key terms final Flashcards Preview

Anesthesia Pharmacology > key terms final > Flashcards

Flashcards in key terms final Deck (73)
1

what do you use for antimicrobial prophylaxis in a clean orthopedic procedure?

none

2

How do volatile anesthetics affect coronary blood flow?

Iso is a potent coronary vasodilator, may cause coronary steal
Other volatiles are weak coronary vasodilators

3

What is the clinical use of phentoalamine?

nonselective Competitive alpha blocker used in acute hypertensive emergency, i.e. pheochromocytoma or autonimic nervous system hyperreflecxia

4

What are the side effects of protamine?

Allergy
hypotension
Pulmonary hypertension

5

What is the mechanism of action of ondansetron?

5Ht3 blocker

6

What is used for antimicrobial prophylaxis in head and neck surgery in a pt with a cephalosporin allergy?

clinda (600-900)+ genta (1.5mg/kg)

7

How is flumazenil metabolized?

100% hepatic

8

What is the mechanism of action of coumadin?

Vitamin K antagonist causes defective vitamin K factors (2,7,9,10)

9

Which opioid is associated with siezure?

merperidine

10

Which beta blocker is used to treat glaucoma?

Timolol

11

What is the potency of opioids from least potent to most?

(0.1)Merperidine<(500-1000)Sufentanyl

12

How is metformin metabolized?

Cleared by kidneys 100% unchanged

13

Which is the quickest acting opioid?

Remifentanyl--6-12 min duration

14

Which drugs are examples of class IV?

Verapamil and Diltiazem

15

Lidocaine is used to tx _______ arrhythmias

ventricular

16

At what receptor occupancy does midazolam cause
anxiolysis
sedation
unconsciousness

anxiolysis: 20%
sedation 30-50%
uncosciousness: 60%

17

What is the onset of edrophonium?

shortest of the anticholinesterase

18

What is the mechanism of class IV antidysrhythmics?

Ca+ channel blockers
decrease action potential duration

19

What is the effect of induction drugs on ICP?

decreased

20

Which opioids should you not use in a pt with renal failure?

merperidine and morphine

21

What is the order of volatile agents from lowest blood:gas coefficient to highest

Desflurane (.42)

22

What are examples of oral anticoagulants?

coumadin and pradaxa

23

How much cardiac output goes to each of the tissue groups?

VRG-75%
Muscle-19%
Fat-6%

24

What is the duration of action for regular insulin?

6-10 hours

25

What is the mOA for Hirudin?

direct thrombin inhibitior: Supresses platelet function

26

What is the order of most metabolized to least metabolized volatile anesthetics?

Halothane-20%>Sevo 2-5%>Iso .2%>Des 0

27

HOw do NSAIDS work and what happens if you give a whole lot?

Inhibition of both cyclooxygenase without specificity
ceiling effect--exceeding recommended dose only adds to risk of toxicity

28

What determines the rate local anesthetics are absorbed?

dosage
site of injection
drug tissue binding
local blood flow
addition of a vasocontrictor

29

What is the mechanism of action of histamine antagonists?

Antagonize histamine receptor/ do not decrease amount of histamine (except H3)

30

What is the pH of thiopental?

10.5

31

What is the side effect of sulfonylureas?

hypoglycemia

32

Which local anesthetics cause methemoglobinemia?

prilocaine and benzocaine

33

What is the concentration for epi added to local anesthetics?

1:200000 aka 5mcg/ml

34

What does NPH stand for ?

neutral protamine hagedorn

35

What is the toxic dose of lidocaine without epi?
with?

without 5mg/kg
with 7mg/kg

36

What is the treatment for methemoglobinemia?

methylene blue 1-2 mg

37

What is Im dose for induction with ketamine?

4-8mg/kg

38

what are contraindications for droperidol?

prolonged QT and parkinsons

39

What is toxic doses of bupivicaine w/ and w/out epi?

without 2.5mg/kg
with 3mg/kg

40

What is the gold standard K+ sparing diuretic?

triamterene
(amiloride was the other one listed as an example)

41

What does VRE stand for?

Vancomycin resistant enterococcus

42

What does MRSA stand for

methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus

43

What is the intubating dose for cisatracurium?

.1mg/kg (-.15mg/kg)

44

What do you give for Anticholinergic overdose?

physostygmine

45

What infusion rates of epi are associated with alpha1?
beta1?
beta2?

Alpha1 1-2 mcg/min
Beta1 4mcg/min
Beta2 10-20 mcg/min

46

In the 2006 medical letter guidelines which antibiotic is indicated for bowel procedures?

cefoxitin

47

What do you give to treat biliary colic from opioids?

glucagon 2mg iv

48

Which opioid receptor do enkalphalins bind to?

delta

49

Which opioid receptor do dynorphins bind to?

kappa

50

Which opioid receptor is associated with feeling of dysphoria?

kappa--where agonist/antagonist work

51

which opioid has atropine like effects?

merperidine

52

Which diurectic is prescribed for IOP?

acetazolamide--carbonic anhydrase inhibitior

53

how is esmolol metabolized?

plasma choliesterase

54

what is ped dosage of ondansetron?

0.1mg/kg

55

what is papaverin used for?

used by vascular surgeons not really us
anastamoses
(verapamil is derived from papavirine)

56

what drug is contraindicated in porphyria>?

thiopental

57

Which diuretic is prescribed for essential hyperetension?

hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)

58

Which antibiotic is given for prophylaxis in a C section?

ancef
(clinda and genta also listed)

59

How are opiods metabolized? whats the exception?

all hepatic except Remi-plasma and tissue esterases

60

which ca++ channel blocker provides the best vasodilation?

Nicardipine

61

which Ca++ channel blocker is used for cerebral vasospasm?

Nimodipine

62

At what dose of SNP do you start sseing CN accumulation?

>2mcg/kg/min
(regular dose is 0.3-10 mcg/kg/min

63

what is ratio of beta:alpha in labetalol?

oral 3:1
IV 7:1

64

name 2 alpha 2 agonists

clonidine alpha2:1 200:1
dexametetomidine

65

which antacid does not cause acid rebound?

MgOH

66

which nsaid is used to close a PDA?

indomethecin

67

what are the effects of Beta 2 agonist?

vasodilation
Increased glucose secretion
gluconeogenesis ad glycogenolysis are inhibited

68

How do volatile anesthetics affect cerebral blood flow?

all increase

69

Which inhaled agent causes bone marrow supression?

NO

70

What is the formula for uptake?

solubility x CO x (Pa-Pv)

71

which induction agent causes adrenocorticoid supression?

etomidate
other sides: myoclonus, hiccups, increased PONV

72

which H2 blocker inhibits cytochrome p450 nand may delay lido metabolism

cimetidine (tagamet)

73

what are side effects of neuraxial opioid adminitstration?

respiratory depression, urinary retention, and itching/pruritis