IT Business Flashcards
(117 cards)
1
Q
Blank is a system of processes that ensures the effective and efficient use of IT to enable an organization to achieve its business goals
A
IT governance
2
Q
Due to their reliance on technology and data, many companies are known as what?
A
Digital enterprises
3
Q
Supporting any technology used to assist solving business problems is what?
A
Organizational function of IT
4
Q
What are the five different domains IT covers?
A
1) Communication
2) data collection and management
3) Information security management
4) consumer relationship management
5) process improvement
5
Q
What tracks an d organizes every interaction a company has with current and potential customers?
A
Customer relationship management system (CRM)
6
Q
What IT job sets up, maintains and monitors the hardware and software that support the networking components of a computer system?
A
Network administrators
7
Q
What IT role sets up, maintains and monitors devices that support business operations
A
System administrator
8
Q
What OT role controls the customer facing content of an org’s website and intranet?
A
Web administrators
9
Q
Who configures and troubleshoots an organization’s data repository
A
Database Administrator
10
Q
Who monitors the behaviors of the system components for anomalies and malicious attacks and to put measures to mitigate internal and external threats?
A
Cybersecurity analyst
11
Q
Who provides end user training and helps users resolve issues with accessing resources and systems?
A
Technical support
12
Q
Blank is outsourcing outside county lines
A
Offshoring
13
Q
Blank uses the resources and skills of a developed workforce from an external organization
A
Outsourcing
14
Q
Blank is the term for outsourcing project management
A
Project outsourcing
15
Q
Blank is the term for offshoring to countries in a closer time zone
A
Nearshoring
16
Q
Blank is the term for assigning protects to employees within the organization and is an expensive option
A
Insourcing
17
Q
A what is a purpose-driven event that has a definite start and finish
A
Project
18
Q
What ensure that the projects are well defined, with clear l, attainable goals and that resources are in place for successful completion
A
Project management framework
19
Q
Projects usually include these four phases
A
Initiation
Planning
Executing
Closure
20
Q
What broadly defines the phase in a project that begins with a business case, followed by a feasibility study
A
Project initiation
21
Q
What is the name for the project document that outlines the business need, the stakeholders and the business case
A
Project charter
22
Q
What phase of a project includes developing a roadmap for everyone to follow?
A
Project planning
23
Q
What does SMART stand for?
A
Specific
Measureable
Attainable
Realistic
Timely
24
Q
What does CLEAR stand for?
A
Collaborative
Limited
Emotional
Appreciable
Definable
25
By the end of the planning phase what documents have been created?
Scope
Work breakdown structure
Milestones
Communication plan
Risk management plan
26
What statement outlines the objectives, deliverables, and milestones?
Scope
27
What document breaks the work down into manageable segments for the team?
Work breakdown Structure (WBS)
28
What term defines high-level goals to meet throughout the project’s duration?
Milestones
29
What document outlines the frequency and methods of communicating with stakeholders?
Communication plan
30
What document identifies foreseeable risks including costs and delays?
Risk management plan
31
During what phase of a project are deliverables developed and completed. A kickoff call starts this phase ?
Project execution
32
What are used to monitor the project’s progress?
Key performance indicators (KPI) or metrics
33
During what part of the project is the project declared complete and a meeting is held to discuss strengths and opportunities for improvement?
Project closure
34
What are the three broad categories of risk a project may encounter?
1) risks in execution
2) risks in integration
3) risks of the unknown
35
What are the steps to considering risk during the planning phase?
1) identify the risks
2) analyze the impact on the project outcome
3) prioritize the risks by severity and likelihood
4) outline a mitigation strategy to minimize potential risks
5) install monitoring systems for unanticipated risks
36
Blank typically revolve around cost overrun, insufficient staff, inadequate tools and lack of support
Risk in execution
37
Blank can be mitigated by assessing potential disruptions, ensuring adequate support from stakeholders and having a shared understanding of the projects complexity
Risks of integration
38
What are the two key strategies to successfully identify risks?
1) frequent monitoring of project parameters
2) sound communication between project participants
39
What is the term for uncontrolled change of a project’s scope?
Scope creep
40
What is the term for budget control issues, such as underestimated or improper allocations of cost?
Budget risk
41
What describes departments and individuals resisting organizational change resulting from a project?
Resistance to a change
42
What describes an inability to secure sufficient resources for the project?
Resource risk
43
What describes a vendor failing to deliver on contractual obligations?
Contract risk
44
What is a risk that occurs when completion of a task is dependent on the completion of other tasks?
Project dependencies
45
What describes when assumptions about the project are invalidated during project development?
Project assumption risks
46
What describes when a project meets requirements, but delivers fewer benefits than outlined in the business case?
Benefit shortfall
47
What is the term for requirements that have not been properly validated or documented?
Requirements quality risk
48
What is the risk of a major negative event beyond human control?
Force majeure risk
49
What are the four stages of a system life cycle?
Requirements analysis
Design
Implementation
Testing
50
What are the three stages of a system dev life cycle?
Development
Use
Maintenance
51
Developing software that can collect and analyze every aspect of the software development life cycle (SDLC), led to what domain of software development?
Computer-Aided software engineering (CASE)
52
What environments combine tools, such as editing, compiling and debugging tools into a single package?
Integrated Development Environments (IDEs)
53
What phase’s goal is to determine what service the system will provide, identify any condition (such as time constraints) and define how users interact with the system?
Requirements analysis
54
What does ISO stand for?
International organization for Standardization
55
What does ACM stand for?
Association for Computing Machinery
56
What does IEEE stand for?
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineering
57
What does COTS mean?
Commercial off-the-shelf
58
The what is a written agreement between all parties that records the system requirements and guides system development?
System Requirement Specification (SRS)
59
Which software development phase creates a plan for constructing the system?
Design
60
What phase of software development is the system built?
Implementation and integration
61
During what phase of the life cycle, is the system evaluated, and modified as needed?
System maintenance
62
What are the four categories of software maintenance?
1) Corrective
2) adaptive
3) perfective
4) preventative
63
What category of software maintenance has a goal to remove errors to ensure the functionality of the system?
Corrective
64
Which category of system maintenance is performed when the organizational changes affect system requirements?
Adaptive
65
Which category of software maintenance is performed when new components are introduced, or existing ones improved?
Perfective
66
What phase of system maintenance occurs when changes made to increase the lifespan of systems?
Preventative
67
What goes beyond debugging to include improving procedures and developing training for employees?
System quality control
68
What series of standards address industrial activities such as design, production, installation and servicing?
ISO 9000 series
69
What series of standards was developed jointly by the ISO and IEC that is common for third-party system developers to meet specific standards?
ISO/IEC 15504
70
What must also maintain effective documentation practices for future reference?
Quality control
71
Many system engineers believe that what should be incorporated into other steps of the dev process line requirements analysis, design and validation and implementation and testing?
Testing
72
What principle is based on the theory that 80% of errors come from 20% of the system?
Pareto principle
73
What is another software testing methodology that develops a set of test data that ensure a each instruction in the software is executed at least once?
Basis Path testing
74
Techniques based on basis path testing and the Pareto principle rely on knowledge of a system’s internal components is known as what?
Glass-box testing or white-box testing
75
What type of testing does not rely I the tester’s knowledge of the system’s structure but is focused on the user experience (UX)?
Black box testing
76
Methodologies that fall in what are alpha, beta, and user acceptance testing?
Black box testing
77
What type of testing has developers and/or internal UX team test a preliminary version of the software?
Alpha testing
78
What is the second stage of testing where the next version of the system is given to a segment of end users ?
Beta testing or pilot testing
79
What type of testing is the final stage where users test the system in an operational setting?
User acceptance testing
80
What are the three types of QC documentation?
User
System
Technical
81
What documentation explains the system to users and may include how to access certain features, FAQs, and customer support contact info?
User documentation
82
What type of documentation describes the system’s internal configuration so the system can be maintained later in its life cycle?
System documentation
83
What is a major part of software dev cycle that has code being versioned and presented in a readable format allowing code developers to reverse any problematic changes?
Software development system documentation
84
Dev companies have created conventions for writing programs that include several common features. Name three.
1) indentation conventions for script readability
2) naming conventions for variables and constraints
3) documentation conventions for sufficient program documentation
85
What documentation describes how to install and maintain the system including information about installing updates and providing feedback to the dev team?
Technical documentation
86
What did early approaches to software engineering use that followed development processes sequentially?
Waterfall method
87
How is system engineering methodology approaching development now?
By constructing a system in increments
88
In the first increment of software dev what is built, which is a simplified sample of the proposed system?
Prototype
89
In what is a quickly constructed sample is built that may only contain a few screen images indicating how a system would work?
Rapid prototyping
90
What type of software development allows users to modify the software code?
Open source development
91
What system development methodology proposes incremental implementation, respond to rapidly changing requirements and reduces the emphasis on rigorous requirements?
Agile methodologies
92
What are two examples of agile methodology?
Scrum
Extreme programming
93
In what agile method does a system user create a wish list, a programmer selects an item toward the top of the list and plans implementation in a sprint, the team completes the list of objectives, the sprint ends when the system is ready to be released, and the steps start over again in a new sprint?
Scrum
94
In what agile method are systems developed by a team fewer than a dozen writing in a communal workspace
Extreme programming model (XP)
95
What is the term for disaster recovery and business continuity plans?
Contingency plan
96
What is the term for the amount time the client data and resources are available on the servers?
Uptime
97
What is usually measure in the number of nines?
Availability
98
What solutions provide replicas of critical systems that can be deployed when the original system is not available?
High availability solutions
99
What relies on solutions to ensure that a system can recover from catastrophic events in a reasonable amount of time with minimal data loss?
Disaster recovery plans (DRP)
100
When disruptions do occur, what plans help define how to resume services to customers and vital business operations while auxiliary services remain offline?
Business continuity plan
101
What are three strategies used for disaster recovery and business continuity?
Data mirroring
Data backups
Offsite storage
102
What is the term for setting up the operating system to simultaneously write copies of the data on several storage devices?
Data mirroring
103
What are stored on any storage device with tape being the cheapest and most common that can be transported to an off-site location?
Data backups
104
What are popular locations for physical storage because of the low humidity and the protection provided by the earth’s terrain?
Salt mines
Cave
105
What is the length of time necessary to retrieve data from storage?
Availability
106
What should you consider for selecting offsite storage? 5
Accessibility, cost, environment, geographic area,, security
107
What type of storage allows org the quickest access to restore critical data like AWS and Azure hot blobs?
Hot storage
108
What type of storage has less frequent access and is maintained on minimal equipment?
Cold storage
109
What is the term for embedded mechanical devices, objects provided with unique identifiers that are interconnected like home devices?
Internet of Things (IOT)
110
What are requirements set by governing bodies that can result in penalties, fines or even criminal charges?
Regulations
111
What type of ethics argue that good behavior is not the result of applying rules, but instead is a natural consequence of good behavior?
Character-based ethics
112
What are two types of ethical codes in IT?
Ten Commandments of computer ethics
Asimov’s three laws of robotics
113
Name three it organizations that have published rule based ethical standards
Institute of Electrical and electronic engineers (IEEE)
American statistical association (ASA)
Association of information technology professionals (AITP)
114
What policy should reflect the organization’s ethics and provide clear guidelines?
Acceptable user policy (AUP)
115
What refers to the right to control how your personal information is collected, used and exchanged?
Information privacy
116
What term describes a set of rules that limits access to data/information?
Confidentiality
117
What are the three elements of CIA
Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
