TEST 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following organism causes syphylis among infected people:

A

Treponema pallidum

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2
Q

The English Scientist reported to the world that smallest structural units of animals and plants are composed of “little boxes”. Later, the discovery by this scientist brought the theory that all living organisms are composed of “cells”.

A

hooke

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3
Q

The function of fimbriae in bacteria is:

A

To help some bacteria attach to surfaces (host cells)

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4
Q

One of the following bacterium is a rod-shaped that causes undulating fever among infected people.

A

Brucella abortus

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5
Q

A structure found in eucaryotic cells but not in procaryotic cells is:

A

Mitochondrial structure

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6
Q

true or false these go together: Robert Koch ——– Aseptic surgery

A

false

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7
Q

Atomic mass (weight) of an atom is one of the following:

A

Sum of protons and neutrons of an atom

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8
Q

High temperature inhibit enzymes by:

A

Denaturing enzyme activity

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9
Q

The ability to distinguish between two adjacent points with a microscope is called:

A

Resolving power

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10
Q

which of the following molecule is not a monosaccharide molecule:

A

lactose

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11
Q

Which of the following enzyme is involved in removing NH2 or amino group from a substrate:

A

deaminase

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12
Q

concerning nucleic acids true or false: nucleotide consists of a purine or pyrimidine nitrogen base, a ribose or deoxyribose sugar, and a phosphate

A

true

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13
Q

Thiamine nitrogen base is a—— present mostly in —–:

A

Pyrimidine/DNA

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14
Q

The kingdom Protista consists of:

A

Protozoa, slime mold and algae

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15
Q

Eight cocci arranged into a cubical packet are called;

A

sarcinae

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16
Q

Which of the following enzyme is involved in synthetic reaction among microorganisms:

A

ligase

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17
Q

true or false: All enzymes are proteins but not all proteins are enzymes

A

true

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18
Q

The compound found in the cell wall of gram positive but not gram negative bacteria:

A

Teichoic acids

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19
Q

Which group of microorganisms would least likely to contain species that could cause diseases in humans:

A

algae

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20
Q

Boiling surgical instruments was a common practice in the early 1800s for reducing infection and it was suggested for the first time by an English Scientist called :

A

lister

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21
Q

The organism involved in a disease called “deadly plague” is one of the following:

A

Yersinia pestis

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22
Q

Vitamin B2 used as a coenzyme is one of the following:

A

riboflavin

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23
Q

One of the following scientist was the first to report the tobacco mosaic viruses from infected plants and he was the first to report viruses as a cause of disease.

A

iwanoski

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24
Q

Louis Pasteur and John Tyndall worked together to

A

Disapprove the theory of spontaneous generation

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25
Q

Thylakoids membrane in green bacteria and cyanobacteria are found in:

A

chloroplasts

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26
Q

Which of the following organism is helicoidal in shape and form:

A

Treponema pallidum

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27
Q

Are located on rough endoplasmic reticulum inside the living cells of eucaryotic and are important in protein synthesis:

A

rRNA

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28
Q

Which of the following organism is ellipsoidal (spherical) in form and shape:

A

Staphylococcus aureus

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29
Q

High concentration of dipicolinic acid and calcium are unique to what bacterial structure:

A

Endospore

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30
Q

Which of the following compound is a disaccharide molecule:

A

maltose

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31
Q

One of the following scientist was the first to develop condenser for microscope and also a technique for using oil immersion objective that is the most effective objective to identify microscopic organisms.

A

abbe

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32
Q

Phospholipids are complex lipids important in concentration of:

A

plasma mmb

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33
Q

Which of the following antibiotic inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis in the cell wall of bacteria:

A

penicillin

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34
Q

The term peritrichous refers to a bacterium with:

A

Flagella protruding from all areas of a bacterium

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35
Q

Spiral bacteria that are short and do not form complete coils are called;

A

vibrios

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36
Q

Arginine, serine, alanine, histidine, glycine, lysine, cysteine, tyrosine, valine and leucine all are:

A

a.a

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37
Q

Which of the following is probably true about all the experiments that proved spontaneous generation:

A

Microorganisms were already present

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38
Q

The resolving power of the compound brightfield microscope is:

A

0.2 um

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39
Q

A scanning electron microscope uses which of the following sources of illumination:

A

Source of electron

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40
Q

All of the following except one are biologically important hexoses:

A

ribose

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41
Q

true or false: Endospores allow a cell to survive environmental changes

A

true

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42
Q

true or false: viruses cannot metabolize nutrients

A

true

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43
Q

true or false: viruses are not composed of cells

A

TRUE

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44
Q

true or false: viruses cannot reproduce by themselves

A

true

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45
Q

true or false: viruses have DNA or RNA, not both

A

true

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46
Q

Two long strands of DNA nucleotides are held together by matched-pair of nitrogen bases of:

A

A-T, G-C

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47
Q

Included in subkingdom eucaryotes:

A

protozoa

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48
Q

Magnification of 100,000 or more can be obtained by using a

A

Electron microscope

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49
Q

true or false: Endospores are metabolically active

A

false

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50
Q

In addition to magnifying an image, microscope objectives;

A

Focus the light rays coming from the specimen being viewed

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51
Q

He was the first who divided bacteria regarding to the absence or presence of endospores into two major groups: vegetative or active forms and sleeping or dormant forms.

A

cohn

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52
Q

Which of the following nitrogen base is not found in DNA molecule of a bacterial cell:

A

uracil

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53
Q

Which of the following scientist was able to transfer Bacillus antheracis from cattle to mice:

A

Koch

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54
Q

When bacteria are in solution of low ion concentration, they are prevented from bursting due to osmotic pressure because of the presence of the:

A

cell wall

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55
Q

which of the following organism is cylindrica (rod-shaped) in form and shaped:

A

Bacillus megaterium

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56
Q

True or false: triglycerides are esters of glycerol and fatty acid

A

true

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57
Q

True or false: lipids are basically esters of fatty acids

A

true

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58
Q

True or false: Phospholipids are the major components of cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria

A

true

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59
Q

true or false: Lipids form complexes with polysaccharides (LPS) and are a major component of the cell wall of bacteria

A

true

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60
Q

Which of the following contains five carbons in its chemical structure:

A

ribose

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61
Q

Dense, external coats of polysaccharide and polypeptide are referred to a structure of bacterium called:

A

capsule

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62
Q

One of the following German Scientist studied the life cycle of anthrax bacillus and he used anthrax as a model to demonstrate that specific microorganisms are the cause of specific diseases

A

koch

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63
Q

Many bacteria contain an invaginated and highly convoluted section of cytoplasmic membrane called the:

A

mesosome

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64
Q

Scanning electron microscope uses which of the following sources of illumination:

A

electron

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65
Q

He was the first to discover the antimicrobial activity of products released by a mold called Penicillium notatum. He called this product penicillin

A

flemming

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66
Q

What is the fate of pyruvic acid in aerobic respiration:

A

It is oxidized in the Krebs’ cycle

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67
Q

All of the following are direct methods to measure microbial growth, except:

A

Metabolic activity

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68
Q

A product of heterolactic fermentation is

A
  • Butyric acid
  • Lactic acid
  • Carbon dioxide
  • Ethyl alcohol
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69
Q

Which of the following best describes respiration:

A

The complete catabolism of glucose to CO2 and H2O

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70
Q

Which of the following compound is not produced in the course of Krebs’ cycle:

A

lactate

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71
Q

Bacterial growth can be guantitated by :

A
  • Colony plate count
  • Biochemical activity
  • Turbidimetric method
  • Weight of nitrogen
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72
Q

In what phase of a bacterial growth curve do cells multiply at their maximum rate:

A

log phase

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73
Q

A relationship between two species of organisms that live together where one benefits without harming the other one:

A

Commesalism

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74
Q

Amino acids fermentation by Clostridium tetani produces all of the followings, except:

A

gemosin

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75
Q

Electron transport system (ETS) of a bacterium is located in:

A

cytoplasmic mmb

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76
Q

Oxidative Phosphorylation would be impossible without:

A

A supply of oxygen

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77
Q

Entamoeba histolytica in the large intestine of human being is considered to be:

A

parasitism

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78
Q

Which of the following blood cell exhibits the highest phagocytic activity:

A

neutrophil

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79
Q

Organisms which require oxygen in a lower concentration found in the atmosphere are termed:

A

microerophiles

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80
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis in vagina and prostate glands of infected people is a:

A

protozoan

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81
Q

Which of the following organism is gram-negative bacterium and it produces an endotoxin:

A

Salmonella typhi

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82
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of fermentation:

A

Generates large amounts of ATPs

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83
Q

The following bacteria are microorganisms that can make up part of normal flora, and can cause disease if given the right set of circumstances

A

opportunist

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84
Q

A product of Krebs’s cycle is:

A

Carbon dioxide
FADH2
NADH2
succinic acid

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85
Q

The optimal growth temperature of a bacterium is most closely related to the optimal temperature of:

A

Functioning of enzymes

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86
Q

Escherichia coli inside the large intestine of human being is considered to be:

A

commensalism
opportunist
mutualism

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87
Q

In the Stationary phase of population growth curve of microorganisms one of the following occurs:

A

Presence of “limiting factors” will stop growth of the organisms

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88
Q

Which of the following is not end product of fermentation:

A

pyruvic acid

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89
Q

Which of the following area of human body is usually colonized by bacteria:

A

digestive system

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90
Q

One of the following organism in human is causing African sleeping sickness:

A

Trypanosoma gambiense

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91
Q

What method is the most effective and reliable way to determine the viable count of bacterial culture:

A

Plate colony count

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92
Q

A population of bacteria which forms the following organelle can be expected to have a longer stationary phase than a population whose cells do not from that organelle?

A

capsule

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93
Q

Increase the number of organisms by doubling process occurs in one of the following phase of population growth curve of microorganisms.

A

log phase

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94
Q

Bacteria which grow best at temperature above 50 C. are:

A

thermophiles

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95
Q

Generation time is:

A

Equivalent to the doubling time of a population

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96
Q

A relationship between two species of organisms that live together where one benefits without harming the other one:

A

commensalism

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97
Q

colony count formula

A

of colonies counted x dilution factor= # of organisms

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98
Q

The addition of which of the following to a culture medium will neutralize acids:

A

buffers

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99
Q

Hemacytometer is used to determine the number of:

A

all cells

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100
Q

A microorganism that is able to cause disease is called a :

A

pathogen

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101
Q

What is the name of biochemical sequence that degrades glucose to pyruvic acid yielding 2 ATPs:

A

glycolysis

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102
Q

A parasitism bacterium:

A

Is harmful to the host

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103
Q

Which of the following genus is a virus and causes genital warts

A

papilloma

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104
Q

true or false : In the lag phase, cell death exceeds cell multiplication

A

false

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105
Q

true or false: Bacteria divide by binary fission, producing two daughter cells

A

true

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106
Q

true or false: In the death phase, bacterial growth may cease as the result of oxygen and nutrient exhaustion

A

true

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107
Q

true or false: Salmonella typhi has high metabolic activity with shorter generation time

A

true

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108
Q

true or false: The generation time of bacteria may vary from species to species

A

true

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109
Q

fatty acids are catabolized in

A

Krebs cycle

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110
Q

Which of the following organism is gram-positive and produces an exotoxin that does not
cause intestinal disturbances:

A

Streptococcus pyogenes

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111
Q

In the lag phase of population growth curve of microorganisms all of the following occur, except:

A

Increase the number of organisms by doubling process

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112
Q

how do you get rid/control microorganisms

A
  • prevent any contamination
  • prevent decomposition of food/beverage
  • prevent transmission
  • prevent any damage to tissue of human or animal
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113
Q

what are the 2 types of microorganism control

A

physical

chem

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114
Q

def? sterile; free of any organism

A

sterilization

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115
Q

def? kill all vegetative organisms but not spores

A

disinfectant

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116
Q

def? any type of reagent that can stop any metabolic activity (living tissue)

A

antiseptic

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117
Q

def? any agent used to reduce the # of organisms in a sol’n; sol’n is approved by the health department

A

sanitizer

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118
Q

def? any type of reagent that can kill germs

A

germicidal

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119
Q

def? any reagent that damage the morphology of bacterias

A

bactericidal

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120
Q

def? any type of reagent used to stop metabolic activity

A

bacteriostatic

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121
Q

def? anything that damages a virus

A

viricidal

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122
Q

def? anything that damages a fungi

A

fungicidal

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123
Q

def? removes spores

A

sporocidal

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124
Q

what do these factor make up: conc, intensity of the light, timing, temp, pop of organism, type of organism

A

antimicrobial agent

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125
Q

what enzyme breaks covalent bond of the cell wall

A

lysozyme

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126
Q

what antibiotics break the cell wall

A

Penicillin and bacitracin

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127
Q

what changes/alters/damages cell/plasma mmb

A
  • phenolic compound

- detergent with more ammonia

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128
Q

what alters the cytoplast

A

heat

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129
Q

what presents the formation of folic acid in the sequence of biosynthesis

A

sulfa drug

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130
Q

nucleoprotein in higher animals

A

histone

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131
Q

nucleoprotein in lower animals

A

typtophan

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132
Q

how do you damage the nucleoprotein

A

radiation

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133
Q

what kind of radiation are x and gamma rays

A

ionizing radiation

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134
Q

def? completely inactivates enzyme/protein

A

killing eggiest

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135
Q

def? growth is stoped but organism is alive

A

static effect

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136
Q

def? lowest temp that can kill bacteria in suspension in 10 mins

A

thermal death point

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137
Q

def? shortest time a suspension of organism in a certain temp

A

thermal death time

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138
Q

what kind of temp is steam under pressure/autoclave

A

moist temp

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139
Q

autoclave temp, pounds, time?

A

121 C at 15 lbs for 15 mins

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140
Q

conditions of fractional sterilization/condensation

A

autoclave at 100 C for 15 mins several times

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141
Q

true or false: boiling kills organisms

A

false

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142
Q

conditions for pasteurization

A

in machine at 62 C for 30 mins

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143
Q

what kind of temp is oven (dry oven); no liquid; 121 C for 2-3 hrs

A

dry heat

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144
Q

def? organism in the fire

A

incineration

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145
Q

aka lyophilization or static temp

A

low temp

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146
Q

def? stop metabolic activity at 5-7 C

A

low temp

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147
Q

what temp is deep freeze at

A

20 C

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148
Q

what temp is ice chest at and how long

A

70 C (1-2 years)

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149
Q

what temp is liquid nitrogen at

A

196 C

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150
Q

def? removing water from organism

A

dessication

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151
Q

what change in the environment can lyse or plasmalyse

A

osmotic pressure

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152
Q

water goes out and cell shrinks

A

hypertonic

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153
Q

water goes inside cell swells

A

hypotonic

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154
Q

organic lover

A

osmphilic

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155
Q

what kind of light is radiation and nm

A

visible light (400-750 nm)

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156
Q

what color light is very sensitive to our eyes

A

blue and green

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157
Q

what are the 3 short wavelengths

A

UV
x ray
gamma ray

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158
Q

true or false: short wavelengths damage DNA/RNA molecules

A

true

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159
Q

what kind of radiation breaks covalent bond between RNA molecules

A

non-ionizing

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160
Q

what kind of radiation sometimes produce a thymine dimer

A

ionizing radiation

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161
Q

what compound can be found in mouth wash

A

phenolic compound

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162
Q

what phenolic compound was 1st used by lister

A

carbolic acid

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163
Q

what do phenolic compounds prevent

A

protein synthesis

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164
Q

what is very effective in preservation

A

formaldhyde

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165
Q

what compound inactivates/denatures protein

A

formaldehyde

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166
Q

most effective alcohol conc

A

70% alcohol 30% distilled water

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167
Q

what does alcohol do

A

inactivates the protein

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168
Q

what does chloride effect

A

fungi

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169
Q

what does dye damage

A

morphology

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170
Q

what does sodium & potassium salt of higher fatty acid make up

A

detergent/soap

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171
Q

what damages/breaks plasma mmb resulting cytoplasm to leak out

A

detergent/soap

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172
Q

what is 3% hydrogen peroxide used for

A

block enzyme activity

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173
Q

where do antibiotics come from

A

fungi, yeast, bacteria, or some algae

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174
Q

def? antibiotic that block metabolic activity

A

bacteriostatic

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175
Q

def? Antibiotic that damage organism

A

bactericidal

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176
Q

what does penicillium notatum produce

A

penicillin

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177
Q

what does bacillus polymyxa produce

A

polymyxin B

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178
Q

what does streptomyces fradiae produce

A

neomycin

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179
Q

what does streptomyces griseus produce

A

streptomycin

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180
Q

what does erthraeus produce

A

erythromycin

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181
Q

what does bacillus subtilis produce

A

bacitracin

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182
Q

what does penicillin, vancomycin, and bacitracin damage

A

cell wall

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183
Q

what does chloramphenicol, erythromycin, neomycin, and streptomycin inhibit

A

protein synthesis

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184
Q

what does amphitracin B and polymyxin B damage

A

cell mmb/ plasma mmb

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185
Q

what does neomycin inhibit

A

nucleic acid replication

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186
Q

what does erythromycin prevent

A

formation of peptide chain

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187
Q

is erythromycin more effective in gram + or - organisms

A

neg

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188
Q

do prokaryotes have nucleus

A

no

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189
Q

do prokaryotes have a nuclear mmb

A

no

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190
Q

do prokaryotes have nucleoid

A

yes

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191
Q

do prokaryotes have nucleolus

A

no

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192
Q

what kind of DNA do prokaryotes have

A

single strand

some have double

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193
Q

do prokaryotes have a cell wall

A

yes

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194
Q

what prokaryote does not have a cell wall

A

micoplasma

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195
Q

do prokaryotes have a cytoplasmic mmb

A

yes

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196
Q

do prokaryotes do mitosis/mitotic

A

no

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197
Q

do prokaryotes do meiosis

A

no

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198
Q

do prokaryotes have ribosomes

A

yes

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199
Q

where are ribosomes located in pro

A

cytoplasm

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200
Q

do prokaryotes do respiration

A

yes

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201
Q

where does reparation occur in pro

A

cytoplast mmb

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202
Q

do prokaryotes do photosynthesis

A

yes

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203
Q

what do bacteria use for motility

A

flagella

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204
Q

what do cyanobacteria use for motility

A

trichome

205
Q

what kind of reproduction do pro do

A

asexual- binary fission

206
Q

do eukaryotes have a nucleus

A

yes

207
Q

do eukaryotes have a nuclear mmb

A

yes

208
Q

do eukaryotes have a nucleolus

A

yes

209
Q

what kind of DNA do eukaryotes have

A

most are double stranded

210
Q

what kind of eukaryotes have a cell wall

A

fungi, yeast

211
Q

true or false: protozoa and algae do not have a cell wall

A

true

212
Q

do eukaryotes have a cytoplasmic mmb

A

yes

213
Q

do eukaryotes do mitosis/mitotic

A

yes

214
Q

do eukaryotes do meiosis

A

yes

215
Q

do eukaryotes have ribosomes

A

yes

216
Q

where are ribosomes located in eukaryotes

A

ER

217
Q

do eukaryotes do respiration

A

yes

218
Q

where does respiration occur in eukaryotes

A

mitochondria

219
Q

do eukaryotes do photosynthesis

A

yes

220
Q

what do eukaryotes use for motility

A

cilia, flagella, pseudopodia

221
Q

what kind of reproduction do eukaryotes do

A

sexual and asexual

222
Q

are fungi and mold heterotroph or autotrophs? and what kind?

A

heterotroph (chemohetroph)

223
Q

what is fungi/mold cell wall composed of

A

chitin

224
Q

true or false: fungi can not grow in other living organisms

A

false

225
Q

true or false: some fungi grow on top of non living organism

A

true

226
Q

structure of fungi

A

hyphae

227
Q

what is the total amount of hyphae called

A

mycelium

228
Q

what are the 2 types of fungi

A

mycelinated and non mycelinated

229
Q

what type of hyphae is involved in fission

A

negative hyphae

230
Q

what type of hyphae is involved in fertilization

A

fertile/aerial hyphae

231
Q

what type of hyphae is used for attachment

A

fertile/aerial hyphae

232
Q

what type of root do fungi that are sacchrophile/non living have

A

rhizoid

233
Q

what kind of root attaches to living organisms

A

haustoria

234
Q

what phylum is all bacteria in

A

schizomycophyta

235
Q

what phylum is slime mold in

A

amastigomycophyta

236
Q

what phylum is “true” fungi in

A

eumycophyta

237
Q

what class of eumycetes does this describe: mycelium is not separated, rhizoid root, H20 mold, aka sporangium

A

phycomycetes

238
Q

what class of eumycetes does this describe: sac on top called ascus w/c has sores, septated, unicellular

A

ascomycetes

239
Q

what class of eumycetes does this describe: club shaped, septated hyphae, rhizoid root, basidospores, mushroom

A

basidomycetes

240
Q

what class of eumycetes does this describe: more than 1000, some pathogen (humans/animals) , some septated,

A

deuteromycetos

241
Q

what kind of reproduction do fungi/mold do

A

asexual

242
Q

what kind of asexual reproduction is septated hyphae, found in the last cell

A

conidia type

243
Q

what kind of asexual reproduction is separated hyphae, last cell has sporingiosphere

A

sporingia

244
Q

what kind of asexual reproduction do the majority of organisms that attach to humans do

A

arthrospore and oidia type

245
Q

what kind of reproduction produces more organisms

A

asexual

246
Q

what kind of sexual reproduction has oospores and zoospores

A

oomycete

247
Q

what kind of sexual reproduction produces ascospore

A

ascomycte

248
Q

what kind of sexual reproduction produces zygospore

A

zygomyte

249
Q

are yeast heterotroph or autotrophs

A

heterotrophs

250
Q

do yeast do photosynthesis

A

no

251
Q

what is a yeast’s cell wall composed of

A

sugar, lipids, protein, and carbohydrates

252
Q

what structure do yeast use for movement

A

none

253
Q

do yeast have a complete nucleus

A

yes

254
Q

what kind of respiration do yeast do

A

aerobic or fermentation

255
Q

how do yeast divide

A

asexually- binary fission, budding or spore

256
Q

how long are yeast

A

10- 50 u

257
Q

width of yeast

A

4-5 u

258
Q

what kind of mitochondria do yeast have

A

twisted

259
Q

where is the ER in yeast

A

attached to the plasma mmb

260
Q

what organism stores lipoprotein

A

yeast

261
Q

what kind of candida is pathogenic

A

myelinated

262
Q

true or false: protozoa have no cell wall

A

true

263
Q

what kind of organism are protozoa

A

unicellular

264
Q

are protozoa heterotroph or autotrophs

A

both

265
Q

what protects an organism from the environment, secretion from cytoplasm

A

encystment

266
Q

what kind of respiration do protozoa do

A

aerobic or anaerobic, oxidation

267
Q

what kind of reproduction do protozoa do

A

sexual and asexual

268
Q

what are the 2 types of sexual reproduction that protozoa do

A

conjugation and syngamy

269
Q

In phylum sarcodina how do they move

A

pseudopodia

270
Q

what is the cytoplast composed of in phylum sarcodina

A

ectoplast and endoplast

271
Q

what causes amoebic dysentery; parasitic

A

entamoeba histolytica

272
Q

what kind of parasitic relationship is entamoeba coli

A

commensal

273
Q

what kind of parasitic relationship is endolimax nada

A

commensal

274
Q

what kind of parasitic relationship is iodomoeba butchlii

A

commensal

275
Q

what kind of parasitic relationship is naegleria fowleri

A

parasitic

276
Q

how does phylum mastigophora move

A

very long flagella

277
Q

where is Giardia lamblia found

A

warm areas

278
Q

what does Giardia lamblia cause

A

diarrhea

279
Q

what does trichomonad vaginalis cause

A

inflammation in vagina, prostate, and urethra in males

280
Q

what does trichomonad hominis cause

A

mild diarrhea

281
Q

what does trypanosoma gamblense cause

A

west African sleeping sickness

282
Q

where is trypanosoma cruzi found

A

south and central america

283
Q

what disease is trypanosoma cruzi cause

A

American trypanosomiasis or chagas disease

284
Q

what disease does leishmania donovani cause

A

kala-azar disease

285
Q

in phylum mastigophora what are the 2 types of flagella

A

phytoglagellate and zooglagellate

286
Q

in phylum mastigophora what kind of flagella do the photoautotrophs have

A

phytoglagellate

287
Q

in phylum mastigophora what kind of flagella do the heterotrophs have

A

zooglagellate

288
Q

what does phylum ciliaphora look like

A

very short and thick

289
Q

where is balantidium coli found

A

large intestine

290
Q

what does balantidium coli cause

A

balantidiosis

291
Q

in phylum sporozoa what is the parasitic relationship

A

Parasitic

292
Q

what does isopora hominis and isopora belli cause

A

diarrhea

293
Q

what parasitic relationship does cyrptasporidium parvum have

A

opportunist

294
Q

what parasitic relationship does toxoplasma gondii have

A

opportunist

295
Q

what parasitic relationship does pheumocystis carinii have

A

opportunist

296
Q

where is toxoplasma gondii found

A

people’s brain

297
Q

where is pheumocystis carinii found

A

lungs

298
Q

what is the most dangerous plasmodium

A

plasmodium

299
Q

what is the most common plasmodium

A

plasmodium vivax

300
Q

what class of worm is called digenetic fluke in humans

A

trematoda/fluke

301
Q

what 2 suckers does class trematoda/fluke have

A

oral and ventral

302
Q

true or false: class trematoda/fluke has no blood system

A

true

303
Q

in class trematoda/fluke what cells make up the nephridial and urinary system

A

flame cells

304
Q

Is class trematoda/fluke monoecious or dioecious

A

both majority are monoecious

305
Q

how do people get fasciolopsis buski

A

vegetation

306
Q

how do people get heterophyes heterophyes

A

fish

307
Q

what is the intermediate host of intestinal flukes

A

snail

308
Q

where do intestinal flukes release their egg

A

intestine

309
Q

where do liver flukes release their eggs

A

bile duct or duodenum

310
Q

where do lung flukes release their eggs

A

lung- sputum and saliva

311
Q

are lung flukes monoecious or dioecious

A

monoecious

312
Q

where do blood flukes release their eggs

A

blood

313
Q

what kind of fluke are fasciola hepatica and clonorchis sinensis

A

liver fluke

314
Q

aka fasciola hepatica

A

sheep liver fluke

315
Q

aka clonorchis sinensis

A

Chinese liver fluke

316
Q

what kind of fluke is paragonimus westermani

A

lung fluke

317
Q

how do people get paragonimus westermani

A

crab or crayfish

318
Q

what kind of flukes are schistosoma mansoni, schistosoma japonicum, schistosoma haematobium

A

blood flukes

319
Q

where are schistosoma mansoni and schistosoma japonicum,

A

mesenteric vein

320
Q

where are schistosoma haematobium found

A

pelvic vein

321
Q

what are the 3 parts of class Cestoda/tapeworm

A

head region, neck region, trunk

322
Q

what is the head region called in class Cestoda

A

scolex

323
Q

what are the segments of the trunk called in class Cestoda

A

proglottid

324
Q

what are the 3 types of proglottid

A

immature, mature, gravid

325
Q

what type of proglottid has nerve to nephridia system only

A

immature

326
Q

what type of proglottid has nerve, nephridial, genital

A

mature

327
Q

what type of proglottid has uterus and egg

A

gravid

328
Q

aka tanenia saginatta

A

beef tapeworm

329
Q

aka taenia solium

A

pork tapeworm

330
Q

aka diphyllibothrium latum

A

fish tapeworm

331
Q

aka echinocactus granulosus

A

dog tapeworm

332
Q

aka aschelminthes

A

roundworm or nematoda

333
Q

what are the 2 diff types of roundworm

A

intestinal nemtoda and extra intestinal

334
Q

are roundworms monoecious or dioecious

A

dioecious

335
Q

what is the intermediate host for tissue and blood nematode

A

insect

336
Q

where can you find ascaris lumbricoides

A

all over the world

337
Q

aka ascaris lumbricoides

A

common round worm

338
Q

what color are ascaris lumbricoides

A

yellowish- white

339
Q

aka enterobius vermicularis

A

pinworm

340
Q

aka nectar americanus or ancylostoma duodenale

A

hook worm

341
Q

where do you find nectar americanus or ancylostoma duodenale

A

africa, north and south america

342
Q

what kind of roundworm cause elephantiasis

A

wuchereria bancrofti

343
Q

aka acanthccephala

A

thorny-headed worm

344
Q

is acanthccephala diecious or monoecious

A

diecious

345
Q

what muscle do acanthccephala have that can contract and relax which cause bleeding

A

probosis

346
Q

what part of the body acanthccephala attack

A

digestive system

347
Q

how is acanthccephala transferred

A

beetle, cockroach, or fish

348
Q

what kind of parasite are arthropods

A

ectoparasite and endoparasite

349
Q

what kind of parasite are viruses

A

intercellular obligate parasite

350
Q

what does a serotropic virus attack

A

internal organs

351
Q

what does a panthotropic virus attack

A

diff organs of the body

352
Q

what does an enterovirus attack

A

digestive system

353
Q

what does an enterovirus attack

A

digestive system

354
Q

what does an adenovirus attack

A

respiratory system

355
Q

what does a myxovirus attack

A

mucosa

356
Q

def? complete virus

A

virjon

357
Q

what % of influenza virus is nucleic acid

A

1%

358
Q

what % of influenza virus is capsule/protein/capside

A

99%

359
Q

what % of bacteriophage is nucleic acid

A

50%

360
Q

what % of bacteriophage is capsule/protein/capside

A

50%

361
Q

what % of HSV is nucleic acid

A

26%

362
Q

what % of HSV is capsule/protein/capside

A

74%

363
Q

what is the envelope composed of

A

protein, fat, carbohydrates

364
Q

what structure virus are composed of rod shaped structure

A

helical

365
Q

what structure virus have side/corner

A

polyheclial

366
Q

what structure virus are helical or polyhedral with envelop

A

Envelope

367
Q

what structure virus has bacteriophage/bacterial virus, has head, neck, and tail region

A

complex

368
Q

what recognizes specific site receptor

A

fibers

369
Q

def? virus starts to multiply and break/damage cell

A

cytopathic effect

370
Q

what produces antibody against antigen

A

plasma cells

371
Q

what virus can cause cervical cancer

A

HSV II and HPV

372
Q

how do you culture a virus

A

grows in living cells

373
Q

what kind of culture uses hyaluronidase

A

cell/tissue culture

374
Q

what kind of culture uses living organisms to inject virus in the stomach

A

company

375
Q

what kind of cancer is of the lymph

A

lymphoma

376
Q

what kind of cancer is of the WBC

A

myeloma and leukemia

377
Q

what kind of cancer is of the skin

A

melanoma

378
Q

what kind of cancer is of connective tissue

A

sarcoma

379
Q

what kind of cancer is of diff glands

A

adenocarcinoma

380
Q

what kind of cancer has the 3 letter code MYB

A

acute lymphatic leukemia

381
Q

what kind of cancer has the 3 letter code RAN

A

myeloma

382
Q

def? process where the cell starts to divid (has 2 genes: virus and self)

A

lysogeny

383
Q

what stage in the cytopathic effect is cell mmb/cell wall of the host cell has specific receptor which is responsible for virus attachment using h bond

A

attachment

384
Q

what stage in the cytopathic effect is in involved to break part of the cell wall/plasma

A

lsozyme

385
Q

what stage in the cytopathic effect does the virus push DNA/RNA molecule or sometimes the entire virus

A

penetration

386
Q

what stage in the cytopathic effect are cells manufactured

A

maturation

387
Q

what stage in the cytopathic effect assembles everything which cause cell lysis

A

assembly

388
Q

how many viruses come out of 1 cell in the cytopathic effect

A

50-200

389
Q

def? integration of virus to host cell

A

lysogeny

390
Q

what stage of lysogeny is the virus attaching to specific receptor in the cell wall/ plasma mmb

A

attachment

391
Q

what stage of lysogeny is the enzyme produced to break cell wall/plasma cell

A

lysozyme

392
Q

what stage of lysogeny is DNA/RNA molecule getting inside the host cell

A

penetration

393
Q

what stage of lysogeny is joining of virus DNA and host cell

A

integration

394
Q

what stage of lysogeny carry same type of genome resulting in cell tumor

A

cell division

395
Q

def? changes the genome of host cell

A

oncogen

396
Q

what kind of virus is dependovirus

A

DNA single strand no envelop

397
Q

what kind of virus is adenovirus and HPV

A

DNA double strand no envelop

398
Q

what kind of virus is vaccina, variola, HSV 1 and 2

A

DNA double stranded with envelop

399
Q

what kind of virus is Rubella, rubeola, flavivirus, corona virus

A

RNA single-strand with envelop

400
Q

what kind of virus is Colorado fever/tick virus

A

RNA double strand w/o envelop

401
Q

what kind of virus is influenza virus I, II, III

A

RNA double strand with envelop

402
Q

what kind of virus is rhinovirus and rabies

A

RNA single strand w/o envelop

403
Q

is bacteria a intercellular parasite

A

no

404
Q

does bacteria have a plasma mmb

A

yes

405
Q

does bacteria do binary fission

A

yes

406
Q

does bacteria have a cell wall

A

yes

407
Q

does bacteria pass through a chamberlain filter

A

no

408
Q

does bacteria have DNA and RNA

A

yes

409
Q

does bacteria use ATP for metabolism

A

yes

410
Q

does bacteria have ribosomes

A

yes

411
Q

is bacteria sensitive to Ab

A

yes

412
Q

is bacteria sensitive to interferon

A

no

413
Q

is Rickettsia/chlamydia an intercellular parasite

A

yes

414
Q

Does Rickettsia/chlamydia have a plasma mmb

A

yes

415
Q

Does Rickettsia/chlamydia do binary fission

A

yes

416
Q

Does Rickettsia/chlamydia have a cell wall

A

yes

417
Q

Does Rickettsia/chlamydia pass through a chamberlain filter

A

no/yes

418
Q

Does Rickettsia/chlamydia have DNA and RNA

A

yes

419
Q

Does Rickettsia/chlamydia use ATP for metabolism

A

yes/no

420
Q

Does Rickettsia/chlamydia have ribosomes

A

yes

421
Q

is Rickettsia/chlamydia sensitive to Ab

A

yes

422
Q

is Rickettsia/chlamydia sensitive to interferon

A

no

423
Q

is a virus an intercellular parasite

A

yes

424
Q

do viruses have a plasma mmb

A

no

425
Q

do viruses do binary fission

A

no

426
Q

do viruses have a cell wall

A

no

427
Q

do viruses pass through a chamberlain filter

A

yes

428
Q

do viruses have DNA and RNA

A

no

429
Q

do viruses use ATP for metabolism

A

no

430
Q

do viruses have ribosomes

A

no

431
Q

Are viruses sensitive to Ab

A

no

432
Q

are viruses sensitive to interferon

A

yes

433
Q

what virus is shingles

A

varicella zoster

434
Q

def? body’s response to any type of invasion of microorganism

A

immunity/resistance

435
Q

def? any type of foreign material that goes inside the cell

A

antigen

436
Q

def? very specific called monoclonal antibody

A

antibody

437
Q

what type of lymphocyte is tiny, have large nucleus, and small cytoplasm

A

small lymphocyte

438
Q

what type of lymphocyte are b and T cells

A

small

439
Q

def? produces antibody by changing to plasma cell

A

b cell

440
Q

def? search body for any type of foreign material and give it to macrophage

A

t cell

441
Q

what type of lymphocyte change to monocyte which change to macrophage

A

medium

442
Q

where are monocytes produced

A

bone marrow

443
Q

what type of lymphocyte directly change to macrophage

A

large

444
Q

what % of WBC are lymphocytes

A

25-40%

445
Q

what is a person called with no type of immunity

A

susceptible

446
Q

what kind of immunity is inherited and have some barrier

A

natural immunity

447
Q

what kind of immunity do you get through exposure to antigen

A

acquired immunity

448
Q

what kind of acquired immunity is a person exposed to type of antigen

A

active

449
Q

what kind of acquired immunity is serum of Ab, transfer to healthy person protect for short time

A

passive

450
Q

def? exposure directly to antigen

A

natural-acquired active immunity

451
Q

def? vaccination

A

artificial-acquired active immunity

452
Q

transfer antiserum to another person

A

artificial - acquired passive immunity

453
Q

mother to child; placenta

A

natural-acquired passive immunity

454
Q

what 2 types of protein are in abtibodies

A

albumin and globulin

455
Q

who was the 1st to talk about antibodies

A

ehrlich

456
Q

what kind of immunity does a person produce antibody by exposure to bacteria, virus, fungi; plasma cell produced in the body

A

humoral immunity

457
Q

what kind of immunity is some cell inside the body that can protect people against antigen

A

mediated immunity.

458
Q

what immunoglobulin is the majority

A

IgG

459
Q

what type of antibody causes agglutination

A

agglutinin

460
Q

what type of antibody is between antigen and antibody inside the tube produces a ring/lattice

A

precipitin

461
Q

what type of antibody is against toxic material

A

antitoxin

462
Q

what type of antibody can fix complement

A

CFT

463
Q

what type of antibody that makes an organism susceptible to antigen

A

opsomin

464
Q

what type of antibody that can lyse/break antigen

A

lysin

465
Q

what type of antibody can neutralize antigen

A

neutrolysin

466
Q

def? antiviral protein that produced in the body of humans/animals against viral infection

A

interferon

467
Q

who was the 1st to produce a vaccine for small pox/variola

A

jenner

468
Q

who coined the term vaccine

A

pasteur

469
Q

what kind of vaccine is a whole agent vaccine (weakened through subculture)

A

attenuated

470
Q

what kind of vaccine is dead whole agent vaccine

A

inactivated

471
Q

what kind of vaccine removes toxic material

A

toxoid

472
Q

what kind of vaccine is 1 part of organism by itself is not antigen; must be combined with serum

A

conjugated

473
Q

what kind of vaccine remove part of organism through genetic engineering

A

segment/partial/fragment

474
Q

what kind of vaccine is still being worked on for HIV

A

DNA

475
Q

def? searching for antibody inside humans and animals

A

serology

476
Q

explain a serology test

A

take blood- centrifuge- look for antibody inside the serum

477
Q

what is being found in a agglutination test

A

agglutinin

478
Q

what are the 2 different techniques of a agglutination test

A

tube test

slide test

479
Q

what test would you use for salmonella typhi

A

widal test

480
Q

what test is angulation of RBC on antigen

A

hemagluttination test

481
Q

what is being found in a precipitation test

A

precipitin

482
Q

what antibody is being found in a neutralizing test

A

antitoxin

483
Q

what antitoxin do gram pos bacteria produce

A

exotoxin

484
Q

what antitoxin do gram neg bacteria produce

A

endotoxin

485
Q

what is the most reliable serology test that test for chronic disease

A

complement fixation test

486
Q

what serology test uses dye called fluorescence

A

fluorescence antibody test

487
Q

def? gene is turned off

A

repression

488
Q

def? genetic make up of 1 organism

A

genotype

489
Q

def? expression of the genotype (seen)

A

phenotype

490
Q

what are the two steps of protein synthesis

A

translation

transcription

491
Q

what step of protein synthesis is all info from mRNA w/c is translated to as to produce protein

A

translation

492
Q

what step of protein synthesis is a copy then gene expression then mRNA copy DNA molecule

A

transcription

493
Q

what is an anticodon

A

3 nitrogenous bases in tRNA

494
Q

what is a codon

A

3 nitrogenous bases in mRNA

495
Q

what enzyme breaks lactose into glucose and galactose

A

b-galactosidase

496
Q

what was the 1st to produce a model called operon model for e. coli

A

jacob

497
Q

what kind of mutation is where one base pair is changed

A

base pair mutation

498
Q

what mutation is more than 1 change in base pair

A

frameshift

499
Q

what incorporates adenine and cytosine

A

aminopurine

500
Q

what incorporates T and G at the site

A

fibrouracil

501
Q

what wavelength is shorter and more dangerous

A

non ionizing

502
Q

formula for generation time

A
G= t/3.3 log(b/B)
b= # of organisms at the end
B= # of organisms at the beginning
503
Q

def? microbial metabolism of carbohydrates in the absence of O2

A

fermentation

504
Q

what results in alcohol fermentation

A

fermentation

505
Q

true or false: fermentation produces small amount of energy

A

true

506
Q

The complete oxidative breakdown of glucose in the presence of oxygen by bacteria results in

A

CO2 and H2O

507
Q

true or false: The complete oxidative breakdown of glucose in the presence of oxygen by bacteria produces more ATP than fermentation

A

true

508
Q

The complete oxidative breakdown of glucose in the presence of oxygen by bacteria uses what system

A

electron transport system