Infectious Diseases Flashcards

(37 cards)

1
Q

What organism causes Rheumatic fever?

A

Group A streptococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the major features of acute rheumatic fever?

A
  • Carditis
  • Poly arthritis
  • Chorea - abnormal mvmt
  • Subcutaneous Nodules
  • Erythema Marginatum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the treatment for ARF?

A
  • single dose benthazine penicillin or 10 days penicillin oral
  • arthritis/fever - paracetamol or aspirin/naproxen once diagnosis confirmed
  • carditis HF - bed rest, diuretics and restrict fluids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the vegetation in endocarditis? where are they most common?

A

(1) endothelium damage leads to platelet-fibrin deposition
(2) trauma and bacteraemia
both lead to adherence, colonisation and a mature vegetation
commonly aortic or mitral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are high risk cardiac lesions that increase the chance of vegetations?

A
  • Prosthetic heart valves
  • Cyanotic congenital heart disease
  • Previous infective endocarditis
  • Mitral valve prolapse with significant regurgitation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the progression of infection that leads to heart failure?

A
  • Infection spreads from base of vegetation forming abscesses
  • Valve failure - perforation of leaflets and chord tendinae rupture
  • Heart failure secondary to severe regurgitation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are some classical features of endocarditis?

A
  • Splinter haemorrhages
  • sub-conjunctival haemorrhages
  • Clubbing of the fingers
  • Splenomegaly
  • Osler’s Nodes
  • Janeway lesions
  • Roth spots
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What investigations are required for a definitive diagnosis of endocarditis?

A
Routine blood tests - CRP/ESR
Urine sediment
Cxr
ECG
Echocardiography
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Common causes of infectious rhinitis, pharyngitis and layrngitis

A

Rhinitis - adenovirus, rhinovirus
Pharyngitis - RSV, influenza, staph aureus, beta haemolytic strep
Laryngitis - RSV, H influenza, beta haemolytic strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Routes of infection in respiratory tract infection

A
  • aspiration
  • inhalation
  • haematogenous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Normal defence mechanisms of resp tract

A
  • mucocilliary apparatus
  • intact epithelial surfaces
  • alveolar macrophage/inflammatory cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How might pneumonia be classified?

A

Aetiological agent: strep pneumoniae, H influenza, moraxella catarrhalis, mycoplasma
Pathological/anatomical: lobar, bronchopneumonia
Syndromes: CAP, HCA, HA, chronic, necrotising and lung abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Bacterial cause of community acquired pneumonia

A
  • strep pneumoniae
  • haem influenza
  • mortadella catarrali
  • staph aureus
  • klebsiella pneumoniae
  • pseudomonas pneumoniae
  • legionella pneumoniae
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

4 Stages of inflammatory response in acute bacterial pneumonia

A
  1. congestion - lung is heavy and boggy
  2. red hepatisation - firm, red, airless, exudate of RBC
  3. grey hepatisation - grey brown and dry lungs, persistence of fibrin and neutrophils
  4. resolution - exudate undergoes enzymatic digestion and debris absorbed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Atypical community acquired pneumonia causes

How do they manifest?

A
  • mycoplasma pneumoniae
  • influenza
  • adenovirus
  • rhinovirus
  • VZV
  • Chlamydia pneumoniae
    May present as severe URTI, varied features
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Health care associated pneumonia causes

A
  • MRSA

- P. aeruginosa

17
Q

Hospital acquired pneumonia causes

A
  • enterobacteriaecea
  • pseudomonas spp
  • MRSA
  • Strep pneumoniae
18
Q

Which type of pneumonia is commonly polymicrobial?

A

Aspiration - often from gastric contents

Often causes necrotising pneumonia with abscess

19
Q

Causes of pneumonia in immunocompromised host

A
  • pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • mycobacterium
  • legionella listeria monocytogenes
  • herpes
  • CMV
20
Q

Common agents of chronic pneumonia

A
  • bacterial Mycoplasma tuberculosis
  • actinomycetes
  • nocardia
  • fungal
21
Q

What is primary, secondary, progressive and milliary tuberculosis?

A

Primary: inhaled bacilli implant and Ghon Focus forms, 95% of the time CMI controls it
Progressive primary - massive haematogenous dissemination
Or can remain latent until secondary TB
Secondary: apical consolidation, progressive fibrosis
Progressive pulmonary TB: expanded area of caseation, erosion into airway creates cavity
Milliary: systemic/pneumonia

22
Q

HACEK organisms

A
Haemophilic parainfluenza 
Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans
Cardiobacterium hominis 
Eikenella corrodes 
Kingella Kingae
23
Q

Common causes of bacterial endocarditis

A
  • streptococci viridans

- Staph. aureus

24
Q

Subacute and acute presentation of bacterial endocarditis

A

Subacute - weeks of low grade fever, anaemia, weight loss

Acute neurological event - CVA, meningitis, toxic encephalopathy

25
Classical features of bacterial endocarditis
- splinter haemorrhages - clubbing - splenomegaly - Osler's nodes - Janeway lesions - palms/soles - roth spots - eyes
26
Duke's criteria for definitive diagnosis of endocarditis
2 major criteria: + blood culture for infective endocarditis, and evidence of endocardial involvement OR 1 major and 3 minor OR 5 minor Minor criteria: predisposition, fever, vascular phenomenon, immunologic phenomena, ECG, microbiological evidence
27
Empiris bacterial endocarditis treatment for native and prosthetic valve:
Native: IV ben.pen, + IV fluclox, + IV gentamicin Prosthetic: IV vancomycin + IV gentamicin
28
Rheumatic fever
Post infectious immune mediated disease 2-4 weeks after GAS pharyngitis
29
Modified Jones criteria for RF
``` MAJOR Carditis Arthritis Subcutaenous nodules Syndenhams chorea Erthema margintum MINOR: arthralgia, fever, elevated ACP, evidence of GAS on culture, prolonged PR, previous ARF ---- NEED: 2 major or 1 major + 2 minor ```
30
Typical and atypical symptoms of pneumonia
Typical: fever, chills, cough, chest pain Atypical: myalgia, arthralgia, headache, GI
31
Physical examination of pneumonia
- tachycardia - elevated RR - reduced O2 saturation - reduced air flow in affected lung - added sounds - crepitations etc
32
3 components in diagnosis of pneumonia
1. blood test - FBC, inflamm markers, blood culture 2. Radiology - CXR, CT 3. Microbiological - sputum gram stain and culture, serological for antibodies 4x rise in IgM, and molecular like throat swab for PCR
33
Treatment for mild CAP
Amoxicillin oral | - use doxycycline or clarithromycin if atypical suspected
34
Treatment of moderate CAP
``` IV penicillin (ceftriaxone if allergy) - oral doxycycline/clarithromycin if atypical suspected ```
35
Treatment of severe CAP
IV ceftriaxone or penicillin + Azithromycin to cover atypical + Gentamicin often added IV
36
Treatment for aspiration pneumonia
IV metronidazole | Tazocin covers all
37
Health care associated pneumonia treatment
IV pipericillin-tazobactam (tazocin) OR IV cefepime AND IV gentamicin + IV vancomycin if MRSA suspected