IT Business Flashcards

1
Q

Blank is a system of processes that ensures the effective and efficient use of IT to enable an organization to achieve its business goals

A

IT governance

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2
Q

Due to their reliance on technology and data, many companies are known as what?

A

Digital enterprises

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3
Q

Supporting any technology used to assist solving business problems is what?

A

Organizational function of IT

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4
Q

What are the five different domains IT covers?

A

1) Communication
2) data collection and management
3) Information security management
4) consumer relationship management
5) process improvement

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5
Q

What tracks an d organizes every interaction a company has with current and potential customers?

A

Customer relationship management system (CRM)

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6
Q

What IT job sets up, maintains and monitors the hardware and software that support the networking components of a computer system?

A

Network administrators

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7
Q

What IT role sets up, maintains and monitors devices that support business operations

A

System administrator

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8
Q

What OT role controls the customer facing content of an org’s website and intranet?

A

Web administrators

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9
Q

Who configures and troubleshoots an organization’s data repository

A

Database Administrator

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10
Q

Who monitors the behaviors of the system components for anomalies and malicious attacks and to put measures to mitigate internal and external threats?

A

Cybersecurity analyst

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11
Q

Who provides end user training and helps users resolve issues with accessing resources and systems?

A

Technical support

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12
Q

Blank is outsourcing outside county lines

A

Offshoring

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13
Q

Blank uses the resources and skills of a developed workforce from an external organization

A

Outsourcing

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14
Q

Blank is the term for outsourcing project management

A

Project outsourcing

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15
Q

Blank is the term for offshoring to countries in a closer time zone

A

Nearshoring

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16
Q

Blank is the term for assigning protects to employees within the organization and is an expensive option

A

Insourcing

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17
Q

A what is a purpose-driven event that has a definite start and finish

A

Project

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18
Q

What ensure that the projects are well defined, with clear l, attainable goals and that resources are in place for successful completion

A

Project management framework

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19
Q

Projects usually include these four phases

A

Initiation
Planning
Executing
Closure

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20
Q

What broadly defines the phase in a project that begins with a business case, followed by a feasibility study

A

Project initiation

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21
Q

What is the name for the project document that outlines the business need, the stakeholders and the business case

A

Project charter

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22
Q

What phase of a project includes developing a roadmap for everyone to follow?

A

Project planning

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23
Q

What does SMART stand for?

A

Specific
Measureable
Attainable
Realistic
Timely

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24
Q

What does CLEAR stand for?

A

Collaborative
Limited
Emotional
Appreciable
Definable

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25
Q

By the end of the planning phase what documents have been created?

A

Scope
Work breakdown structure
Milestones
Communication plan
Risk management plan

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26
Q

What statement outlines the objectives, deliverables, and milestones?

A

Scope

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27
Q

What document breaks the work down into manageable segments for the team?

A

Work breakdown Structure (WBS)

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28
Q

What term defines high-level goals to meet throughout the project’s duration?

A

Milestones

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29
Q

What document outlines the frequency and methods of communicating with stakeholders?

A

Communication plan

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30
Q

What document identifies foreseeable risks including costs and delays?

A

Risk management plan

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31
Q

During what phase of a project are deliverables developed and completed. A kickoff call starts this phase ?

A

Project execution

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32
Q

What are used to monitor the project’s progress?

A

Key performance indicators (KPI) or metrics

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33
Q

During what part of the project is the project declared complete and a meeting is held to discuss strengths and opportunities for improvement?

A

Project closure

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34
Q

What are the three broad categories of risk a project may encounter?

A

1) risks in execution
2) risks in integration
3) risks of the unknown

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35
Q

What are the steps to considering risk during the planning phase?

A

1) identify the risks
2) analyze the impact on the project outcome
3) prioritize the risks by severity and likelihood
4) outline a mitigation strategy to minimize potential risks
5) install monitoring systems for unanticipated risks

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36
Q

Blank typically revolve around cost overrun, insufficient staff, inadequate tools and lack of support

A

Risk in execution

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37
Q

Blank can be mitigated by assessing potential disruptions, ensuring adequate support from stakeholders and having a shared understanding of the projects complexity

A

Risks of integration

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38
Q

What are the two key strategies to successfully identify risks?

A

1) frequent monitoring of project parameters
2) sound communication between project participants

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39
Q

What is the term for uncontrolled change of a project’s scope?

A

Scope creep

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40
Q

What is the term for budget control issues, such as underestimated or improper allocations of cost?

A

Budget risk

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41
Q

What describes departments and individuals resisting organizational change resulting from a project?

A

Resistance to a change

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42
Q

What describes an inability to secure sufficient resources for the project?

A

Resource risk

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43
Q

What describes a vendor failing to deliver on contractual obligations?

A

Contract risk

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44
Q

What is a risk that occurs when completion of a task is dependent on the completion of other tasks?

A

Project dependencies

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45
Q

What describes when assumptions about the project are invalidated during project development?

A

Project assumption risks

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46
Q

What describes when a project meets requirements, but delivers fewer benefits than outlined in the business case?

A

Benefit shortfall

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47
Q

What is the term for requirements that have not been properly validated or documented?

A

Requirements quality risk

48
Q

What is the risk of a major negative event beyond human control?

A

Force majeure risk

49
Q

What are the four stages of a system life cycle?

A

Requirements analysis
Design
Implementation
Testing

50
Q

What are the three stages of a system dev life cycle?

A

Development
Use
Maintenance

51
Q

Developing software that can collect and analyze every aspect of the software development life cycle (SDLC), led to what domain of software development?

A

Computer-Aided software engineering (CASE)

52
Q

What environments combine tools, such as editing, compiling and debugging tools into a single package?

A

Integrated Development Environments (IDEs)

53
Q

What phase’s goal is to determine what service the system will provide, identify any condition (such as time constraints) and define how users interact with the system?

A

Requirements analysis

54
Q

What does ISO stand for?

A

International organization for Standardization

55
Q

What does ACM stand for?

A

Association for Computing Machinery

56
Q

What does IEEE stand for?

A

Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineering

57
Q

What does COTS mean?

A

Commercial off-the-shelf

58
Q

The what is a written agreement between all parties that records the system requirements and guides system development?

A

System Requirement Specification (SRS)

59
Q

Which software development phase creates a plan for constructing the system?

A

Design

60
Q

What phase of software development is the system built?

A

Implementation and integration

61
Q

During what phase of the life cycle, is the system evaluated, and modified as needed?

A

System maintenance

62
Q

What are the four categories of software maintenance?

A

1) Corrective
2) adaptive
3) perfective
4) preventative

63
Q

What category of software maintenance has a goal to remove errors to ensure the functionality of the system?

A

Corrective

64
Q

Which category of system maintenance is performed when the organizational changes affect system requirements?

A

Adaptive

65
Q

Which category of software maintenance is performed when new components are introduced, or existing ones improved?

A

Perfective

66
Q

What phase of system maintenance occurs when changes made to increase the lifespan of systems?

A

Preventative

67
Q

What goes beyond debugging to include improving procedures and developing training for employees?

A

System quality control

68
Q

What series of standards address industrial activities such as design, production, installation and servicing?

A

ISO 9000 series

69
Q

What series of standards was developed jointly by the ISO and IEC that is common for third-party system developers to meet specific standards?

A

ISO/IEC 15504

70
Q

What must also maintain effective documentation practices for future reference?

A

Quality control

71
Q

Many system engineers believe that what should be incorporated into other steps of the dev process line requirements analysis, design and validation and implementation and testing?

A

Testing

72
Q

What principle is based on the theory that 80% of errors come from 20% of the system?

A

Pareto principle

73
Q

What is another software testing methodology that develops a set of test data that ensure a each instruction in the software is executed at least once?

A

Basis Path testing

74
Q

Techniques based on basis path testing and the Pareto principle rely on knowledge of a system’s internal components is known as what?

A

Glass-box testing or white-box testing

75
Q

What type of testing does not rely I the tester’s knowledge of the system’s structure but is focused on the user experience (UX)?

A

Black box testing

76
Q

Methodologies that fall in what are alpha, beta, and user acceptance testing?

A

Black box testing

77
Q

What type of testing has developers and/or internal UX team test a preliminary version of the software?

A

Alpha testing

78
Q

What is the second stage of testing where the next version of the system is given to a segment of end users ?

A

Beta testing or pilot testing

79
Q

What type of testing is the final stage where users test the system in an operational setting?

A

User acceptance testing

80
Q

What are the three types of QC documentation?

A

User
System
Technical

81
Q

What documentation explains the system to users and may include how to access certain features, FAQs, and customer support contact info?

A

User documentation

82
Q

What type of documentation describes the system’s internal configuration so the system can be maintained later in its life cycle?

A

System documentation

83
Q

What is a major part of software dev cycle that has code being versioned and presented in a readable format allowing code developers to reverse any problematic changes?

A

Software development system documentation

84
Q

Dev companies have created conventions for writing programs that include several common features. Name three.

A

1) indentation conventions for script readability
2) naming conventions for variables and constraints
3) documentation conventions for sufficient program documentation

85
Q

What documentation describes how to install and maintain the system including information about installing updates and providing feedback to the dev team?

A

Technical documentation

86
Q

What did early approaches to software engineering use that followed development processes sequentially?

A

Waterfall method

87
Q

How is system engineering methodology approaching development now?

A

By constructing a system in increments

88
Q

In the first increment of software dev what is built, which is a simplified sample of the proposed system?

A

Prototype

89
Q

In what is a quickly constructed sample is built that may only contain a few screen images indicating how a system would work?

A

Rapid prototyping

90
Q

What type of software development allows users to modify the software code?

A

Open source development

91
Q

What system development methodology proposes incremental implementation, respond to rapidly changing requirements and reduces the emphasis on rigorous requirements?

A

Agile methodologies

92
Q

What are two examples of agile methodology?

A

Scrum
Extreme programming

93
Q

In what agile method does a system user create a wish list, a programmer selects an item toward the top of the list and plans implementation in a sprint, the team completes the list of objectives, the sprint ends when the system is ready to be released, and the steps start over again in a new sprint?

A

Scrum

94
Q

In what agile method are systems developed by a team fewer than a dozen writing in a communal workspace

A

Extreme programming model (XP)

95
Q

What is the term for disaster recovery and business continuity plans?

A

Contingency plan

96
Q

What is the term for the amount time the client data and resources are available on the servers?

A

Uptime

97
Q

What is usually measure in the number of nines?

A

Availability

98
Q

What solutions provide replicas of critical systems that can be deployed when the original system is not available?

A

High availability solutions

99
Q

What relies on solutions to ensure that a system can recover from catastrophic events in a reasonable amount of time with minimal data loss?

A

Disaster recovery plans (DRP)

100
Q

When disruptions do occur, what plans help define how to resume services to customers and vital business operations while auxiliary services remain offline?

A

Business continuity plan

101
Q

What are three strategies used for disaster recovery and business continuity?

A

Data mirroring
Data backups
Offsite storage

102
Q

What is the term for setting up the operating system to simultaneously write copies of the data on several storage devices?

A

Data mirroring

103
Q

What are stored on any storage device with tape being the cheapest and most common that can be transported to an off-site location?

A

Data backups

104
Q

What are popular locations for physical storage because of the low humidity and the protection provided by the earth’s terrain?

A

Salt mines
Cave

105
Q

What is the length of time necessary to retrieve data from storage?

A

Availability

106
Q

What should you consider for selecting offsite storage? 5

A

Accessibility, cost, environment, geographic area,, security

107
Q

What type of storage allows org the quickest access to restore critical data like AWS and Azure hot blobs?

A

Hot storage

108
Q

What type of storage has less frequent access and is maintained on minimal equipment?

A

Cold storage

109
Q

What is the term for embedded mechanical devices, objects provided with unique identifiers that are interconnected like home devices?

A

Internet of Things (IOT)

110
Q

What are requirements set by governing bodies that can result in penalties, fines or even criminal charges?

A

Regulations

111
Q

What type of ethics argue that good behavior is not the result of applying rules, but instead is a natural consequence of good behavior?

A

Character-based ethics

112
Q

What are two types of ethical codes in IT?

A

Ten Commandments of computer ethics
Asimov’s three laws of robotics

113
Q

Name three it organizations that have published rule based ethical standards

A

Institute of Electrical and electronic engineers (IEEE)
American statistical association (ASA)
Association of information technology professionals (AITP)

114
Q

What policy should reflect the organization’s ethics and provide clear guidelines?

A

Acceptable user policy (AUP)

115
Q

What refers to the right to control how your personal information is collected, used and exchanged?

A

Information privacy

116
Q

What term describes a set of rules that limits access to data/information?

A

Confidentiality

117
Q

What are the three elements of CIA

A

Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability