Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Pathology > Lab Final > Flashcards

Lab Final Flashcards

(87 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What is the difference between a transmural infarct and and intramural infarct?

A 
Trans = necrosis all the way through the wall 
Intra = necrosis within the wall
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

T or F

The inner portion of muscle is more susceptible to infarction than the outer

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Why is the inner portion of muscle more susceptible to infarction than the outside?

A

Blood flows through the walls from the outside in.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

T or F

The sub-pericardium is more susceptible than the sub-endocardium

A

False

Sub-endo more susceptible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

This type of necrosis is characterized by preservation of size, shape and strength of necrotic tissue for several days

A

Coagulative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Coronary artery is sensitive to what hormone?

A

Epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

T or F

Healing of an MI takes place by regeneration

A

False

Repair

  • replacement of dead tissue with connective tissue
  • Fibrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a white Infarct?

A

When you lose blood supply from ONE vessel. This is very typical for a MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

T or F

Granulation tissue will develop in the wound 24hrs

A

False

Second post-injury day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Angiogenesis is what? Where will it typically take place in the heart after an MI?

A

Formation of new blood vessels within the MEDIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What cells produce pro collagen? What cells keep the collagen strands together?

A

Fibroblasts

Muccopolysaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

T or F

Eldery ppl are more vulnerable to death from MI than younger people

A

False

Other way around. Younger people do not have as many anastomoses on their heart as older people from atherosclerosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The blood from a rupture infarct will flow where?

A

Into the pericardial sack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Cardiac Tympanate?

A

Prevention of heart diastole due to accumulation of fluid in the pericardial cavity.
- pus can also accumulate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

T or F

Pericarditis is when transudate accumulates in pericardial cavity

A

False

EXUDATE!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Transudate can accumulate in the heart as well which is similar to what other conditions?

A

Hypoalbuminemia due to Nephrotic syndrome (Kwashiorkor) or from right sided heart failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

If there is a rupture of the inter ventricular septum where in the heart will the blood accumulate?

A

Right ventricle because the pressure is higher in the left ventricle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hypertension is a condition when the blood pressure is greater than ???

A

140/90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the only way to dx hypertension?

A

Blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What % of americans suffer from hypertension?

A

25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is a Pheochromocytoma?

A

Benign tumor of adrenal medulla that can cause very high blood pressure.
Adrenal releases wayyyyy to much Catecholamines: epi, norepi, and dopamine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Too much dopamine can give what type of disease characteristics?

A

Parkinsonism Syndromes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A benign tumor of the adrenal cortex causing primary hyperaldosteronism is known as?

A

Conn’s Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What hormone are produced in the Adrenal Cortex?

A

Aldosterone, cortisol and androgens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the natural age for development of hypertension?
40-50
26
What is the name of the hormone that is the same as atrial natriuretic hormone and where is it produced?
Atriopeptin | Right Atrium
27
T or F Atriopeptin works synergistically with aldosterone
False Antagonistically
28
What is the minimal diastolic pressure for Malignant hypertension?
120
29
What is the pathomorphological foundation for malignant hypertension?
Hyperplastic Arteriolosclerosis
30
What is cardiac output?
blood pumped by heart per minute | SV x HR
31
What are some management strategies for benign hypertension?
Reduce sodium in diet to help lower bp | Prescribe diuretics to help remove fluid from body
32
T or F Malignant Hypertension can be managed with diuretics
False Cannot be controlled by any medical approach
33
Name some factors resulting in decrease of heart contractility
Cardiogenic Shock Myocardiopathies Myocarditis
34
T or F Arteries account for TPR
False Arterioles because they have sphincters
35
What is the most powerful vasconstrictor in the body?
Ang II
36
What are some of the effects of Ang II on the body?
Narrows lumen of blood vessels Increase blood volume Stimulates aldosterone production and release
37
T or F Epi/Norepi/Dopamine are humeral factors causing dilation
False Constriction
38
T or F | Alpha adrenergic lower bp
False | Raise
39
T or F Catecholamines stimulate alpha receptors more than beta receptors
True
40
Do beta adrenergic factors raise or lower bp?
Lower
41
T or F Parasympathetic stimulation will cause vasodilation
False Does not affect peripheral blood vessels
42
What does a negative chronotropic effect mean?
Decreased stimulation of the heart
43
Decreased contractility of the heart is termed...
Negative Inotropic effect
44
Inflammation of dura mater and structures within the subarachnoid space is known as?
Meningitis aka Leptomeningitis
45
T or F | Acute Leptomeningitis affects the gyri of the brain how?
Flattened gyri due to intracranial pressure and hydrocephalus (communicating)
46
How does the CSF change in meningitis?
Usually is clear, watery fluid, in meningitis its cloudy Increased protein (exudate) Decreased glucose
47
What causes the cloudy CSF in meningitis?
Neutrophilia due to the bacterial infection
48
Aseptic Meningitis akas?
Acute Lymphocytic | Viral Meningitis
49
What is the cause of the viral form of meningitis?
Mumps virus aka Epidemic Parotiditis
50
What other condition can cause Parotiditis?
Sjogrens Syndrome
51
How will the CSF be with Aseptic Meningitis
Lymphocytosis Increased protein Normal glucose
52
Why will the glucose be normal in the CSF with viral meningitis?
Virus do not consume glucose
53
What will the CSF be with Chronic Meningitis
Mononuclear cells Increased protein - no exudate but tissue debris and blood cells Decreased glucose
54
Pott's Disease aka?
Tuberculosis Spondylitis (inflammation of vertebrae)
55
What type of necrosis is associated with Pott's Disease?
Casseous
56
What is the main function of cartilage in synovial joints?
Ensures congruency of the articulating surfaces so there is uniform distribution of pressure.
57
What are the categories of joint diseases?
Inflammatory - aka Arthritis = inflammation of synovial membrane Degenerative - degeneration of cartilage, no inflammation Metabolic - crystal
58
T or F Ankylosing is common in people with DJD
False RA
59
What is ankylosing?
Full fusion of bones
60
What is Ochronosis?
Homogentesic acid in connective tissue.
61
What does Seronegative mean?
There is NO Rheumatoid Factor present
62
What does Spondyloarthritide mean?
Inflammation of the vertebral joints
63
List the Seronegative Spondyloarthritides
Ankylosing Spondylitis Psoriatic Arthritis Reiter's Syndrom Arthritides characterized by IBD
64
RA is ____% Seropositive
80
65
What is the only common factor between the seronegative spondyloarthritides and RA?
Presence of inflammation
66
What are the synovial joints associated with the spine?
``` Z-joints aka Facets Costotransverse Costovertebral SI join (lower 1/3) Atlanto-Co Atlando-odontoid ```
67
With the seronegative spondyloarthritides where do the pathological changes begin? Ligamentous attachments or the synovium?
Ligamentous Attachments
68
What is the name of the area of insertion of any fibrous structure into bone?
Enthesis
69
T or F In SSA there is often Enthesopathy in multiple locations
True
70
with SSA was is the % of involvement of the SI joints?
100
71
What is the clinical manifestation of SSA in the SI joints?
Buttock Pain
72
What percent of SSA patients develop Peripheral joint arthritis?
50%
73
There is the presence of another blood marker in the majority of patients with SSA. What is the blood marker?
HLA-B27
74
HLA-B27 is present in 95-97% of patients with what condition?
Ankylosing Spondylitis
75
What are the aka's for AS?
Bechtereu's Disease | Marie-Stumpell-Bechtereu's Disease
76
What is the significant clinical feature of AS?
Bamboo spine - end stage - cannot do anything about it
77
What is the anatomical location of the inflammation of the enthesis in AS?
Where the outer layer of the annulus fibrous or IVD attaches tot he corners of the vertebral bodies above and below.
78
What is the name of the boney debris that replaces the annulus in AS??
Syndesmophytes
79
T or F Syndesmophwytes are calcification NOT Ossification
False Ossification
80
What is Fibrous Ankylosis?
The development of connective tissue between adjacent vertebrae
81
T or F In late stage of AS the patient will still have relatively good mobility in both the coronal and sagittal planes
False NO ROM in the spine. - spine will not curve, and patient will not be able to touch their toes.
82
What is the diagnostic criteria for AS?
Measure the circumference of the patients chest. If expansion is less than 6cm = abnormal If expansion is less than 3cm = dx criteria for AS
83
What is the posture seen in AS called?
"Waiter's Posture" - Kyphosis with atrophy of the chest muscles - Knees bent - belly sticks out (ankylosing of CT and CV joints)
84
T or F In AS only the SI joints and Facet joints will fuse
False EVERY SINGLE joint in the body can fuse.
85
T or F | With AS pain will be best in the morning and will get worse during the day
False Pain in the morning Relieved by activity
86
T or F AS M:F = 1:4
False M:F 4:1
87
What is the involvement of the EYE in Ankylosing Spondylitis?
Iritis - inflammation of the eye and adhesions between the iris and lens - irregular borders of the pupil

Pathology (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions