TEST 3 Flashcards
(508 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following organism causes syphylis among infected people:
A
Treponema pallidum
2
Q
The English Scientist reported to the world that smallest structural units of animals and plants are composed of “little boxes”. Later, the discovery by this scientist brought the theory that all living organisms are composed of “cells”.
A
hooke
3
Q
The function of fimbriae in bacteria is:
A
To help some bacteria attach to surfaces (host cells)
4
Q
One of the following bacterium is a rod-shaped that causes undulating fever among infected people.
A
Brucella abortus
5
Q
A structure found in eucaryotic cells but not in procaryotic cells is:
A
Mitochondrial structure
6
Q
true or false these go together: Robert Koch ——– Aseptic surgery
A
false
7
Q
Atomic mass (weight) of an atom is one of the following:
A
Sum of protons and neutrons of an atom
8
Q
High temperature inhibit enzymes by:
A
Denaturing enzyme activity
9
Q
The ability to distinguish between two adjacent points with a microscope is called:
A
Resolving power
10
Q
which of the following molecule is not a monosaccharide molecule:
A
lactose
11
Q
Which of the following enzyme is involved in removing NH2 or amino group from a substrate:
A
deaminase
12
Q
concerning nucleic acids true or false: nucleotide consists of a purine or pyrimidine nitrogen base, a ribose or deoxyribose sugar, and a phosphate
A
true
13
Q
Thiamine nitrogen base is a—— present mostly in —–:
A
Pyrimidine/DNA
14
Q
The kingdom Protista consists of:
A
Protozoa, slime mold and algae
15
Q
Eight cocci arranged into a cubical packet are called;
A
sarcinae
16
Q
Which of the following enzyme is involved in synthetic reaction among microorganisms:
A
ligase
17
Q
true or false: All enzymes are proteins but not all proteins are enzymes
A
true
18
Q
The compound found in the cell wall of gram positive but not gram negative bacteria:
A
Teichoic acids
19
Q
Which group of microorganisms would least likely to contain species that could cause diseases in humans:
A
algae
20
Q
Boiling surgical instruments was a common practice in the early 1800s for reducing infection and it was suggested for the first time by an English Scientist called :
A
lister
21
Q
The organism involved in a disease called “deadly plague” is one of the following:
A
Yersinia pestis
22
Q
Vitamin B2 used as a coenzyme is one of the following:
A
riboflavin
23
Q
One of the following scientist was the first to report the tobacco mosaic viruses from infected plants and he was the first to report viruses as a cause of disease.
A
iwanoski
24
Q
Louis Pasteur and John Tyndall worked together to
A
Disapprove the theory of spontaneous generation
25
Thylakoids membrane in green bacteria and cyanobacteria are found in:
chloroplasts
26
Which of the following organism is helicoidal in shape and form:
Treponema pallidum
27
Are located on rough endoplasmic reticulum inside the living cells of eucaryotic and are important in protein synthesis:
rRNA
28
Which of the following organism is ellipsoidal (spherical) in form and shape:
Staphylococcus aureus
29
High concentration of dipicolinic acid and calcium are unique to what bacterial structure:
Endospore
30
Which of the following compound is a disaccharide molecule:
maltose
31
One of the following scientist was the first to develop condenser for microscope and also a technique for using oil immersion objective that is the most effective objective to identify microscopic organisms.
abbe
32
Phospholipids are complex lipids important in concentration of:
plasma mmb
33
Which of the following antibiotic inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis in the cell wall of bacteria:
penicillin
34
The term peritrichous refers to a bacterium with:
Flagella protruding from all areas of a bacterium
35
Spiral bacteria that are short and do not form complete coils are called;
vibrios
36
Arginine, serine, alanine, histidine, glycine, lysine, cysteine, tyrosine, valine and leucine all are:
a.a
37
Which of the following is probably true about all the experiments that proved spontaneous generation:
Microorganisms were already present
38
The resolving power of the compound brightfield microscope is:
0.2 um
39
A scanning electron microscope uses which of the following sources of illumination:
Source of electron
40
All of the following except one are biologically important hexoses:
ribose
41
true or false: Endospores allow a cell to survive environmental changes
true
42
true or false: viruses cannot metabolize nutrients
true
43
true or false: viruses are not composed of cells
TRUE
44
true or false: viruses cannot reproduce by themselves
true
45
true or false: viruses have DNA or RNA, not both
true
46
Two long strands of DNA nucleotides are held together by matched-pair of nitrogen bases of:
A-T, G-C
47
Included in subkingdom eucaryotes:
protozoa
48
Magnification of 100,000 or more can be obtained by using a
Electron microscope
49
true or false: Endospores are metabolically active
false
50
In addition to magnifying an image, microscope objectives;
Focus the light rays coming from the specimen being viewed
51
He was the first who divided bacteria regarding to the absence or presence of endospores into two major groups: vegetative or active forms and sleeping or dormant forms.
cohn
52
Which of the following nitrogen base is not found in DNA molecule of a bacterial cell:
uracil
53
Which of the following scientist was able to transfer Bacillus antheracis from cattle to mice:
Koch
54
When bacteria are in solution of low ion concentration, they are prevented from bursting due to osmotic pressure because of the presence of the:
cell wall
55
which of the following organism is cylindrica (rod-shaped) in form and shaped:
Bacillus megaterium
56
True or false: triglycerides are esters of glycerol and fatty acid
true
57
True or false: lipids are basically esters of fatty acids
true
58
True or false: Phospholipids are the major components of cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria
true
59
true or false: Lipids form complexes with polysaccharides (LPS) and are a major component of the cell wall of bacteria
true
60
Which of the following contains five carbons in its chemical structure:
ribose
61
Dense, external coats of polysaccharide and polypeptide are referred to a structure of bacterium called:
capsule
62
One of the following German Scientist studied the life cycle of anthrax bacillus and he used anthrax as a model to demonstrate that specific microorganisms are the cause of specific diseases
koch
63
Many bacteria contain an invaginated and highly convoluted section of cytoplasmic membrane called the:
mesosome
64
Scanning electron microscope uses which of the following sources of illumination:
electron
65
He was the first to discover the antimicrobial activity of products released by a mold called Penicillium notatum. He called this product penicillin
flemming
66
What is the fate of pyruvic acid in aerobic respiration:
It is oxidized in the Krebs’ cycle
67
All of the following are direct methods to measure microbial growth, except:
Metabolic activity
68
A product of heterolactic fermentation is
- Butyric acid
- Lactic acid
- Carbon dioxide
- Ethyl alcohol
69
Which of the following best describes respiration:
The complete catabolism of glucose to CO2 and H2O
70
Which of the following compound is not produced in the course of Krebs' cycle:
lactate
71
Bacterial growth can be guantitated by :
- Colony plate count
- Biochemical activity
- Turbidimetric method
- Weight of nitrogen
72
In what phase of a bacterial growth curve do cells multiply at their maximum rate:
log phase
73
A relationship between two species of organisms that live together where one benefits without harming the other one:
Commesalism
74
Amino acids fermentation by Clostridium tetani produces all of the followings, except:
gemosin
75
Electron transport system (ETS) of a bacterium is located in:
cytoplasmic mmb
76
Oxidative Phosphorylation would be impossible without:
A supply of oxygen
77
Entamoeba histolytica in the large intestine of human being is considered to be:
parasitism
78
Which of the following blood cell exhibits the highest phagocytic activity:
neutrophil
79
Organisms which require oxygen in a lower concentration found in the atmosphere are termed:
microerophiles
80
Trichomonas vaginalis in vagina and prostate glands of infected people is a:
protozoan
81
Which of the following organism is gram-negative bacterium and it produces an endotoxin:
Salmonella typhi
82
Which of the following is not a characteristic of fermentation:
Generates large amounts of ATPs
83
The following bacteria are microorganisms that can make up part of normal flora, and can cause disease if given the right set of circumstances
opportunist
84
A product of Krebs's cycle is:
Carbon dioxide
FADH2
NADH2
succinic acid
85
The optimal growth temperature of a bacterium is most closely related to the optimal temperature of:
Functioning of enzymes
86
Escherichia coli inside the large intestine of human being is considered to be:
commensalism
opportunist
mutualism
87
In the Stationary phase of population growth curve of microorganisms one of the following occurs:
Presence of "limiting factors" will stop growth of the organisms
88
Which of the following is not end product of fermentation:
pyruvic acid
89
Which of the following area of human body is usually colonized by bacteria:
digestive system
90
One of the following organism in human is causing African sleeping sickness:
Trypanosoma gambiense
91
What method is the most effective and reliable way to determine the viable count of bacterial culture:
Plate colony count
92
A population of bacteria which forms the following organelle can be expected to have a longer stationary phase than a population whose cells do not from that organelle?
capsule
93
Increase the number of organisms by doubling process occurs in one of the following phase of population growth curve of microorganisms.
log phase
94
Bacteria which grow best at temperature above 50 C. are:
thermophiles
95
Generation time is:
Equivalent to the doubling time of a population
96
A relationship between two species of organisms that live together where one benefits without harming the other one:
commensalism
97
colony count formula
of colonies counted x dilution factor= # of organisms
98
The addition of which of the following to a culture medium will neutralize acids:
buffers
99
Hemacytometer is used to determine the number of:
all cells
100
A microorganism that is able to cause disease is called a :
pathogen
101
What is the name of biochemical sequence that degrades glucose to pyruvic acid yielding 2 ATPs:
glycolysis
102
A parasitism bacterium:
Is harmful to the host
103
Which of the following genus is a virus and causes genital warts
papilloma
104
true or false : In the lag phase, cell death exceeds cell multiplication
false
105
true or false: Bacteria divide by binary fission, producing two daughter cells
true
106
true or false: In the death phase, bacterial growth may cease as the result of oxygen and nutrient exhaustion
true
107
true or false: Salmonella typhi has high metabolic activity with shorter generation time
true
108
true or false: The generation time of bacteria may vary from species to species
true
109
fatty acids are catabolized in
Krebs cycle
110
Which of the following organism is gram-positive and produces an exotoxin that does not
cause intestinal disturbances:
Streptococcus pyogenes
111
In the lag phase of population growth curve of microorganisms all of the following occur, except:
Increase the number of organisms by doubling process
112
how do you get rid/control microorganisms
- prevent any contamination
- prevent decomposition of food/beverage
- prevent transmission
- prevent any damage to tissue of human or animal
113
what are the 2 types of microorganism control
physical
| chem
114
def? sterile; free of any organism
sterilization
115
def? kill all vegetative organisms but not spores
disinfectant
116
def? any type of reagent that can stop any metabolic activity (living tissue)
antiseptic
117
def? any agent used to reduce the # of organisms in a sol'n; sol'n is approved by the health department
sanitizer
118
def? any type of reagent that can kill germs
germicidal
119
def? any reagent that damage the morphology of bacterias
bactericidal
120
def? any type of reagent used to stop metabolic activity
bacteriostatic
121
def? anything that damages a virus
viricidal
122
def? anything that damages a fungi
fungicidal
123
def? removes spores
sporocidal
124
what do these factor make up: conc, intensity of the light, timing, temp, pop of organism, type of organism
antimicrobial agent
125
what enzyme breaks covalent bond of the cell wall
lysozyme
126
what antibiotics break the cell wall
Penicillin and bacitracin
127
what changes/alters/damages cell/plasma mmb
- phenolic compound
| - detergent with more ammonia
128
what alters the cytoplast
heat
129
what presents the formation of folic acid in the sequence of biosynthesis
sulfa drug
130
nucleoprotein in higher animals
histone
131
nucleoprotein in lower animals
typtophan
132
how do you damage the nucleoprotein
radiation
133
what kind of radiation are x and gamma rays
ionizing radiation
134
def? completely inactivates enzyme/protein
killing eggiest
135
def? growth is stoped but organism is alive
static effect
136
def? lowest temp that can kill bacteria in suspension in 10 mins
thermal death point
137
def? shortest time a suspension of organism in a certain temp
thermal death time
138
what kind of temp is steam under pressure/autoclave
moist temp
139
autoclave temp, pounds, time?
121 C at 15 lbs for 15 mins
140
conditions of fractional sterilization/condensation
autoclave at 100 C for 15 mins several times
141
true or false: boiling kills organisms
false
142
conditions for pasteurization
in machine at 62 C for 30 mins
143
what kind of temp is oven (dry oven); no liquid; 121 C for 2-3 hrs
dry heat
144
def? organism in the fire
incineration
145
aka lyophilization or static temp
low temp
146
def? stop metabolic activity at 5-7 C
low temp
147
what temp is deep freeze at
20 C
148
what temp is ice chest at and how long
70 C (1-2 years)
149
what temp is liquid nitrogen at
196 C
150
def? removing water from organism
dessication
151
what change in the environment can lyse or plasmalyse
osmotic pressure
152
water goes out and cell shrinks
hypertonic
153
water goes inside cell swells
hypotonic
154
organic lover
osmphilic
155
what kind of light is radiation and nm
visible light (400-750 nm)
156
what color light is very sensitive to our eyes
blue and green
157
what are the 3 short wavelengths
UV
x ray
gamma ray
158
true or false: short wavelengths damage DNA/RNA molecules
true
159
what kind of radiation breaks covalent bond between RNA molecules
non-ionizing
160
what kind of radiation sometimes produce a thymine dimer
ionizing radiation
161
what compound can be found in mouth wash
phenolic compound
162
what phenolic compound was 1st used by lister
carbolic acid
163
what do phenolic compounds prevent
protein synthesis
164
what is very effective in preservation
formaldhyde
165
what compound inactivates/denatures protein
formaldehyde
166
most effective alcohol conc
70% alcohol 30% distilled water
167
what does alcohol do
inactivates the protein
168
what does chloride effect
fungi
169
what does dye damage
morphology
170
what does sodium & potassium salt of higher fatty acid make up
detergent/soap
171
what damages/breaks plasma mmb resulting cytoplasm to leak out
detergent/soap
172
what is 3% hydrogen peroxide used for
block enzyme activity
173
where do antibiotics come from
fungi, yeast, bacteria, or some algae
174
def? antibiotic that block metabolic activity
bacteriostatic
175
def? Antibiotic that damage organism
bactericidal
176
what does penicillium notatum produce
penicillin
177
what does bacillus polymyxa produce
polymyxin B
178
what does streptomyces fradiae produce
neomycin
179
what does streptomyces griseus produce
streptomycin
180
what does erthraeus produce
erythromycin
181
what does bacillus subtilis produce
bacitracin
182
what does penicillin, vancomycin, and bacitracin damage
cell wall
183
what does chloramphenicol, erythromycin, neomycin, and streptomycin inhibit
protein synthesis
184
what does amphitracin B and polymyxin B damage
cell mmb/ plasma mmb
185
what does neomycin inhibit
nucleic acid replication
186
what does erythromycin prevent
formation of peptide chain
187
is erythromycin more effective in gram + or - organisms
neg
188
do prokaryotes have nucleus
no
189
do prokaryotes have a nuclear mmb
no
190
do prokaryotes have nucleoid
yes
191
do prokaryotes have nucleolus
no
192
what kind of DNA do prokaryotes have
single strand
| some have double
193
do prokaryotes have a cell wall
yes
194
what prokaryote does not have a cell wall
micoplasma
195
do prokaryotes have a cytoplasmic mmb
yes
196
do prokaryotes do mitosis/mitotic
no
197
do prokaryotes do meiosis
no
198
do prokaryotes have ribosomes
yes
199
where are ribosomes located in pro
cytoplasm
200
do prokaryotes do respiration
yes
201
where does reparation occur in pro
cytoplast mmb
202
do prokaryotes do photosynthesis
yes
203
what do bacteria use for motility
flagella
204
what do cyanobacteria use for motility
trichome
205
what kind of reproduction do pro do
asexual- binary fission
206
do eukaryotes have a nucleus
yes
207
do eukaryotes have a nuclear mmb
yes
208
do eukaryotes have a nucleolus
yes
209
what kind of DNA do eukaryotes have
most are double stranded
210
what kind of eukaryotes have a cell wall
fungi, yeast
211
true or false: protozoa and algae do not have a cell wall
true
212
do eukaryotes have a cytoplasmic mmb
yes
213
do eukaryotes do mitosis/mitotic
yes
214
do eukaryotes do meiosis
yes
215
do eukaryotes have ribosomes
yes
216
where are ribosomes located in eukaryotes
ER
217
do eukaryotes do respiration
yes
218
where does respiration occur in eukaryotes
mitochondria
219
do eukaryotes do photosynthesis
yes
220
what do eukaryotes use for motility
cilia, flagella, pseudopodia
221
what kind of reproduction do eukaryotes do
sexual and asexual
222
are fungi and mold heterotroph or autotrophs? and what kind?
heterotroph (chemohetroph)
223
what is fungi/mold cell wall composed of
chitin
224
true or false: fungi can not grow in other living organisms
false
225
true or false: some fungi grow on top of non living organism
true
226
structure of fungi
hyphae
227
what is the total amount of hyphae called
mycelium
228
what are the 2 types of fungi
mycelinated and non mycelinated
229
what type of hyphae is involved in fission
negative hyphae
230
what type of hyphae is involved in fertilization
fertile/aerial hyphae
231
what type of hyphae is used for attachment
fertile/aerial hyphae
232
what type of root do fungi that are sacchrophile/non living have
rhizoid
233
what kind of root attaches to living organisms
haustoria
234
what phylum is all bacteria in
schizomycophyta
235
what phylum is slime mold in
amastigomycophyta
236
what phylum is "true" fungi in
eumycophyta
237
what class of eumycetes does this describe: mycelium is not separated, rhizoid root, H20 mold, aka sporangium
phycomycetes
238
what class of eumycetes does this describe: sac on top called ascus w/c has sores, septated, unicellular
ascomycetes
239
what class of eumycetes does this describe: club shaped, septated hyphae, rhizoid root, basidospores, mushroom
basidomycetes
240
what class of eumycetes does this describe: more than 1000, some pathogen (humans/animals) , some septated,
deuteromycetos
241
what kind of reproduction do fungi/mold do
asexual
242
what kind of asexual reproduction is septated hyphae, found in the last cell
conidia type
243
what kind of asexual reproduction is separated hyphae, last cell has sporingiosphere
sporingia
244
what kind of asexual reproduction do the majority of organisms that attach to humans do
arthrospore and oidia type
245
what kind of reproduction produces more organisms
asexual
246
what kind of sexual reproduction has oospores and zoospores
oomycete
247
what kind of sexual reproduction produces ascospore
ascomycte
248
what kind of sexual reproduction produces zygospore
zygomyte
249
are yeast heterotroph or autotrophs
heterotrophs
250
do yeast do photosynthesis
no
251
what is a yeast's cell wall composed of
sugar, lipids, protein, and carbohydrates
252
what structure do yeast use for movement
none
253
do yeast have a complete nucleus
yes
254
what kind of respiration do yeast do
aerobic or fermentation
255
how do yeast divide
asexually- binary fission, budding or spore
256
how long are yeast
10- 50 u
257
width of yeast
4-5 u
258
what kind of mitochondria do yeast have
twisted
259
where is the ER in yeast
attached to the plasma mmb
260
what organism stores lipoprotein
yeast
261
what kind of candida is pathogenic
myelinated
262
true or false: protozoa have no cell wall
true
263
what kind of organism are protozoa
unicellular
264
are protozoa heterotroph or autotrophs
both
265
what protects an organism from the environment, secretion from cytoplasm
encystment
266
what kind of respiration do protozoa do
aerobic or anaerobic, oxidation
267
what kind of reproduction do protozoa do
sexual and asexual
268
what are the 2 types of sexual reproduction that protozoa do
conjugation and syngamy
269
In phylum sarcodina how do they move
pseudopodia
270
what is the cytoplast composed of in phylum sarcodina
ectoplast and endoplast
271
what causes amoebic dysentery; parasitic
entamoeba histolytica
272
what kind of parasitic relationship is entamoeba coli
commensal
273
what kind of parasitic relationship is endolimax nada
commensal
274
what kind of parasitic relationship is iodomoeba butchlii
commensal
275
what kind of parasitic relationship is naegleria fowleri
parasitic
276
how does phylum mastigophora move
very long flagella
277
where is Giardia lamblia found
warm areas
278
what does Giardia lamblia cause
diarrhea
279
what does trichomonad vaginalis cause
inflammation in vagina, prostate, and urethra in males
280
what does trichomonad hominis cause
mild diarrhea
281
what does trypanosoma gamblense cause
west African sleeping sickness
282
where is trypanosoma cruzi found
south and central america
283
what disease is trypanosoma cruzi cause
American trypanosomiasis or chagas disease
284
what disease does leishmania donovani cause
kala-azar disease
285
in phylum mastigophora what are the 2 types of flagella
phytoglagellate and zooglagellate
286
in phylum mastigophora what kind of flagella do the photoautotrophs have
phytoglagellate
287
in phylum mastigophora what kind of flagella do the heterotrophs have
zooglagellate
288
what does phylum ciliaphora look like
very short and thick
289
where is balantidium coli found
large intestine
290
what does balantidium coli cause
balantidiosis
291
in phylum sporozoa what is the parasitic relationship
Parasitic
292
what does isopora hominis and isopora belli cause
diarrhea
293
what parasitic relationship does cyrptasporidium parvum have
opportunist
294
what parasitic relationship does toxoplasma gondii have
opportunist
295
what parasitic relationship does pheumocystis carinii have
opportunist
296
where is toxoplasma gondii found
people's brain
297
where is pheumocystis carinii found
lungs
298
what is the most dangerous plasmodium
plasmodium
299
what is the most common plasmodium
plasmodium vivax
300
what class of worm is called digenetic fluke in humans
trematoda/fluke
301
what 2 suckers does class trematoda/fluke have
oral and ventral
302
true or false: class trematoda/fluke has no blood system
true
303
in class trematoda/fluke what cells make up the nephridial and urinary system
flame cells
304
Is class trematoda/fluke monoecious or dioecious
both majority are monoecious
305
how do people get fasciolopsis buski
vegetation
306
how do people get heterophyes heterophyes
fish
307
what is the intermediate host of intestinal flukes
snail
308
where do intestinal flukes release their egg
intestine
309
where do liver flukes release their eggs
bile duct or duodenum
310
where do lung flukes release their eggs
lung- sputum and saliva
311
are lung flukes monoecious or dioecious
monoecious
312
where do blood flukes release their eggs
blood
313
what kind of fluke are fasciola hepatica and clonorchis sinensis
liver fluke
314
aka fasciola hepatica
sheep liver fluke
315
aka clonorchis sinensis
Chinese liver fluke
316
what kind of fluke is paragonimus westermani
lung fluke
317
how do people get paragonimus westermani
crab or crayfish
318
what kind of flukes are schistosoma mansoni, schistosoma japonicum, schistosoma haematobium
blood flukes
319
where are schistosoma mansoni and schistosoma japonicum,
mesenteric vein
320
where are schistosoma haematobium found
pelvic vein
321
what are the 3 parts of class Cestoda/tapeworm
head region, neck region, trunk
322
what is the head region called in class Cestoda
scolex
323
what are the segments of the trunk called in class Cestoda
proglottid
324
what are the 3 types of proglottid
immature, mature, gravid
325
what type of proglottid has nerve to nephridia system only
immature
326
what type of proglottid has nerve, nephridial, genital
mature
327
what type of proglottid has uterus and egg
gravid
328
aka tanenia saginatta
beef tapeworm
329
aka taenia solium
pork tapeworm
330
aka diphyllibothrium latum
fish tapeworm
331
aka echinocactus granulosus
dog tapeworm
332
aka aschelminthes
roundworm or nematoda
333
what are the 2 diff types of roundworm
intestinal nemtoda and extra intestinal
334
are roundworms monoecious or dioecious
dioecious
335
what is the intermediate host for tissue and blood nematode
insect
336
where can you find ascaris lumbricoides
all over the world
337
aka ascaris lumbricoides
common round worm
338
what color are ascaris lumbricoides
yellowish- white
339
aka enterobius vermicularis
pinworm
340
aka nectar americanus or ancylostoma duodenale
hook worm
341
where do you find nectar americanus or ancylostoma duodenale
africa, north and south america
342
what kind of roundworm cause elephantiasis
wuchereria bancrofti
343
aka acanthccephala
thorny-headed worm
344
is acanthccephala diecious or monoecious
diecious
345
what muscle do acanthccephala have that can contract and relax which cause bleeding
probosis
346
what part of the body acanthccephala attack
digestive system
347
how is acanthccephala transferred
beetle, cockroach, or fish
348
what kind of parasite are arthropods
ectoparasite and endoparasite
349
what kind of parasite are viruses
intercellular obligate parasite
350
what does a serotropic virus attack
internal organs
351
what does a panthotropic virus attack
diff organs of the body
352
what does an enterovirus attack
digestive system
353
what does an enterovirus attack
digestive system
354
what does an adenovirus attack
respiratory system
355
what does a myxovirus attack
mucosa
356
def? complete virus
virjon
357
what % of influenza virus is nucleic acid
1%
358
what % of influenza virus is capsule/protein/capside
99%
359
what % of bacteriophage is nucleic acid
50%
360
what % of bacteriophage is capsule/protein/capside
50%
361
what % of HSV is nucleic acid
26%
362
what % of HSV is capsule/protein/capside
74%
363
what is the envelope composed of
protein, fat, carbohydrates
364
what structure virus are composed of rod shaped structure
helical
365
what structure virus have side/corner
polyheclial
366
what structure virus are helical or polyhedral with envelop
Envelope
367
what structure virus has bacteriophage/bacterial virus, has head, neck, and tail region
complex
368
what recognizes specific site receptor
fibers
369
def? virus starts to multiply and break/damage cell
cytopathic effect
370
what produces antibody against antigen
plasma cells
371
what virus can cause cervical cancer
HSV II and HPV
372
how do you culture a virus
grows in living cells
373
what kind of culture uses hyaluronidase
cell/tissue culture
374
what kind of culture uses living organisms to inject virus in the stomach
company
375
what kind of cancer is of the lymph
lymphoma
376
what kind of cancer is of the WBC
myeloma and leukemia
377
what kind of cancer is of the skin
melanoma
378
what kind of cancer is of connective tissue
sarcoma
379
what kind of cancer is of diff glands
adenocarcinoma
380
what kind of cancer has the 3 letter code MYB
acute lymphatic leukemia
381
what kind of cancer has the 3 letter code RAN
myeloma
382
def? process where the cell starts to divid (has 2 genes: virus and self)
lysogeny
383
what stage in the cytopathic effect is cell mmb/cell wall of the host cell has specific receptor which is responsible for virus attachment using h bond
attachment
384
what stage in the cytopathic effect is in involved to break part of the cell wall/plasma
lsozyme
385
what stage in the cytopathic effect does the virus push DNA/RNA molecule or sometimes the entire virus
penetration
386
what stage in the cytopathic effect are cells manufactured
maturation
387
what stage in the cytopathic effect assembles everything which cause cell lysis
assembly
388
how many viruses come out of 1 cell in the cytopathic effect
50-200
389
def? integration of virus to host cell
lysogeny
390
what stage of lysogeny is the virus attaching to specific receptor in the cell wall/ plasma mmb
attachment
391
what stage of lysogeny is the enzyme produced to break cell wall/plasma cell
lysozyme
392
what stage of lysogeny is DNA/RNA molecule getting inside the host cell
penetration
393
what stage of lysogeny is joining of virus DNA and host cell
integration
394
what stage of lysogeny carry same type of genome resulting in cell tumor
cell division
395
def? changes the genome of host cell
oncogen
396
what kind of virus is dependovirus
DNA single strand no envelop
397
what kind of virus is adenovirus and HPV
DNA double strand no envelop
398
what kind of virus is vaccina, variola, HSV 1 and 2
DNA double stranded with envelop
399
what kind of virus is Rubella, rubeola, flavivirus, corona virus
RNA single-strand with envelop
400
what kind of virus is Colorado fever/tick virus
RNA double strand w/o envelop
401
what kind of virus is influenza virus I, II, III
RNA double strand with envelop
402
what kind of virus is rhinovirus and rabies
RNA single strand w/o envelop
403
is bacteria a intercellular parasite
no
404
does bacteria have a plasma mmb
yes
405
does bacteria do binary fission
yes
406
does bacteria have a cell wall
yes
407
does bacteria pass through a chamberlain filter
no
408
does bacteria have DNA and RNA
yes
409
does bacteria use ATP for metabolism
yes
410
does bacteria have ribosomes
yes
411
is bacteria sensitive to Ab
yes
412
is bacteria sensitive to interferon
no
413
is Rickettsia/chlamydia an intercellular parasite
yes
414
Does Rickettsia/chlamydia have a plasma mmb
yes
415
Does Rickettsia/chlamydia do binary fission
yes
416
Does Rickettsia/chlamydia have a cell wall
yes
417
Does Rickettsia/chlamydia pass through a chamberlain filter
no/yes
418
Does Rickettsia/chlamydia have DNA and RNA
yes
419
Does Rickettsia/chlamydia use ATP for metabolism
yes/no
420
Does Rickettsia/chlamydia have ribosomes
yes
421
is Rickettsia/chlamydia sensitive to Ab
yes
422
is Rickettsia/chlamydia sensitive to interferon
no
423
is a virus an intercellular parasite
yes
424
do viruses have a plasma mmb
no
425
do viruses do binary fission
no
426
do viruses have a cell wall
no
427
do viruses pass through a chamberlain filter
yes
428
do viruses have DNA and RNA
no
429
do viruses use ATP for metabolism
no
430
do viruses have ribosomes
no
431
Are viruses sensitive to Ab
no
432
are viruses sensitive to interferon
yes
433
what virus is shingles
varicella zoster
434
def? body's response to any type of invasion of microorganism
immunity/resistance
435
def? any type of foreign material that goes inside the cell
antigen
436
def? very specific called monoclonal antibody
antibody
437
what type of lymphocyte is tiny, have large nucleus, and small cytoplasm
small lymphocyte
438
what type of lymphocyte are b and T cells
small
439
def? produces antibody by changing to plasma cell
b cell
440
def? search body for any type of foreign material and give it to macrophage
t cell
441
what type of lymphocyte change to monocyte which change to macrophage
medium
442
where are monocytes produced
bone marrow
443
what type of lymphocyte directly change to macrophage
large
444
what % of WBC are lymphocytes
25-40%
445
what is a person called with no type of immunity
susceptible
446
what kind of immunity is inherited and have some barrier
natural immunity
447
what kind of immunity do you get through exposure to antigen
acquired immunity
448
what kind of acquired immunity is a person exposed to type of antigen
active
449
what kind of acquired immunity is serum of Ab, transfer to healthy person protect for short time
passive
450
def? exposure directly to antigen
natural-acquired active immunity
451
def? vaccination
artificial-acquired active immunity
452
transfer antiserum to another person
artificial - acquired passive immunity
453
mother to child; placenta
natural-acquired passive immunity
454
what 2 types of protein are in abtibodies
albumin and globulin
455
who was the 1st to talk about antibodies
ehrlich
456
what kind of immunity does a person produce antibody by exposure to bacteria, virus, fungi; plasma cell produced in the body
humoral immunity
457
what kind of immunity is some cell inside the body that can protect people against antigen
mediated immunity.
458
what immunoglobulin is the majority
IgG
459
what type of antibody causes agglutination
agglutinin
460
what type of antibody is between antigen and antibody inside the tube produces a ring/lattice
precipitin
461
what type of antibody is against toxic material
antitoxin
462
what type of antibody can fix complement
CFT
463
what type of antibody that makes an organism susceptible to antigen
opsomin
464
what type of antibody that can lyse/break antigen
lysin
465
what type of antibody can neutralize antigen
neutrolysin
466
def? antiviral protein that produced in the body of humans/animals against viral infection
interferon
467
who was the 1st to produce a vaccine for small pox/variola
jenner
468
who coined the term vaccine
pasteur
469
what kind of vaccine is a whole agent vaccine (weakened through subculture)
attenuated
470
what kind of vaccine is dead whole agent vaccine
inactivated
471
what kind of vaccine removes toxic material
toxoid
472
what kind of vaccine is 1 part of organism by itself is not antigen; must be combined with serum
conjugated
473
what kind of vaccine remove part of organism through genetic engineering
segment/partial/fragment
474
what kind of vaccine is still being worked on for HIV
DNA
475
def? searching for antibody inside humans and animals
serology
476
explain a serology test
take blood- centrifuge- look for antibody inside the serum
477
what is being found in a agglutination test
agglutinin
478
what are the 2 different techniques of a agglutination test
tube test
| slide test
479
what test would you use for salmonella typhi
widal test
480
what test is angulation of RBC on antigen
hemagluttination test
481
what is being found in a precipitation test
precipitin
482
what antibody is being found in a neutralizing test
antitoxin
483
what antitoxin do gram pos bacteria produce
exotoxin
484
what antitoxin do gram neg bacteria produce
endotoxin
485
what is the most reliable serology test that test for chronic disease
complement fixation test
486
what serology test uses dye called fluorescence
fluorescence antibody test
487
def? gene is turned off
repression
488
def? genetic make up of 1 organism
genotype
489
def? expression of the genotype (seen)
phenotype
490
what are the two steps of protein synthesis
translation
| transcription
491
what step of protein synthesis is all info from mRNA w/c is translated to as to produce protein
translation
492
what step of protein synthesis is a copy then gene expression then mRNA copy DNA molecule
transcription
493
what is an anticodon
3 nitrogenous bases in tRNA
494
what is a codon
3 nitrogenous bases in mRNA
495
what enzyme breaks lactose into glucose and galactose
b-galactosidase
496
what was the 1st to produce a model called operon model for e. coli
jacob
497
what kind of mutation is where one base pair is changed
base pair mutation
498
what mutation is more than 1 change in base pair
frameshift
499
what incorporates adenine and cytosine
aminopurine
500
what incorporates T and G at the site
fibrouracil
501
what wavelength is shorter and more dangerous
non ionizing
502
formula for generation time
```
G= t/3.3 log(b/B)
b= # of organisms at the end
B= # of organisms at the beginning
```
503
def? microbial metabolism of carbohydrates in the absence of O2
fermentation
504
what results in alcohol fermentation
fermentation
505
true or false: fermentation produces small amount of energy
true
506
The complete oxidative breakdown of glucose in the presence of oxygen by bacteria results in
CO2 and H2O
507
true or false: The complete oxidative breakdown of glucose in the presence of oxygen by bacteria produces more ATP than fermentation
true
508
The complete oxidative breakdown of glucose in the presence of oxygen by bacteria uses what system
electron transport system
