportive care. Euthanasia is reasonable. NOT ZOONOTIC

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19
Q

What bony disorder an develop secondary to Spirocerca lupi infection?

A

Hypertrophic osteopathy
- Look for lesions at the distal aspect of all four limbs.

Spirocerca lupi affects the esophagus, aorta, and thoracic vertebrae

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20
Q

The use of compounded medication is an example of?

A

Extra-label drug use

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21
Q

How many vertebrae do dogs have? Cats?

A

Dogs - 54 vertebrae (7 cervical, 13 thoracic, 7 lumbar, 3 sacral, 20-23 caudal vertebrae in tail)
Cats - 30 (7 cervical, 13 thoracic, 7 lumbar, 3 sacral, 18-23 caudal vertebrae in tail)

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22
Q

Foals whose dams are fed what supplements can be born with a hyperplastic goiter?

A

Kelp, rape, cabbage, soybeans, kale, turnips

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23
Q

Loss of patellar reflex and inability to bear weight on the hind limbs means there is a lesion at what spinal vertebrae?

A

L4-L6
When see loss of patellar reflex thing femoral nerve!

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24
Q

Intact withdrawal reflex means what nerve is intact? What spinal vertebrae is this nerve located at?

A

Sciatic nerve, L7-S1

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25
What is the difference between parakeratosis and greasy pig disease in pigs?
Parakeratosis is characterized by excessive keratinization with a horny scale that, when removed, reveals fissures. Greasy pig disease can look the same but is seen in younger pigs (1-10 weeks old).
26
Define paronychia
Paronchyia is swelling around a single nail bed which can be caused by neoplasia, infection, or immune-mediated disease.
27
Define onychorrhexis.
Brittle nails that are split and easily broken. Multiple may be idiopathic - think dachshunds or associated with dermatophytosis or leishmaniasis.
28
Define onychomycosis
Fungal infections of the nail bed such as Trichophyton mentagrophytes. Tend to be generalized not single nail infections.
29
Define onychomadesis.
Sloughing of the nail off the nail bed and may occur with almost any nail disease.
30
Define nail dystrophy
Nail dystrophy is a syndrome of generalized nail deformities caused by congenital malformation or zinc responsive dermatosis
31
What is transmissible gastroenteritis in pigs? What is the etiologic agent? C/S? Dx? Tx? What is something important to remember about mortality in naive herds?
TGE is a diarrheal disease of pigs and is caused by a coronavirus. (Porcine epidemic diarrhea virus also has the same EA, CS, Tx). TGE affects pigs of all ages. C/S include: profuse watery yellow diarrhea, weight loss, dehydration, vomiting. Necropsy: distended small intestine; microscopically can see extreme villous blunting in the jejunum. Tx: Feed the pigs there own feces to create herd immunity. Mortality is inversely proportional to age (highest in neonates).
32
What is the best diagnostic test to run for canine influenza?
PCR on nasal swabs + acute and convalescent titers.
33
What is the most definitive method of diagnosing tuberculosis in camelids?
Bacterial culture and isolation
34
What avian ectoparasite is pictured below? Is this common in old or young birds? How do they acquire this infection? What are the C/S? Dx? Tx?
Knemidocoptes pilae. More common in older birds that are immunosuppressed. C/S: White, porous, proliferative encrustations around the mouth, cere, and beak. Similar lesions can be seen around the vent. Dx: Facial scraping Tx: Ivermectin
35
What cardiac arrhythmia is seen below?
VPCs
36
What is the first clinical sign seen in cattle with pyelonephritis? What is the most common etiologic agent?
Hematuria is the first clinical sign; other c/s include straining to urinate, anorexia, fever, etc. Corynebacterium renale, Trueperella spp, or E.coli
37
What is the most common cause of endometritis in mares? What are the most common clinical signs? Tx?
Streptococcus equi subsp. zooepidemicus C/S: infertility +/- vulvar discharge Tx: AB/saline uterine lavage, ecbolic drugs such as oxytocin and prostaglanin, sexual rest, +/- caslick's surgery (only if vulvar conformation is normal).
38
After the first rabies vaccination when is a dog or cat or ferret considered to be fully immunized and protected against rabies?
After 28 days
39
Tx for dysphoria post op is ?
Administering acepromazine (a phenothiazine derivative psychotropic drug) or dexmedetomidine (an alpha-2 agonist) If unresponsive, administer naloxone to reverse dysphoria caused by hydromorphone.
40
What blood marker is sensitive and specific of acute myocardial injury?
Cardiac troponin I
41
What is the most common cause of photosenitization in cattle?
Type 3 Photosensitization: impaired biliary excretion of phylloerythrin (a porphyrin), which is a normal by-product of chlorophyll metabolism.
42
What is bone spavin?
Bone spavin is osteoarthrosis of the distal intertarsal joints. C/S: Stiff hind limbs at trot, dragging hind toes, flexion test +. Periarticular bone formation can lead to ankylosis of the joints, returning them to soundness. Tx: Corticosteroid injections, surgical or chemical arthrodesis.
43
What is the most common underlying cause of the equine dystocia?
Postural abnormalities due to long extremities
44
What is the youngest age at which a horse will have all of its permanent incisors? When do deciduous incisors erupt in foals?
5 yrs old (begin errupting at 2.5, 3.5, and 4.5 yrs) 1 week, 6 weeks, 6 months
45
What is the most appropriate way to estimate a horse's age?
Evaluate lower incisors for the central white spot of the dental star (arrows) which changes with age as the tooth wears
46
What drug family is associated with tooth enamel problems? What other problems does this drug class cause?
Tetracyclines; also potentially nephrotoxic so do not use in renal insufficiency
47
What are the side effects of fluoroquinolones?
Fluroquinolones, such as enrofloxacin, can lead to retinal degeneration in cats and articular cartilage defects in young growing dogs and foals.
48
What adverse side effects are associated with cephalosporins?
Cephalosporins, such as cephalexin, ceftriaxone, and ceftiofur can cause pain at injection site and risk of hypersensitivity.
49
The corneal reflex may be absent at what stage of anesthesia?
Stage IV aka anesthesia overdose. The corneal reflex should NEVER be gone unless patient is paralyzed with a neuromuscular blocker. Corneal reflex: an involuntary blinking response that occurs when something touches the cornea of the eye
50
There are no planes of anesthesia in stages?
1, 2
51
What are the top differential diagnoses of a canine skull tumor?
Chondrosarcoma, multilobular osteochondrosarcoma, osteosarcoma OA is the most common primary bone tumor of dogs. Chondrosarcoma is the second most common primary bone tumor.
52
Swainsonine is a toxin found in what plants? What happens if ingested?
Astragalus and Oxytropis - called locoweeds, vetches, or milk vetches Ingestion of swainsonine --> neurologic signs of cerebral disease called locoism. (think of high mountain disease)
53
Bracken fern contains what toxins?
Glycosides, thiaminase
54
Oleander contains what toxins?
Cardiac glycosides
55
Rectal prolapse occurs most frequently in horses experiencing?
Dystocia
56
What etiology causes diarrhea in lambs and kids at 3-4 weeks of age?
Cocciodiosis (crypto affects lambs and kids 1-10 days of age) Coccidiosis is most common in lambs and kids 1-6 mo of age but clinical signs do not show until 3-4 weeks of age. C/S include diarrhea (+/- blood, mucous), inappetance, weight loss, anemia, wool break, death. Dx: difficult b/c many shed various species of coccidia and/or can see c/s before oocysts are shed in feces. Tx: Supportive care, coccidiostats for prevention
57
What should the target calving interval be for dairy cattle? Heat detection? First service conception rate? Average # of days open? Services per conception?
13 months Prolonged intervals may be due to poor estrus detection, failure of fertiliztion, early embryonic death, anestrus or cystic ovarian disease
58
What % of body weight is plasma volume?
4% 1/3 tbw = extracellular, 2/3 tbw = intracellular
59
Ruminants are more sensitive than monogastric animals to ______ toxicity?
Cyanide poisoning.
60
What production animal is most sensitive to copper toxicity?
Sheep
61
What is the most common cause of splenomegaly in cats?
MCT
62
List the adverse side effects of morphine?
Increase in intracranial pressure due to hypoventilation. Use with caution in patients with brain tumors, head injuries, or increase ICP. Common side effects: Nausea, vomiting, decreased intestinal peristalsis, panting.
63
How can you tell the difference between nuclear sclerosis and cataracts in canine patients?
In cases of nuclear sclerosis, light is able to pass through the lens + tapetal reflection is intact. This does not occur in canine patients with cataracts + tapetal reflection is not intact
64
Name the most common bacterial isolates in sheep, goats, horses, and bovine in cases of bacterial endocarditis:
Sheep and goats: Trueperella pyogenes and alpha-hemolytic streptococcus Horses: Streptococcus and Actinobacillus spp. Bovine: Trueperella pyogenes
65
How would you treat a canine patient suffering from calcium oxalate or calcium phosphate urinary stones?
Surgical removal and treat underlying cause of hypercalcemia, if applicable. Prevent reoccurrence by prescribing a low protein, alkalinizing diet
66
Answer the following in regards to Mycoplasma hemofelis in cats: 1. Alternative name? 2. Signalment 3. Transmission 4. Diagnostics 5. Treatment 6. Once infected these cats are?
1. Hemotropic mycoplasmosis 2. Male outdoor cats 3. Unknown; fighting, blood-sucking arthropod vectors, transplacental transfer, blood transfusion 4. Blood smear - cocci in rings on surface of RBC, PCR 5. Doxycyline or a fluoroquinolone (enrofloxacin); ONLY use steroids in patients with severe anemia, do not respond to AB therapy, or when primary immune-mediated etiology is possible. 6. Become carriers!
67
What is the treatment of choice for traumatic reticuloperitonitis/pericarditis in cattle? How can this be prevented?
Cull because tx is often unrewarding. Prevent by putting magnet in every cow
68
Describe the clinical presentation of munge in llamas. What is the age of onset? How is it treated?
Munge is characterized by hyperkeratosis around the nose and mouth. Average onset of C/S is 6 mo - 2yrs old. Tx: 10% povidone iodine scrub to tx secondary bacterial infections, 7% tincture iodine; topical glucocorticoid or intralesional triamcinolone acetonide if minimal response
69
T/F: Up to 30% of cats with diabetes mellitus can achieve remission with tight glycemic control and treating concurrent disease.
True!
70
Salmon poisoning in dogs is caused by? Transmission? Dx? Tx?
Neorickettsia helminthoeca Ingestion of raw fish infected with the fluke parasite. Dx: look for operculated fluke eggs on zinc sulfate fecal flotation or sedimentation. Abd US - mesenteric lymphadenopathy, giemsa-stained lymph node aspirates may reveal intracytoplasmic rickettsial bodies. PCR - confirm Dx: Doxycycline
71
What are the clinical signs of an inguinal hernia in a horse? Dx? Tx?
Unilateral swelling with concomitant pain and colic + recent history of breeding. Dx: transrectal us would identify loops of intestine passing through internal inguinal ring, US - intestine inside scrotum Tx: surgery! this is an emergency
72
What are the clinical signs of sacroiliac disease in horses?
1. Intermittent hindlimb lameness localized in the croup (rump) 2. Back pain 3. Swelling over tuber sacrale (hunter's bumps)
73
What medication is contraindicated in the tx of organophosphate toxicity?
Acepromazine b/c may exacerbate clinical signs
74
When is atropine contraindicated in a canine or feline patient administered dexmedetomidine?
75
76
77
Answer the following in regards to Von Willebrand Disease: 1. Breed disposition 2. Clinical signs 3. Forms 4. Diagnostics 5. Treatment 6. vWF is a factor ____ related antigen which assists in the _____ step in clot formation by facilitating ?
1. Breed disposition: Doberman pinscher, German Shepherds, corgis, shetland sheepdog, mini schnauzer, scottish terrier, golden retriever, standard poodle 2. Clinical signs - Excessive bleeding or bruising after venipuncture or sx, epistaxis, gingival bleeding, hematuria 3. Forms: Type 1 = most common form that produces a truncated vWF, Type 2 = German shorthaired pointers and wirehaired pointers with low vWF, Type 3 = Shetland sheepdogs and scottish terriers have the rarest and most severe form where there is no vWF at all!! 4. Diagnostics: Measure vWF concentration, genetic testing (NOTE: Platelet count, PTT, and PT are NORMAL) 5. Treatment: - Cryoprecipitate, fresh plasma, whole blood - Desmopressin: mobilizes high-molecular weight hemostatic multimers from endothelial granules NOTE: Levothyroxine may worsen disease 6. vWF is a factor VIII related antigen which assists in the first step in clot formation by facilitating platelet adhesion.
78
Atrial bigeminy or atrial premature contractions
79
80
Acepromazine is what drug class? What are its side effects?
Acepromazine is a phenothiazine tranquilizer/sedative that leads to anti-emesis, vasodilation, muscle relaxation, and has anti-arrythmic properties (when administered with halothane). DOES NOT PROVIDE ANALGESIA Anti-emesis + sedation = by blocking dopamine receptors Vasodilation + hypotension = by blocking alpha-1 adrenergic receptors
81
diarrhea
82
What is the AB of choice for the tx of tetanus in ruminants?
Penicillin (although it has proconvulsant activity so metronidazole is technically the tx of choice but you are unable to use it in food animals in North America)
83
Is there a zoonotic risk?
Toxocara cati (roundworms) YES! Humans can develop visceral larva migrans or ocular larva migrans
84
Xylazine is not as effective of a sedative in what production animal species?
Swine! Swine respond poorly to alpha-2 agonists unless add an opioid and/or a benzodiazepine.
85
What test is prolonged first in a case of anticoagulant toxicity - PT or PTT?
PT because factor VII has the shortest half life
86
What is common to all estrus synchronization protocols for AI in beef heifers and cows?
PGF2a
87
Equine coital exanthema is caused by? Does it affect fertility? Tx?
EHV-3 No! Isolate mare until lesions have healed
88
89
In all cases of extrahepatic biliary obstruction there is a lack of bile entry into the intestinal tract leading to decreased absorption of?
Fat and fat soluble vitamins such as vitamin K, potentially resulting in coagulopathies.
90
A foal is presented who was born healthy but has become weak and icteric at two days of age. The foal begins to have seizures and other signs of encephalopathy. Bilirubin levels are as follows: - Bilirubin Total = 6.3 (N = 0.4-2.8) - Bilirubin Unconjugated = 5.9 (N = 0.1-2.8) - Bilirubin Conjugated = 0.4 (N = 0.2-0/6) What is your top differential?
Kernicterus - deposition of unconjugated bilirubin in the CNS and can result from the high levels of serum bilirubin seen in foals with neonatal isoerythrolysis, the top differential for this foal.
91
What drug can mitigate GI ulcerative effects of NSAIDs in dogs?
Misoprostol, a prostaglandin E1 Analog, has cytoprotective effects on the GI mucosa.
92
What surgical procedure is recommended for removal of malignant ear canal tumors such as ceruminous gland adenocarcinoma?
Total ear canal ablation Lateral ear canal resection is appropriate for benign tumors
93
What should the following values be for milk being sold for human consumption? Somatic cell count Coliforms Lab standard bacterial count Lab pasteurized count Milk temperature
Somatic cell count = < 750,000 Coliforms = < 10 Lab standard bacterial count = < 100,000 Lab pasteurized count = < 300 Milk temperature = < 7 degrees Celsius by 2 hours post milking
94
What is the only other acceptable method of euthanasia of rabbits and rodents when other methods, such as lethal injection, are not available?
Cervical dislocation
95
What plants contain pyrrolizidine alkaloids? What are the toxic effects?
Senecio (ragwort) Chronic ingestion results in hepatic fibrosis
96
What are the three components of canine elbow displasia? Is this seen in one or both elbows?
Ununited anconeal process, fragmented medial coronoid process, osteochondrosis of the medial humeral condyle. Often bilateral
97
Answer the following in regards to Aspirin ingestion in felids: 1. C/S 2. Pathophysiology 3. Diagnostics 4. Tx 5. Prognosis
1. C/S: Hyperthermia, seizures, GI ulcers, hepatic dysfunction 2. Pathophysiology: Aspirin's toxic metabolite is salicylic acid which prevents clotting for the lifespan of the platelet. 3. Diagnostics: Prolonged buccal mucosal bleeding time, anemia + low protein (GI ulcers), increased liver enzymes and hyperbilibrubinemia 4. Tx: Emesis if recent exposure, AC repeated once only, IVF, GI protectants, anti-seizure meds, blood transfusions 5. Prognosis: varies; depends on if there are neuro signs
98
What AB are ok in rabbits, guinea pigs, hamsters, and rodents?
Enrofloxacin, Trimethoprim sulfa, Chloramphenicol
99
What is the etiologic agent of Guttural Pouch mycosis in horses? What is the most common clinical sign?
Aspergillus spp. Most common clinical sign is epistaxis. Other clinical signs include dysphagia, horner's syndrome
100
What drug is associated with penis protrusion in horses?
Acepromazine
101
Describe the cycle type of each of the following species: 1. Cattle 2. Sheep 3. Goat 4. Pig 5. Horse 6. Alpaca 7. Dog 8. Cat
1. Cattle, pig, alpaca - Polyestrous all year 2. Sheep, Goat, Horse, Cat - Seasonally polyestrous - Horse - Seasonally polyestrous (spring through summer) - Cat - Seasonally polyestrous (spring through early fall) 3. Dog - Monoestrous all year
102
Toxicity due to iron supplementation is more common in piglets that are deficient in ?
Vitamin E and Selenium
103
104
Define financial equity for a veterinary practice
Amt that owners would get if practice sold after debts paid.
105
What disease would lead to the development of a 3cm mass in the right atrium, resulting in condemnation of a bovid carcass?
Bovine leukosis
106
A blind canine patient with normal PLRs has a lesion in what part of the brain?
Occipital cortex or optic tracts This is called central blindness
107
Name the antibiotics that fight anaerobic infections.
Metronidazole Cephalosporins (cephalexin, and others) Lincosamin (Clindamycin) Chloramphenicol
108
Name the antibiotics that do not fight anaerobic infections.
Fluoroquinolones (Enrofloxacin) Aminoglycosides (Gentamicin, amikacin, neomycin) These are better for gram - infections
109
What AB is the treatment for abscesses or bite wounds in cats?
Antirobe - Clindamycin!!
110
Name all the reversal agents for xylazine.
Xylazine is an alpha-2 agonist Reversals include: Yohimbine, atipamezole, and tolazoline
111
112
Potomac horse fever
113
T/F: Renal carcinoma is typically unilateral so does not cause azotemia.
TRUE
114
Onchocerca cervicalis
115
After how much time in a placenta considered retained in a cow vs a horse?
Cow: 12-24 hrs; normally expelled in 3-8 hrs. Horse: 3 hrs; normally expelled in 90 minutes
116
The optimal time to artificially inseminate a cow is how much time after the onset of estrus?
16-24 hrs; Difficult to determine because may not always see onset so there are three rules: 1. AM-PM rule 2. Breed when you see cow standing in estrus and then again if still in heat 12 hrs later 3. Breed only mid morning
117
What type of anemia is iron deficiency anemia?
Microcytic hypochromic non-regenerative anemia
118
119
Describe the equine lameness sclae 1-5
120
The palmar digital block anesthetizes the?
The entire foot
121
The abaxial block anesthetizes the?
Foot + pastern
122
The low-4 point block anesthetizes the?
Foot, pastern, fetlock
123
The high 4-point block anesthetizes the?
Foot, pastern, fetlock, metacarpus/metatarsus (bones + soft tissues)
124
amitraz tox

NAVLE (19 decks)

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