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MICROBIO > Lab Exam 1 > Flashcards

Lab Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

why do we label plate media on the agar (bottom) side of the plate

A
  • allows us to see the specimen information while looking at the plate in its proper storage orientation
  • lids can be switched between plates
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2
Q

why do we incubate and store plate media with the agar side up (lid side down)

A
  • Condensation dripping disrupts the streaking pattern and cause isolated colonies to merge together
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3
Q

What is the genetic relationship between the cells in a single bacterial colony?

A
  • clones
  • Each individual bacterial colony is assumed to have arisen from a single bacterial cell deposited on the agar at that spot.
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4
Q

How is this genetic relationship important for downstream clinical identification procedures?

A

all bacteria in one colony will have identical morphological and physiological characteristics in our downstream identification procedures

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5
Q

Which part of slide preparation takes the longest?

A

making the smears on the slides because of the air-drying step.

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6
Q

Staphylococcus aureus colony size

A

small to med

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7
Q

Staphylococcus aureus colony elevation

A

raised/slightly convex

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8
Q

Staphylococcus aureus colony consistency/ surface

A

smooth, dull, opaque

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9
Q

Staphylococcus aureus colony form/shape/margin

A

round/entire margin

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10
Q

Staphylococcus aureus colony color

A

grayish cream color, yellow tinge

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11
Q

Staphylococcus aureus colony hemolysis

A

beta-hemolysis

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12
Q

Staphylococcus saprophyticus colony size

A

small

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13
Q

Staphylococcus saprophyticus colony elevation

A

raised/ slightly convex

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14
Q

Staphylococcus saprophyticus colony consistency/surface

A

slightly mucoid, shiny, opaque

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15
Q

Staphylococcus saprophyticus colony form/shape/ margin

A

round, entire margin

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16
Q

Staphylococcus saprophyticus colony color

A

white (often bright)

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17
Q

Staphylococcus saprophyticus colony hemolysis

A

non-hemolytic

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18
Q

selective component(s) of the MSA plate

A

7.5% NaCl

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19
Q

what species of Staphylococcus was able to grow on the MSA plate

A

all staphylococci species are able to grow on MSA plates

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20
Q

differential component(s) of the MSA plate

A

the mannitol sugar and the phenol red indicator dye

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21
Q

Which species of Staphylococcus was able to ferment the sugar and what species of Staphylococcus was not able to ferment the sugar?

A

S. aureus can ferment mannitol while S. saprophyticus cannot ferment mannitol.

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22
Q

Which tests that you performed in the lab gave the same results for both Staphylococcus species?

A

the Gram stain (gram-positive cocci in clusters)
the catalase test (positive)
the oxidase test (negative)
the ability to grow on MSA (evident bacterial growth on the plate)

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23
Q

What are the expected Gram stain results for staphylococci? arrangement?

A

gram-positive cocci that show a clustering arrangement

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24
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae colony size

A

small

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25
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae colony consistency/surface

A

slightly dry

26
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae colony form/shape/margin

A

round/slightly convex/entire margin

27
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae colony color

A

cream/off-white

28
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae colony hemolysis

A

weak beta hemolysis

29
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa colony size

A

medium to large

30
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa colony consistency/ surface

A

silver metallic sheen that is very distinctive

31
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa colony form/shape/margin

A

irregular, flat, slightly spreading, may be unbonate

32
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa colony color

A

sliver/metallic

dense grown may be greenish

33
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa colony hemolysis

A

weak beta hemolysis

34
Q

selective component(s) of the MAC plate

A

are bile salts and Crystal violet dye

35
Q

What component(s) of the MAC medium inhibits gram-positive organisms?

A

bile salts and Crystal violet dye

36
Q

differential component(s) of the MAC plate

A

sugar lactose and the indicator dye neutral red

37
Q

Based on the KIA results, which sugar(s) can P. aeruginosa ferment?

A

neither glucose nor lactose

38
Q

Based on the KIA results, which sugar(s) can C. diphtheriae ferment?

A

glucose but not lactose

39
Q

Gram stain results for C. diphtheriae? shape? arrangement?

A

gram-positive
rods with a characteristic “club” shape
a “palisade” arrangement

40
Q

Gram stain results for P. aeruginosa? arrangement?

A

gram-negative rods

“kissing” arrangement

41
Q

what equipment is used for a sterile workspace

A

laminar flow hoods

42
Q

what equipment provides a sterile bench top

A

Bunsen burner

43
Q

what can be used instead of a Bunsen burner to sterilize loops/needles

A

incinerator

44
Q

true or false: antibiotics can turn a non-selective medium into a selective medium

A

true

45
Q

what do selective media contain that inhibits some bacteria from growing

A

antibiotics
dye
chemical agents

46
Q

what is differential media based on

A

bacteria growth characteristics

47
Q

what are the differential characteristics of a blood agar plate

A

colony characteristics

hemolysis pattern

48
Q

what is the cell wall composed of

A

peptidoglycan

49
Q

what kind of bacteria has a thick cell wall

A

gram +

50
Q

what kind of bacteria have a thin cell wall

A

gram -

51
Q

where is the cell wall in gram + organisms

A

outside the cytoplasmic mmb

52
Q

where is the cell wall in gram neg organisms

A

between the inner cytoplasmic mmb and an outer mmb

53
Q

what kind of bacteria stain purple

A

gram +

54
Q

what kind of bacteria stain red

A

gram -

55
Q

true or false: gram stain is dependable on starved or weakened bacteria

A

false

56
Q

what is the most important step of the gram stain process

A

decolorization

57
Q

catalase function

A

decomposes hydrogen peroxide into O2 and water

58
Q

purpose of the catalase test

A

to tell if a bacteria have the enzyme catalase

59
Q

purpose of the oxidase test

A

determines if bacteria contain the enzyme cytochrome c oxidase

60
Q

function of cytochrome c oxidase

A

aerobic respiration

MICROBIO (6 decks)

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