Infection Control Flashcards

(167 cards)

1
Q

True or false:
If compliance with regulations are not met, dentists may be fined, lose their licenses to practice dentistry, or face imprisonment

A

True

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2
Q

What is a BSI?

A

A system which requires personal protective equipment to be worn for protection against contact with all body fluids, whether or not blood is visible

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3
Q

What does PPE stand for?

A

Personal Protective Equipment

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4
Q

ADA stands for:

A

American Dental Association

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5
Q

CDC stands for:

A

Centres for Disease Control and Prevention

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6
Q

Who makes recommendations through its councils?

A

American Dental Association (ADA)

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7
Q

Who provides the basis for many of the regulations

A

Centres for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

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8
Q

What is the NIH?

A

National Institute of Health
A government agency that provides research for the expansion and implementation of knowledge for the enhancement of health, prevention of disease, the lengthening of life, and maintenance of high professional standards

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9
Q

What is the NIOSH?

A

The National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health

Provides research and prevention programs to aid in the elimination of occupational diseases, injuries, and fatalities

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10
Q

What is the aim of NIOSH? (4)

A
To complete tasks with:
High-quality research
Practical solutions
Partnerships
Implementing research into practice
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11
Q

What is the OSHA?

A

The Occupation Safety and Health Administration
A regulating body that enforces requirements that state that employers must protect their employees from exposure to blood and other potentially infectious materials (OPIM) while employees are at work

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12
Q

What is OPIM?

A

Other Potentially Infectious Materials

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13
Q

List the OPIMs (10)

A

Blood and anything that is visually contaminated with blood
Saliva in dental procedures
Cerebrospinal fluid
Amniotic fluid
Synovial fluid
Pleural, peritoneal, pericardial fluid
Semen and vaginal secretions
Unfixed tissue or organ (other than intact skin) from a human living or dead
HIV-containing cell or tissue cultures, organ cultures, and HIV or HBV-containing cultures, mediums or other solutions
Blood, organs, or other tissues from experimental animals infected with HIB or HBV

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14
Q

What is cerebrospinal fluid?

A

Brain and spinal fluid

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15
Q

What is amniotic fluid?

A

Fluid around the fetus

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16
Q

What is synovial fluid?

A

Joint and tendon fluid

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17
Q

What is pleural fluid?

A

Lung fluid

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18
Q

What is peritoneal fluid?

A

Abdominal fluid

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19
Q

What is pericardial fluid?

A

Heart fluid

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20
Q

When are dental offices investigated for compliance? (3)

A

After an employee or a patient complaint is made
In any office having 11 or more employees, randomly
By invitation of the office requesting an inspection

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21
Q

Overview of the OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard, every facility must:

Review the ___________ _________ ________

A

Bloodborne Pathogens Standard

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22
Q

Overview of the OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard, every facility must:

Prepare a _______ _______ _______ ____ outlining the means to _______ and _____ employees

A

Written exposure control plan
Protect
Train

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23
Q

Overview of the OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard, every facility must:

Update the exposure control plan when _______ in __________ provide safer medical devices and ________ the consideration and implementation of the use of these devices

A

Changes
Technology
Document

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24
Q

Overview of the OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard, every facility must:

Solicit ___-___________ employees to ________, ________, and select safer products and devices for use in the workplace

A

Non-managerial
Identify
Evaluate

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25
Overview of the OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard, every facility must: Train all _________ in a ______ manner (initially, after a job task change, when new devices are implemented)
Employees | Timely
26
Overview of the OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard, every facility must: Provide _________ with everything needed in order to meet standard regulations
Employee
27
Overview of the OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard, every facility must: Provide ________ __________ ________ (___)
Personal protective equipment (PPE)
28
Overview of the OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard, every facility must: Maintain and dispose of necessary ___
PPE
29
Overview of the OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard, every facility must: Establish ________ _________ _________ (____) in infection control
Standard operating procedures (SOPs)
30
Overview of the OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard, every facility must: Maintain a ______ ______ __
Sharps injury log
31
Overview of the OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard, every facility must: Offer the ________ _ vaccination series to all employees
Hepatitis B
32
Establish a ___________ plan, including ______ _________ and follow-up procedures (for example, ____________ _________ to ____________)
Postexposure Medical evaluation Occupational exposure Needlesticks
33
Overview of the OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard, every facility must: Provide communication on __________
Biohazards
34
Overview of the OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard, every facility must: Establish standards for ________ and _________ of hazardous waste
Handling | Disposing
35
Overview of the OSHA bloodborne pathogens standard, every facility must: Maintain records of ________, _________ _ vaccinations, and ________ incidents
Training Hepatitis B Exposure
36
OSHA-Mandated Training for Dental Employees: A copy of the _________ _________ ________ and specific information regarding the meaning of the standard
Bloodborne Pathogens Standard
37
OSHA-Mandated Training for Dental Employees: Information about __________ pathogens, both the ____________ and _______ of the diseases
Bloodborne Epidemiology Symptoms
38
OSHA-Mandated Training for Dental Employees: Information about the _____-____________ pathways of bloodborne pathogens
Cross-contamination
39
OSHA-Mandated Training for Dental Employees: A written copy or a means for employees to obtain the _________'_/______'_ written exposure control plan
Employer's | Office's
40
OSHA-Mandated Training for Dental Employees: Information on the ____, ________ _________ of _______ _______________, and how each is identified in relation to bloodborne pathogens and other potentially infectious materials (____)
Tasks Category placement Employee classifications OPIM
41
OSHA-Mandated Training for Dental Employees: Information regarding the _________ _ vaccine
Hepatitis B
42
OSHA-Mandated Training for Dental Employees: Information about _________ _________, including ___: ____ __________; standard precautions, including _________ ___________; and ___________ __________
``` Exposure reduction PPE Work practices Universal precautions Engineering practices ```
43
OSHA-Mandated Training for Dental Employees: Information about ____ __ __ and ____ __ _______, if an emergency involving blood or OPIM arises
What to do | Whom to contact
44
OSHA-Mandated Training for Dental Employees: Information about the procedure to follow if an incident of _____ ________ occurs, how to report the ________, and what type of medical follow-up is available at no cost to the employee
Blood exposure | Incident
45
OSHA-Mandated Training for Dental Employees: Information about the ____________ __________ and follow-up that the employer provides
Postexposure evaluation
46
OSHA-Mandated Training for Dental Employees: A copy of the ____ ______ _____________ _________
OSHA Hazard Communication Standard
47
OSHA-Mandated Training for Dental Employees: ______ ____ ______ (___) (formerly known as material safety data sheets, ____) as part of the ________ __________ ______ of ______________ and ________ of _________ (___)
``` Safety Data Sheets SDS MSDS Globally Harmonized System Classification Labelling Chemicals GHS ```
48
OSHA-Mandated Training for Dental Employees: The ___________ for employees to ask questions of the individual giving the information
Opportunity
49
When are cross-contamination pathways formed?
When pathogens travel from patients to dentists, dental assistants, dental hygienists, dental laboratory technicians, and other patients
50
Pathogens can also travel from ______ _________ to ________
Dental personnel | Patients
51
Where can the cross-contamination then go?
To the families and friends of the dental personnel or patients
52
What is the chain of infection?
Describes the elements of an infectious process
53
What is in the chain of infection?
Agent Host Environment
54
What must the chain of infection include?
Several essential elements or "links in the chain" for the transmission of microorganisms to occur
55
What tasks belong in Category 1 in Exposure Determination?
Tasks that involve exposure to blood body fluids such as saliva, and body tissues
56
What professions does Category 1 in Exposure Determination encompass?
Dentist Dental assistant Dental hygienist Dental laboratory technician
57
What tasks belong in Category 2 in Exposure Determination?
All tasks that involve no exposure to blood, body fluids such as saliva, or body tissues, but occasionally may involve unplanned tasks from Category 1
58
What professions does Category 2 in Exposure Determination encompass?
Receptionist Coordinating assistant So on
59
What tasks belong in Category 3 in Exposure Determination?
All tasks that involve no exposure to blood, body fluids such as saliva, or body tissues
60
What professions does Category 3 in Exposure Determination encompass?
Accountant Insurance assistant So on
61
Describe the Written Exposure Plan
Documents the specific exposure determination for each employee and identifies a schedule of implementation (how and when provisions of the standard will be implemented)
62
Step 1 of Written Exposure Plan
All employees list tasks they perform in each job classification, and then identify which category they fall under. Any employee who may have any occupational exposure at any time is covered under the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogen standard
63
Step 2 of Written Exposure Plan
The office must have a schedule for implementation How and when are the hepatitis B vaccinations being offered to employees? How and when are the post exposure evaluation and office follow-up procedures accomplished? How and when are new devices identified and implemented? How and when is the recordkeeping accomplished and updated?
64
Step 3 of Written Exposure Plan
``` A manual and procedure plan must be written to cover methods of compliance for office PPE and safety issues Personal protective equipment Engineering controls Housekeeping controls Work practice controls ```
65
Step 4 of Written Exposure Plan
A written policy on how exposure incidents are evaluated is required. Included in each evaluation are the circumstances that surrounded the incident and how they can be corrected. A sharps injury log must be maintained. Why type of evaluation will be done by the office if an exposure incident occurs?
66
What does the FDA stand for?
Food and Drug Administration
67
What is the FDA?
Food and Drug Administration, a division of the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services and it regulates the manufacturing and labelling of medical devices and solutions
68
What does EPA stand for?
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
69
What is the EPA?
A federal regulatory agency involved in the safety and effectiveness of disinfecting and sterilizing solutions
70
What is the OSAP?
The organization for Safety and Asepsis Procedures, a national organization, encompasses dental health care workers, distributors of dental equipment and materials, health care instructors, dentists, and others in the field of dentistry
71
What is an agent (of infection)?
Entity that is capable of causing disease
72
What do agents of infection include?
Biological agents Chemical agents Physical agents
73
What is an biological agent?
Living organisms that invade the host, such as bacteria, virus, fungi, protozoa, and rickettsiae
74
What is a chemical agent?
Substances that can interact with the body, such as pesticides, food additives, medications, and industrial chemicals
75
What is a physical agent?
Factors in the environment, such as heat, light, noise and radiation
76
What is a reservoir?
A place where the agent can survive
77
What must a reservoir that promotes the growth of pathogens contain?
``` Proper nutrients (oxygen and organic matter) Maintain proper temperature Contain moisture Maintain a compatible pH level Maintain the proper amount of light exposure ```
78
What are some common reservoirs? (4)
Humans Animals Environment Fomites
79
What is a fomite?
An object, such as instruments or dressing, that is contaminated with an infectious agent
80
What is a portal of exit?
The route by which an infectious agent leaves the reservoir to be transferred to a susceptible host
81
What are some portal of exits? (7)
``` Body secretions: Sputum Semen Vaginal secretions urine Saliva Feces Blood Draining wounds ```
82
What is a mode of transmission?
The process that bridges the gap between the portal of exit of the infectious agent from the reservoir and the portal of entry of the susceptible "new" host
83
What are some modes of transmission? (4)
Contact transmission Airborne transmission Vehicle transmission Vector-borne transmission
84
Contact transmission involves the ________ transfer of an agent from an ________ person to an __________ person through ______ or ________ contact with the ________ person. Contact with the infected person is called ______ contact. Direct contact can occur through unprotected contact with infected ______, such as _____ or ______ Indirect contact takes place when ______________ are transmitted to an ______ or _______ first and then transferred to another person when the person touches the object or surface
``` Physical Infected Uninfected Direct Indirect Infected Direct Fluids Blood Saliva Microorganisms Object Surface ```
85
Airborne transmission occurs when a ___________ person is exposed to contaminated ________ or ____ _________ that are suspended in the ___. The longer the particle is suspended, the greater the chance it will find an available ____ __ _____ in the human host
``` Susceptible Droplets Dust particles Air Port of entry ```
86
Vehicle transmission occurs when the agent is transferred to a susceptible host by contaminated __________ objects, such as ______ ___________, ______, ____, ____, _____, and _____
``` Inanimate Dental instruments Water Food Meat Drugs Blood ```
87
Vector-borne transmission occurs when an agent is transferred to a susceptible host by _______ means, such as __________, _____, _____, ____, and other _______
``` Animate Mosquitoes Fleas Ticks Lice Animals ```
88
What are some examples of diseases transmitted through contact transmission? (3)
STDs (Sexually Transmitted Diseases) Colds Flu
89
Examples of direct contact of health care provider with patient (2)
Touching | Secretions from client such as blood and saliva
90
Examples of indirect contact with fomites (6)
``` Clothing Health-care equipment Instruments used in treatments Personal belongings Personal care equipment Diagnostic equipment ```
91
Examples of moisture/dust particles in the air (4)
Coughing Talking Sneezing Airborne droplets from dental handpiece
92
What organism relies on airborne transmission?
Measles
93
What spores are transmitted in an airborne powder form?
Anthrax
94
Examples of contact with contaminated inanimate objects (6)
``` Water Blood Drugs Food Urine Salmonellosis (contaminated food) ```
95
Examples of contact with contaminate animate hosts (3)
Animals Insects Lyme disease (ticks)
96
What is a portal of entry?
The route by which an infectious agent enters the host
97
What are the six portals of entry?
``` Integumentary system Respiratory tract Genitourinary tract Gastrointestinal tract Circulatory system Transplacental ```
98
Describe the integumentary portal of entry
A break in the skin or mucous membrane
99
Describe the respiratory portal of entry
Inhaling contaminated droplets
100
Describe the genitourinary portal of entry
Contamination with infected vaginal secretions or semen
101
Describe the gastrointestinal portal of entry
Ingesting contaminated food or water
102
Describe the circulatory portal of entry
A bite from insects or rodents
103
Describe the transplacental portal of entry
A transfer of a microorganism from the mother to the fetus via the placenta and umbilical cord
104
What is a host?
Simple or complex organism that can be affected by an agent An individual who is at risk of contracting an infectious disease
105
What is a susceptible host?
Person who lacks resistance to an agent and is vulnerable to a disease
106
What is a compromised host?
Person whose normal defence mechanisms are impaired and is, therefore, more susceptible to infection
107
What can influence the susceptibility to and severity of infections of a host?
``` Age Concurrent disease Stress Immunization/vaccination status Lifestyle Occupation Nutritional status Heredity ```
108
How can lifestyle influence the susceptibility to and severity of infections of a host? (3)
Practices, such as: Having multiple sex partners Sharing needles Tobacco and drug use
109
How can occupation influence the susceptibility to and severity of infections of a host? (2)
Forms of employment that involve increased exposure to pathogenic sources, such as needles or chemical agents
110
How can nutritional status influence the susceptibility to and severity of infections of a host?
People who maintain targeted weight for height and body frame are less prone to illness
111
How can heredity influence the susceptibility to and severity of infections of a host?
Some people are naturally more susceptible to infections than others
112
Name the keys to eliminating infection between an agent and a reservoir (3)
Cleansing Disinfection Sterilization
113
Name the keys to break the chain of infection between the reservoir and portal of exit (3)
Promoting proper hygiene Maintaining clean dental operatories Ensuring the use of clean equipment in patient care
114
Name the key to breaking the chain of infection between the portal of exit and mode of transmission
Block the exit of the infectious agent | The dental assistant must maintain clean dressings on all injuries or wounds
115
Name the key to breaking the chain of infection between the mode of transmission and portal of entry
Dental assistants must always wash their hands between cases that may involve contact with contaminated items
116
Name the key to breaking the chain of infection between the portal of entry and the host (2)
Maintaining skin integrity | Using sterile techniques for patient contact
117
Name the key to breaking the chain of infection between the host and the agent
Eliminate the infection before it begins
118
What are the primary routes of microbial transmission in the dental office? (3)
Direct contact Indirect Contact Inhalation/Aerosol
119
Microbial transmission: How does direct contact work?
An individual has direct contact with a lesion or microorganism while performing intraoral dental procedures
120
Microbial transmission: How does indirect contact work?
An individual has contact with the microorganism through other means, such as contaminated instruments, supplies, or equipment
121
Microbial transmission: How does inhalation/aerosol work?
An individual contacts the microorganism through inhalation
122
When does inhalation/aerosol transmission usually happen?
When the high-speed handpiece, or the ultrasonic cavitron is used
123
Dental assistant should have the _____________ necessary to fight off _________ that are encountered because of his or her close proximity to patients during dental treatment
Vaccinations | Pathogens
124
True of false: Taking patient's medical history will identify the infectious diseases that patients have
False Important to update this information, both verbally and in writing as the patient's medical history may not identify the infectious diseases that the patients have
125
What is one of the most important ways to prevent the transfer of microorganisms from one person or object to another person?
Handwashing
126
Define chemical antisepsis
Inhibiting the growth of causative microorganisms
127
Handwashing is both a __________ cleaning and _______ _________
Mechanical | Chemical antisepsis
128
How is chemical antisepsis achieved during handwashing?
Utilizing antimicrobial soap
129
At the beginning of each day, every member of the team is to complete _ consecutive rounds of __-second hand washes
2 | 15
130
Dental team members must wear protective ________ during specific phases of dental treatment
Eyewear
131
What is eyewear worn during specific times of a procedure for?
Protection from body secretions, aerosol pathogens, teeth etc.
132
A splatter of _____ and ______ can transfer infectious diseases
Blood | Saliva
133
What diseases can be transferred by splatters of blood and saliva?
Hepatitis | Herpes simplex
134
Aerosol droplets that contain microorganisms can cause an eye infection known as ____ ___ (______________)
Pink eye | Conjuncitivitis
135
Gloves are used as a barrier to _______________
Microorganisms
136
When should gloves be worn?
Anytime a team member anticipates contact with saliva or blood Includes saliva- or blood-contaminated surfaces, instruments, or mucous membranes
137
What are the primary types of gloves that are used in the dental office? (7)
``` Latex gloves Vinyl/synthetic gloves Synthetic polymer gloves Overgloves Utility gloves Polynitrile gloves Nitrile gloves ```
138
Masks should be worn any time that splatter or aerosol of ______ or _____ can occur
Saliva | Blood
139
How do masks help?
Protects the patient and dental assistant from communicable diseases
140
Masks should be placed along the eye-wear before ________ _____ and _______ gloves
Washing hands | Gloves
141
Important that mark is placed _______ so that it fits ______ against the ____ and stays in place during procedures
Properly Snugly Face
142
Generally, the _______ side of the mask is on _______ surface for quick identification
Coloured | Outside
143
True or false: Masks should be removed after the procedure by gasping the ties or attachments
True
144
Can you reuse masks?
No
145
Rules of masks during dental treatment
Use a new mask for each patient Replace the mask if it becomes moist or wet Never let the mark dangle around the neck or from the ear; remove and discard after each use
146
What are protective clothing?
Uniforms Laboratory coats Gowns Clinic jackets
147
When should protective clothing be worned?
Should only be worn in the dental office (taken off when going out)
148
Protective clothing should be changed _____, or immediately if __________ with ____ ______
Daily Splattered Body fluids
149
Protective clothing must close _______ at ____ and around _____ area
Tightly Neck Cuff
150
Protective clothing must be ____ ______ when sitting
Knee-length
151
Protective clothing must be ________ in the office, or sent to a _______ service
Laundered | Laundry
152
When are barriers used in a dental office?
Wherever possible in all aspects of the dental office
153
Any area where contamination is possible during dental treatment that can covered should be _______
Covered
154
Barriers are made specifically for areas that have been hard to disinfect in the past such as what?
Tubing and hoses for the handpieces
155
List the level, advantages, disadvantages and time required for effectiveness for Chlorine Dioxide
Level: High Advantages: Rapid disinfection Disadvantages, corrosive to metals, requires ventilation, irritating to eyes and skin Time Required for Effectiveness: 5-10 minutes
156
List the level, advantages, disadvantages and time required for effectiveness for Glutaraldehyde
Level: High Advantages: Used for low- and high-level disinfection and sterilization, many have a 28-day use life Disadvantages: Some are corrosive to metal, requires ventilation, irritating to the eyes and skin Time Required for Effectiveness: 10-90 minutes
157
List the level, advantages, disadvantages and time required for effectiveness for Ortho-Phthalaldehyde
Level: High Advantages: Used to disinfect without causing sensitivity, many have a 28-day use life Disadvantages: May turn some plastics blue or green, and does not sterilize Time Required for Effectiveness: 10-12 minutes
158
List the level, advantages, disadvantages and time required for effectiveness for Iodophor
Level: Intermediate Advantages: Rapid disinfection and used as holding solution for impressions Disadvantages: May discolor white or pastel vinyls, surface disinfectant or holding solution, irritating to eyes and skin Time Required for Effectiveness: 10 minutes on surfaces
159
List the level, advantages, disadvantages and time required for effectiveness for Sodium Hypochlorite
Level: Intermediate Advantages: Rapid disinfection Disadvantages: Corrosive to metals, irritating to skin and eyes, diluted solution is unstable, must be mixed daily Time Required for Effectiveness: 5-10 minutes
160
List the level, advantages, disadvantages and time required for effectiveness for Phenolics
Level: Intermediate Advantages: Available as sprays or liquids Disadvantages: Skin and mucous membrane irritation, cannot be used on plastics Time Required for Effectiveness: 10 minutes
161
List the level, advantages, disadvantages and time required for effectiveness for Alcohol
Level: Cleaner only
162
List the temperature, time, ability to monitor and special considerations for liquid chemical sterilization
Temperature: Room temperature Time: 6-10 hours Ability to Monitor: Difficult Special Considerations: Proper ventilation required, does not remain sterile after process
163
List the temperature, time, ability to monitor and special considerations for ethylene oxide sterilization
Temperature/Time: Heated unit 120 degrees Fahrenheit or 48.8 degrees Celsius for 2-3 hours, Room temperature for 12 hours Ability to Monitor: Difficult special Considerations: Proper ventilation, additional 24 hours to dissipate gas after sterilization
164
List the temperature, time, ability to monitor and special considerations for dry heat sterilization
Temperature/Time: 340 degrees Fahrenheit or 171 degrees Celsius for 1 hour Ability to Monitor: Easily monitored Special Considerations: Limited rust or corrosion of equipment, not for use with plastics or paper
165
List the temperature, time, ability to monitor and special considerations for chemical vapor sterilization
Temperature/Time: 270 degrees Fahrenheit or 132 degrees Celsius for 20 minutes Ability to Monitor: Easily monitored Special Considerations: Proper ventilation, special solution required
166
List the temperature, time, ability to monitor and special considerations for steam under pressure sterilization
Temperature/Time: 250 degrees Fahrenheit or 121 degrees Celsius for 30 minutes wrapped Ability to Monitor: Easily monitored Special Considerations: Requires distilled water, may corrode instruments, not for use with many plastics
167
List the temperature, time, ability to monitor and special considerations for steam(flash) autoclave sterilization
Temperature/Time: 270 degrees Fahrenheit or 132 degrees Celsius for 3 minutes unwrapped Ability to Monitor: Easily monitored Special Considerations: Requires distilled water, may corrode instruments, not for use with many plastics