Incorrect MCQ - Week of 12/02 Flashcards
1
Q
What is the difference in size between Coccidiosis cysts and Cryptosporidosis cysts?
A
Coccidiosis cysts can range from 10 to 30 micrometers in size depending on the species, cryptosporidiosis oocysts are typically only 4-6 micrometers in diameter,
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Q
What medication is used to treat Coccidiosis in dogs and cats?
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Trimethoprim-sulfonamide
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4
Q
What is your top differential?
A
Pleural effusion
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Q
If you accidentally remove the parathyroid gland in a hypothyroid cat the cat is now at risk of becoming?
A
Hypocalcemic
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Q
What do kidney values look like for cats that are FLUTD?
A
Azotemic, hyperkalemic
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Q
What do you see diagnostically in a cat with FIP?
A
Viscous straw-colored modified transudate with increased neutrophils, macrophages, and protein > 3.5
Hypoalbuminemia, hyperglobulinemia
CSF - mononuclear pleocytosis, elevated protein
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Q
What chemotherapeutic agent is used to treat feline mammary tumors?
A
Doxorubin
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Q
How do you dx and tx lymphosarcoma in cats?
A
Dx - FNA +/- biopsy during exploratory laparotomy
Tx - Doxorubicin + other agents; for small cell GI LSA - tx with prednisolone and chlorambucil
10
Q
FeLV is linked with what forms of lymphoma?
A
Most forms EXCEPT GI
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Q
FIV cats are more likely to develop?
A
5X more likely to develop LSA
12
Q
What feline species are at an increased risk of developing ringworm?
A
Persians, Himalayans
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Q
How do you tx severe caudal dermatitis in a cat?
A
Teeth extractions
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Q
Horner’s syndrome is caused by loss of what innervation ?
A
Sympathetic innervation
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Q
What are the causes of horner’s syndrome in cats?
A
Brachial plexus avulsion
T1-T3 spinal cord trauma
Otitis media
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Q
Ureterolithiasis is a condition in cats known as?
Most commonly composed of?
A
Big kidney, little kidney
Calcium oxalate
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Q
What is the name of coccidiosis infection in cats?
A
Cystoisospora felis because the most common cocciodiosis species in cats is isospora
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Q
The tx of choice for Cryptosporidiosis in cats dogs, cats, and humans is?
A
Azithromycin
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A
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Q
What is the difference between tropicamide and pilocarpine?
A
Tropicamide - topical mydriatic
Pilocarpine - topical miotic agent
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Q
What type of insulin is used to tx feline diabetes?
A
Glargine: lasts 12 hrs
PZI: lasts 12 hrs
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What type of insulin is used to tx canine diabetes?
NPH: 10-12 hrs in dogs, 8 hrs in cats
Vetsulin: 12 hrs
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What are the findings on bloodwork of a patient with suspect ethylene glylcol toxicity?
hyperphosphatemia
hyperkalemia
hyperglycemia
hypocalcemia
isosthenuric
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Define the following terms:
1. Anisocytosis
2. Spherocytosis
3. Poikilocytosis
4. Schistocytosis
1. Anisocytosis: RBC different sizes
2. Spherocytosis: RBC different shape
3. Poikilocytosis: RBC abnormally shape
4. Schistocytosis: RBC fragmented
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What do you see on BW of a canine patient with parvovirus?
Leukopenia, neutropenia
Hypoalbuminemia
Hypoglycemic
Pre-renal azotemia
Hypokalemia
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A false-positive ELISA test for canine parvovirus may be seen when?
5-15 days after vaccination
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What is the MOA of a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor ?
inhibiting the enzyme carbonic anhydrase, which directly reduces the production of aqueous humor in the eye, thereby lowering intraocular pressure (IOP)
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How do you diagnose bovine lymphosarcoma?
Lymph node biopsy and histopathology is gold standard. Can also do ELISA or PCR
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How do you diagnose ketosis in bovine?
Measure betahydroxybutyric acid in blood (best), milk, or urine. If clinically ketotic they will have a BHB level > 14.4 in whole blood.
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How do you diagnose BVD?
Viral isolation is gold standard but PCR on whole blood, tissues, or semen is the rapid test of choice. ELISA on blood, tissue, ear notch
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How do you diagnose Johnne's disease?
Fecal culture = gold standard
PCR on feces or tissue = most common
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What is a potential risk of treating dogs with Oclacitinib?
Oclacitinib aka Apoquel may cause an increase in risk of infection
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What is the mot common cause of protein losing nephropathies in dogs? What is a more uncommon cause and what dog breed is predisposed?
- Glomerulonephritis
- Soft coated wheatens develop a breed-associated glomerulopathy; tx with an ACE inhibitor such as benazepril
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What is a common cause of infectious endocarditis in dogs?
Bartonellosis (B. vinsonii subsp. berkhoffi)
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How do you treat Afib?
Diltiazem
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List the etiologies of cutaneous vasculitis Cutaneous vasculitis is typically treated with?
Idiopathic, familial - like in jack russell and scottish terriers, german shepherds, secondary bacterial infections, systemic lupus erythematosus, rickettsial diseases.
Pentoxifylline and steroids such as prednisone or cyclosporine
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Methicillin resistant staph is resistant to what antimicrobials? What is the preferred tx?
All beta-lactams aka penicillin, cephalosporins, carbapenams; often also resistant to tetracycline and streptomycin.
Preferred tx is topical AB including mupirocin, fusidic acid
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Describe the clinical signs seen in a patient with a spinal chord lesion at L4-S3
Normal thoracic limbs bc lesion caudal to thoracic limbs, LMN deficits to pelvic limbs b/c the lesion is where our spinal nerves come off the lumbosacral intumescence.
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Describe the clinical signs seen in a patient with a spinal chord lesion at T3-L3
◦ MOST COMMON FOR IVDD
‣ Caudal thoracic cranial lumbar region is most common area b/c lack of support in that specific region
‣ Loss of descending inhibition to pelvic limbs aka UMN deficits to pelvic limbs, thoracic limbs are normal b/c lesion is caudal to our thoracic limbs (caudal to T3).
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Describe the clinical signs seen in a patient with a spinal chord lesion at C6-T2
◦ All motor neurons come off to innervate our thoracic limbs and brachial plexus
◦ LMN signs in thoracic limbs, UMN signs in pelvic limbs, Tetraparesis (two engine gait where thoracic and pelvic limb gait is different aka LMN to thoracic, UMN to pelvic)+/- absent cutaneous trunci, Horner syndrome if lesion at T1-T3
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Describe the clinical signs seen in a patient with a spinal chord lesion at C1-C5
◦ Innervation for respiration here
◦ UMN deficits to all limbs (worse in pelvic limbs b/c tracts are more superficial and compressed more easily), Cutaneous trunci normal
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Pimobendan is well tolerated in all patients except those with...
Cardiac arrhythmias
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Describe a classic case of cervical spondylomyelopathy in a canine.
- difficulty rising after lying down
- hindlimb weakness and ataxia
- CP's are intact in thoracic limbs but absent in pelvic limbs. Neuro exam is otherwise normal (spinal reflexes, nociception, withdrawal are normal)
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Describe winter dysentery in cattle.
Winter dysentery is characterized by profound fluid diarrhea with a significant drop in milk production during the winter months. The etiology is technically unknown but it is proposed to be bovine coronavirus. There is no specific tx and animals usually recover on their own
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Answer the following in regards to Brucellosis:
1. What are the clinical signs? How is it transmitted?
2. How is it diagnosed?
3. How is it treated?
4. What is the vaccine recommendation for Brucellosis?
1. What are the clinical signs? Abortion in late gestation. Can cause abortion storms
2. How is it diagnosed? Rose bengal test or brucella ring test How is it transmitted? Contact with aborted fluids or tissue.
3. How is it treated? NO TREATMENT; REPORTABLE, IT IS ZOONOTIC
4. What is the vaccine recommendation for Brucellosis? Vaccinate heiffer @ 4-12 mo of age with RB51 vaccine. Tag placed in the right ear
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What plant is pictured below? What happens if this plant is ingested?
Oleandar spp.
Contains cardiac glycosides
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Answer the following in regards to Coccidiosis in bovid species:
1. Age of onset?
2. Clinical signs?
3. Diagnosis?
4. Treatment?
5. Prevention?
1. Age of onset? Cattle > 21 days old
2. Clinical signs? Tenesmus, hematochezia
3. Diagnosis? Finding large # of oocyts in feces
4. Treatment? TMS or amprolium
5. Prevention? Feeding ionophores like rumensin or quinolone cocidiostat like decoquinate
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A bovine fetus was aborted at 6 months gestation. The placenta is thick, leathery, and round with raised plaques around the eyes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Mycotic abortion
Brucella can also result in a similar presentation but there are not characteristic lesions.
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What is indicative of BLV infection on a pre-breeding soundness bloodwork? What happens if the patient tests positive?
High lymphocyte count
If cattle > 6 mo of age test positive, and is in a low prevalence herd, they must be culled.
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When does metritis typically occur?
3days to 2 weeks post-partum
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What is the classic presentation for vagal indigestion in cattle?
Decreased appetite, weak rumen contractions that are increased in rate, and bradycardia.
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If a young bull presents with small ulcers on his penis and prepuce, what is your top differential?
BHV-1
Self limiting; sexual rest is indicated
57
List some ways you can hasten a mare to come into estrus:
1. Artificial light
2. Administer GnRH
3. HCG
4. Progesterone
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How can you bring a mare BACK into estrus?
Dinoprost - synthetic PGF2a to lyse the CL
59
What causes club foot in horses (aka short toe and steep dorsal hoof wall angle)?
Contractural deformity of the distal interphalangeal joint
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Describe the typical presentation, diagnostics, treatment, and prognosis for the following:
1. SCC
2. Melanoma
3. Sarcoid
4. Habronema
5. Culicoides
6. Allergies
7. Dermatophilus
8. Ringworm
61
When would you treat a moderate or severe case of carpus valgus, such as the one pictured below?
Less than 4 months of age before the distal radial physeal plates close at ~ 6 mo.
Mild cases - self-correct with time, hoof trimming or extensions
Sx procedure - periosteal transection and stripping on concave side is done in severe cases for growth acceleration
Sx procedure - transphyseal bridging for growth retardation and is done on convex side.
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What is the mineral composition of most equine uroliths? What causes them?
Calcium carbonate
diets high in calcium and low in phosphorous predispose
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When is it best to evaluate the cervix in a horse?
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What is the most common cause of endometritis and placentitis in mares?
Strep equi zooepidemicus
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If you are presented with several younger horses with serous nasal dc, submandibular lymphadenopathy, fever, lethargy, anorexia and bloodwork showed leukopenia + normal fibrinogen levels what is your top differential and what diagnostics would you run? Top differentials?
Viral respiratory tract infection
Dx: PCR on nasal swabs
Top differentials:
1. EHV-1: snots in foals, abortion storms in late trimester
2. Equine viral arteritis: abortion, conjunctivitis, limb edema
3. Equine influenza: explosive outbreaks, no abortion
4. Equine rhinitis virus
69
How do you diagnose rhodococcus equi in foals?
Thoracic ultrasound and tracheal wash (stool is not adequate diagnostic test because seen in healthy foals)
70
Describe the life cycle of Dictylocaulus arnfieldi.
Ingestion of infective larvae from pasture - migrate to mesenteric lymph nodes - via thoracic duct to lung - mature to adults - eggs/larvae produced, coughed up and swallowed
71
What is the most common cause of guttural pouch empyema in horses?
Severe guttural pouch empyema (GPE) is the most likely diagnosis in an older horse with swelling at the throat latch and respiratory problems.
Chronic infection with Streptococcus equi sbsp. equi, the cause of equine strangles, is the most likely cause of
GPE.
72
What is the most common cause of equine abortion?
EHV-1
Fetus is minimally autolyzed, placenta is grossly normal
Other causes are Lepto (autolyzed fetus, icteric), Equine viral arteritis (autolyzed fetus), fungal, bacterial (ascending placentitis (vulvar dc, dripping milk, inflammation and discoloration @ cervical star)
73
Adult horses exposed to erythromycin are at risk of developing?
C. dif
74
What condition is pictured below?
Stringhalt
- a unique disease of horses characterized by spasmodic hyperflexion of one or both hind legs
- Tx: Lateral digital extensor ligament tenectomy
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What parameters confirm septic peritonitis?
The following parameters help confirm septic peritonitis:
- serum-to-peritoneal glucose difference > 50 mg/dL
- peritoneal fluid pH < 7.2
- peritoneal glucose < 30 mg/dL
- or cytology showing that > 90% of cells are degenerate neutrophils with free and
shagocytosed bacteria
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List the causes of environmental mastitis
Strep (non-agalactica)
Trueperella
Coliform bacteria (E.coli, Klebsiella, enterobacter, proteus, citrobacter,
84
List the causes of contagious mastitis
Strep agalactica
Mycoplasma
Staph aureus
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The best way to dispose of a carcass suspected to carry bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) is incineration or alkaline digestion (hydrolysis), but burial is also acceptable.
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A blind patient with normal pupillary light reflexes has a lesion in the occipital cortex or optic tracts (optic nerve/cranial nerve 2 after fibers decussate at optic chiasm). This is called central blindness.
101
Dexamethasone, a glucocorticoid hormone, is 8-10 times more potent than prednisone.
It has a half-life of 48 hours in the patient.
Inappropriate dosing of dexamethasone is a common mistake in practice due to a lack of knowledge of the relative potencies of glucocorticoids.
A good rule of thumb is to calculate your typical prednisone dose and divide it by 8 to get your dexamethasone dose.
102
Measure total T4 to evaluate for hyperthyroidism in this dog with PU/PD, hyperactivity, and hypertension, and mass cytology consistent with a thyroid carcinoma.
Hyperthyroidism (HT) in dogs is uncommon. When it does occur, it is almost always caused by a functional thyroid carcinoma. It has also been reported in dogs secondary to dietary contamination with thyroid tissue in raw/whole meat diets.
Thyroid carcinoma is usually locally aggressive and 30-40% have metastasized at time of diagnosis. Dogs with thyroid carcinoma are not always hyperthyroid because only 10% of thyroid carcinomas are functional.
Tx: Surgical excision, +/- radiation therapy, +/- chemotherapy, +/- |131.
Px: Mean survival time (MST) of 3 mon w/o Tx. If confined to thyroid capsule and
removed surgically, MST = 3 y. Radiation therapy has a MST of 2 y even w/ pulmonary
metastasis.
Can also see iatrogenic HT in hypothyroid dogs treated with excessive doses of synthetic levothyroxine (T4). Clinical signs resolve with correction of the dose of levothyroxine.
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