Midterm 1 Flashcards
(272 cards)
1
Q
Define pathology
A
Study of nature and causes of disease which includes changes to structure and function
2
Q
What is known as the study of abnormal functioning of diseased organs
A
Pathophysiology
3
Q
Etiology = ?
A
The cause of a disease
4
Q
Acute cystitis was what aetiology?
A
E.coli infection
5
Q
Idiopathic = ?
A
etiology unknown
6
Q
What is the aetiology of Ankylosing Spondylitis?
A
Idiopathic
7
Q
What is another name for DISH (diffuse idiopathic skeletal hyperostosis)
A
Forestier’s
8
Q
This idiopathic condition results from the ossification of all the ligaments of the spine
A
Ankylosing Spondylitis
9
Q
DISH affects what part of the spine?
A
Ossification of the ALL
10
Q
What is meant by a Congenital Etiology?
A
When the genetic info is fine, but other factors in the embryo’s intrauterine environment interfere with normal development
11
Q
T or F
Thalidomide has a genetic aetiology
A
False
Congenital
12
Q
What is meant by a teratogenic effect?
A
This is when some agent can disturb the development of an embryo or fetus.
13
Q
Give two examples of Teratogenic effects discussed in class
A
Fetal Alcohol Syndrom
Thalidomide
14
Q
T or F
Huntington’s disease is an example of an acquired aetiology
A
False!
Genetic
15
Q
An aka for Down’s Syndrome
A
Trisomy 21
16
Q
What is a genetic etiology?
A
When genes are responsible for some structural or functional defect.
17
Q
Describe the etiology of Huntington’s disease
A
Can be called Chorea
genetic damage of motor nuclei (basal ganglia) and cerebral cortex of the brain.
18
Q
What are the symptoms of Chorea
A
Bizarre, involuntary dancelike movements
19
Q
Give examples of subjective feelings
A
pain, headache, dizziness, heartburn
SYMPTOMS
20
Q
What is a syndrome?
A
Characteristic combination of signs and symptoms associated with a particular disease
21
Q
Shingles effects what ganglia in the brain?
A
Nodose
22
Q
T or F
Shingles can occur on both sides of the body
A
False
Unilateral
23
Q
Describe the order of skin colour change in a person with Raynaud’s Syndrome
A
White -> blue -> red
24
Q
What is the etiology of Raynaud’s
A
Vasoconstriction/vasospastic rxn of peripheral arteries of the fingers.
25
This condition results from autoimmune damage to exocrine glands which results in dryness of mucous membranes
Sjogren's Syndrome
26
Sjogren's Syndrome is usually a manifestation of?
Rheumatoid arthritis or systemic lupus erythematosus
27
Name the 3 signs of Sjogren's Syndrome
Xerostomia - dry mouth
Xerophthalmis - dry eyes
Bilateral Parotitis - enlargement of parotid gland
28
What is the major concern surround Xerophthalmia and Sjogren's Syndrome?
Can damage cornea and cause a corneal ulceration which is very painful and can lead to blindness
29
T or F
| Joint pain is associated also with Sjogren's Syndrome
False!!!!
30
T or F
| Sjogren's Syndrome is usually associated with middle aged men
False
| Women
31
What is known as the pattern of development of a disease?
Pathogenesis
32
What is an acute disease?
Short duration 5-10 days, quick onset, severe symptoms
| - common cold, acute appendicitis
33
What is a chronic disease?
A disease that last more than 6 weeks and could have insidious onset such as TB or cancer
34
This type of disease classification is confined to one region of the body
Local
35
What is meant by focal damage
Damage that is LIMITED to DISTINCT SITES within a disease organ
36
How is diffuse damage different from focal?
Diffuse is distributed uniformly within the organ and focal is limited to distinct sites
37
When is a disease considered systemic?
When it involves other organs and systems
38
T or F
| Local disease can become systemic
True
Cancer metastasizing
TB in the lungs that could spread to other organs if immune system can't contain it
39
What is known as the identification of the patients specific disease
Diagnosis
40
Name the different classifications of cell injury
Deficiency
Intoxication
Trauma
41
Give examples of primary deficiency
Lack of Vit B3 (niacin) = pellagra (inflammation of the skin)
Lack of Vit C = scurvy
Lack of B1 (thiamine) = beriberi
42
What is the difference between a primary nutrient deficiency and secondary?
```
Primary = lack of specific components in the food
Secondary = component is in food but cannot be absorbed
```
43
Pernicious anemia is a primary or secondary deficiency?
Secondary
| - caused by lack of RBC in the blood and Vit B12 cannot be absorbed without the intrinsic factor.
44
What is the definition of intoxication?
Poisoning, toxins, or the presence of a substance that interferes with cell FUNCTION!
45
What is the difference between intoxication and trauma?
```
Intoxication = interferes with function
Trauma = interferes with structure
```
46
Toxins can be classified in what 2 categories?
Exogenous
| Endogenous
47
What are the sources of Exogenous toxins?
1. From infection (food contamination -> botulism, salmonellosis)
2. Chemicals or poisons (alcohol, CC14)
3. Overdose of some medications or artificial vitamins
48
Name the different sources of Endogenous toxins
1. Genetic: Accumulation of metabolites or the activation of an alternative pathway
2. Ionizing radiation
3. Accumulation of metabolic by-products
49
Alkaptonuria is an example of what source of endogenous toxin
Genetic!
50
Describe the pathogenicity of Alkaptonuria
Caused by the accumulation of homogentisic acid an intermediate of phenylalanine metabolism that builds up due to a lack of the oxidase enzyme for the homogentisic acid.
51
When homogentisic acid builds up in the IVD cartilage what is it called?
Ochronosis
52
What does Ochronosis cause?
Degenerative disc disease or secondary osteoarthritis because of too much alkapton in the cartilage.
53
What is a typical manifestation of Alkapeonuria?
Urine will turn black after being exposed to air for a certain period of time.
54
Give an example of the activation of an alternative pathway and endogenous toxins
Phenylketonuria
| - an enzyme is missing to change phenylalanine into tyrosine.
55
What happens to an individual who does not have the enzyme to convert phenylalanine into tyrosine
The phenylalanine is converted into Ketones which build up in the blood as phenylpyruvic acid and this causes brain damage. Children can't talk until about 15yo
56
Give an example of an accumulation of metabolic byproducts forming an endogenous toxin
Gout
57
Pathogenesis of Gout
- increase in uric acid concentration from overproduction or decreased excretion from the kidneys.
- problem with purine metabolism
- Hyperurecemia! Too much uric acid in blood
58
What are 3 manifestations of Gout
1. Gouty arthritis
2. Tophi/Tophus (skin)
3. Kidney problems
59
What part of the body is the most susceptible to Gouty Arthritis?
Usually the great toe (1st metatarsalphalangeal joint)
60
When uric acid crystals build up in the skin what is it called? Where does it usually occur?
Tophi/Tophus
| Ears
61
List the different types of cell trauma
```
Direct Contact
Hypothermia
Hyperthermia
Mechanical Pressure
Microorganism
```
62
What happens physiologically that makes Frost Bite so dangerous?
Due to hypothermia the long exposure to really low temperatures causes the water in the body to freeze and therefore expand. The expansion can rupture the cell membrane and kill the tissue.
63
Give an example of something causing trauma and being an endogenous toxin
Ionizing radiation
64
Give examples of mechanical pressure type traumas
Tumor
Stones
Anuerysm
High intensity sound
65
How does Malaria effect the body?
Grows inside the RBC and causes them to rupture
66
What is the name of the microorganism that can cause distention and rupture of tissue from growth of the worm
Echinococcus Cyst
67
Name the change in cell process that results from accumulation
Hydropic Changes
| Fatty Changes - Steatosis
68
Give the akas for Hydropic Changes
Hydropic Degeneration
| Cloudy Swelling
69
Pathogenesis of Cloudy Swelling
- Cell injury causes functional inability to produce enough ATP
- Decrease in ATP = inability to remove Na+
- Na+ attracks fluid& creates the cloudy swelling which causes narrowing of the lumen.
- Narrowing of lumen causes increase pressure and when chronic can results in tissue atrophy
70
What are the causes of Steatosis
- intoxication
- protein malnutrition
- anoxia
- obesity
- diabetes mellitus
71
Steatosis refers to accumulation of triacylglycerides in what type of cells?
Parenchymal Cells
72
Give an example of Steatosis
Alcoholism results in "Fatty Liver"
- lipoprotein produced in liver, hepatocytes use FFA to make them, if you drink alcohol and damage hepatocytes the FFA will just start to accumulate and make the hepatocytes swell.
73
Fragments of bacteria or cellular organelles found in an injured cell that the cell failed to digest is known as?
Residual Bodies
74
T or F
Residual bodies can kill the cell
False
Cell is alive and functioning
75
Are these matched correctly in regards to Hyalinization
```
INTRAcellular = non-reversible
INTERcellular = reversible
```
False
Opposite is true
76
What is Mallory Alcoholic Hyaline
- Type of Hyalinization
| - Deposition of proteins in hepatocytes
77
T or F
| Russell bodies are a type of hyalinization involving inclusions in the nucleus of a cell
False
Cytoplasm
78
What is the name of the hyalinization where inclusions build up in the nucleus?
Dutcher Bodies
79
Russell Bodies and Dutcher Bodies are examples of what type of accumulation?
Plasma Cell Dyscrasias
80
What is the name of the Plasma cell dycrasias that involves the IGG class of antibodies?
Multiple Myeloma
81
What is another name for Multiple Myeloma
Plasma Cell Myeloma
82
This condition results in Hyperviscosity Syndrome
Lymphoplasmacytic Lymphoma
83
What immune antibody is being produced by Lymphoplasmacytic Lymphoma?
IGM
84
T or F
Multiple Myeloma DOES NOT cause Hyperviscosity Syndrome
False
It does just not as significant as with the Lymphoplasmacytic Lymphoma because the IGG class of antibodies are much smaller than the IGM and therefore do not affect the thickness of the blood as much but it can still happen.
85
aka for Hyperviscosity Syndrome
Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia
86
The monoclonal tumors occur because of problems with what type of cells in the body
B-Cells or plasma cells.
87
Hyaline Arteriolosclerosis can cause what usually fatal event?
Hemorrhagic Stroke
88
What is the pathogenesis of Hyaline Arteriolosclerosis?
Deposition of hyaline substances causes dramatic increase in vascular wall hardening. The arterioles can become so hard that the vessel can rupture causing damage or death
89
Is Hyalinization in arterioles and example of intracellular or extracellular?
Extracellular
90
What is Amyloidosis?
Deposits of amyloid in organs and tissue.
91
What are Amyloids?
It is a general term for a variety of proteinaceous materials that are abnormally deposited in tissue interstitium. These are PATHOLOGICAL proteins.
92
Why does Amyloidosis usually occur?
Because of chronic infection or autoimmune problems.
93
Name the common sites of the body for Amyloid deposition
Kidney
Liver
Brain
Skin
94
This is known as cell/organ enlargement in response to increase in demands
Hypertrophy
95
Name the different Adaptive responses of the cell.
Alternative Metabolism
| Altered Size - atrophy, and hypertrophy or pressure atrophy
96
T or F
| Hashimoto's is a hyperthyroid condition
False!
Autoimmune that leads to HYPOTHYROIDISM
97
What hormone binding site is blocked by an antibody in Hashimotos?
TSH
98
Describe the pathogenesis of Grave's Disease
Hyperplasia!
Antibodies permanantley bind to TSH receptors and continuously stimulate the Thyroid
Leads to a huge production of Thyroid Hormone
99
What is a classical presentation of Grave's Disease
Exophithalmos = bulging eyes
100
T or F
| Hashimoto's and Grave's are examples of Hypothyroid conditions
False
Grave's = hyperthyroid
101
A pouching of the cell membrane is called?
Blebs
102
How many blebs can you see on a cell membrane WITHOUT it causing irreversible changes?
2 maybe 3
103
T or F
Grave's Disease is more common in women then men
True
104
Are these matched right:
```
Karyolysis = condensation of nucleus
Pyknosis = dissolution of nucleus
Karyorrhexis = fragmentation of nucleus
```
No!
```
Karyolysis = dissolution
Pyknosis = condensation
```
105
Myocardial infarction falls under what category of tissue necrosis?
Coagulative Necrosis
106
Why is coagulative necrosis important?
It allows the tissue not to be damaged while cartilaginous material is played down to replace the dead tissue.
107
T or F
An infarction is a zone of necrosis caused by oxygen deficiency
False
This is describing an Infarct!
Infarction is the PROCESS resulting in an infarct
108
T or F
A red infarct occurs in tissue with dual blood supply
True
109
What is a White Infarct
Occurs with single blood vessel supply like the heart
110
This type of infarct results in the complete digestion of dead cells, resulting in transformation of the tissue into a liquid viscous mass.
Liquefactive Necrosis
111
In what type of tissue is Liquefactive Necrosis common? Why?
Nervous Tissue because there is little or no collagen fibres here.
112
TB and Leprosy are examples of what type of tissue necrosis?
Casseous Necrosis
113
Casseous Necrosis appears as?
Amorphous granular debris seemingly composed of fragmented, coagulated cells
AND
amorphous granular debris enclosed within a distinct inflammatory border known as a granulomatous reaction.
114
T or F
gummatous necrosis looks like severe glassy or waxy necrosis of smooth muscles in acute infectious diseases
False!!
1stly because it is SKELETAL MUSCLES
This is describing Zenker's Necrosis
115
T or F
Gummatous necrosis develops with primary symphillis
False
Tertiary period
116
Some texts say that syphillis will cause a different type of necrosis.. what kind?
Liquefaction
117
What is Tabes Dorsalis?
Gummatous Necrosis of the Posterior Column of the Spinal cord resulting in a loss of sensory function with symptoms such as numbness and tingling.
118
What is another condition that results from tertiary Syphilis and Gummatous Necrosis
General Paresis of Insane
119
Why type of necrosis is seen with Typhoid?
Zenker's Necrosis
120
Aschoff's Node is a symptom of what condition?
Rheumatic Fever
121
In what organ do we find Aschoff's Nodes?
Heart
122
Pancreonecrosis results from what type of tissue necrosis?
Fat Necrosis
123
This type of necrosis occurs in the walls of blood vessels when endothelial and smooth muscle cells are injured and dying.
Fibrinoid Necrosis
124
T or F
| Thromboangitis Obliterates is a type of Wet Gangrene
False
Dry Gangrene
125
Diabetic angiopathy is classified as wet or dry gangrene?
Dry
126
Systemic sclerosis aka _________
Scleroderma
127
Burger's Disease is common among what population of people?
Smokers
128
What is an aka for Buerger's Disease?
Thromboangitis Obliterans
129
T or F
Thromboangitis Obliterates is an example of Wet Gangrene
False
Dry
130
When does Wet Gangrene occur?
Occurs if the enzyme of invading phagocytic cells break down the necrotic debris and produces some liquefaction
131
What bacteria is often associated with Wet Gangrene
Clostridium Prefingens
132
Where is Gas Gangrene commonly seen?
With military from bullet wounds.
133
T or F
Gas Gangrene is associated with aerobic bacterial infections
False
Anaerobic
134
T or F
Apoptosis is NOT due to cell injury
True
135
What is Apoptosis?
Programmed Cell Death
136
What are the normal conditions of apoptosis?
1. Programmed destruction of embryogenesis (decidual layer)
| 2. Hormone dependent involution in adults (gonads)
137
Pigments can either be _________ or __________
Exogenous
| Endogenous
138
What is Anthracosis
Deposition and accumulation of carbon in the tissues, especially lungs
139
What is the name of the disease that is common among coal workers.
Coal-worker pneumoconiosis
140
Name the different types of endogenous pigments
```
Lipofuscin
Melanin
Homogentisic Acid
Hemosiderin
Copper
Calcium
```
141
Akas for Lipofuscin
Lipochrome
Wear & Tear pigment
Brown atrophy
142
What are Lipofuscins?
Complexes of protein and lipid derives from free-radical preoccupation of polyunsaturated lipids of sub cellular membranes.
143
T or F
| Lipofuscins are dangerous
False
Don't cause problems
144
What is the name of a black abnormal pigment
Homogentisic acid
145
T or F
| Hemosiderin is an excessive accumulation of iron that can be harmful
False
This is the definition of Hemochromatosis
146
an aka for Hemochromatosis
Bantu Siderosis
147
What is Hemosiderin?
Accumulates in tissues where there is local or system excess of iron and represents large aggregates of ferritin micelles, which are not harmful.
148
Where do we commonly find Hemosiderin micelles?
Spleen, liver, and lymph nodes
149
Deposition of hemosidering in many organs and tissues in the cases of systemic overload of iron is describing?
Hemosiderosis
150
T or F
| Secondary Hemochromatosis is a systemic overload of iron
True
151
This type of Hemochromatosis involves increased absorption of iron in the GI tract
Primary Hemochromatosis
152
T or F
Females are affected by Hemochromatosis 7:1 compared to males
False
153
What is an aka for Secondary Hemochromatosis
Transfusion reaction
154
With individuals suffering from Primary Hemochromatosis up to how much iron can be absorbed by the GI? What is a normal amount?
50 g
| 5-6 g
155
Why is Secondary Hemochromatosis so dangerous? What other conditions can it lead to?
Liver - hepatoma (increased chance of cancer 20X)
Hepatomegaly
Liver Cirrhosis
Pancreas - diabetes mellitus
Cardiomyopathies - arrythymias, cardiac failure
Skin hyper pigmentation
Abd pain, joint pain
156
Hepatolenticular degeneration aka _________________
Wilson's Disease
157
T or F
Wilson's Disease is more common in females than males
False
158
What is the name of the molecule when Copper binds to alpha globulin?
Ceruloplasmin
159
What happens in Wilson's Disease that leads to an accumulation of copper in the body
Ceruloplasmin is not made and copper is not released from the liver.
160
What are some common manifestation/presentation of Wilson's disease
1. Copper ring at the periphery of the cornea = Kayser-Fleischer ring
2. Brain damage of midbrain ganglia - motor function impaired with Parkinson's-like Syndrome
161
What is the only tx for excessive copper in the body
D-penicillamine - this compound has chelating properties and removes copper from circulation
162
What is a negative effect of D-Penicillamine?
It has cytolytic effects that inhibit cell replication
163
an aka for Primary Tuberculosis Complex
Ghon's Focus
164
What type of calcification involves deposition of calcium salts into necrotic or atrophic tissues?
Dystrophic
165
What type of calcification is immunopathological?
Systemic
166
Pathogenesis for Systemic Calcification
Overactive fibroblasts leads to an overproduction of connective tissue.
Scar tissues begin to replace normal soft tissue which causes contracture.
167
When systemic calcification occurs in the heart what develops?
Stenosis of the heart valves
| Rheumatic Heart Disease
168
What is Sclerodactyly
Claw-like hand - the hardening of the skin in the hands can lead to the hands being in a semi flexed position and the skin is all tight and taught
169
What is the kind of calcification that involves the deposition of Calcium into tissues that are NOT necrotic or atrophic
Metastatic Calcification
170
What are some causes of Metastatic Calcification
1. Increase secretion of PTH
2. Destruction of bone like in Paget's Disease, immobilization, or Tumors.
3. Vitamin D disorders
4. Sarcodosis
5. Renal Failure in secondary hyperparathyroidism
171
Name the classic signs of inflammation
```
Rubor
Calor
Tumor
Dolor
Functio Laesa
```
172
What vessel has a spinster to regulate blood flow
Arterioles
173
In what vessel does exchange of nutrients occur?
Capillaries
174
T or F
Endothelial cells line the inner surface of empty organs.
False this is describing Epithelial cells.
Endothelial cells line the vessels
175
Where do pathologist say inflammation actually occurs
Post Capillary Venules
176
T or F
Hydrostatic forces are pushing and osmotic are pulling
True
177
What are the 2 components of inflammation?
1. Vascular
| 2. Cellular
178
What does stasis mean in terms of blood flow and why is it important?
Stasis is slowing of the blood so that its movement in the capillaries and venues stops.
179
What does hyperaemia mean?
Increased blood flow
- inflammation has about a 20 fold increase in blood flow to the injured area.
180
T or F
Epithelial cells are able to contract and increase the gapping which allows for albumins to be drawn into tissue and water follows the higher concentration of solutes.
False
All of this was true only it is not epithelial cells it is endothelial cells
181
What is exudate?
Inflammatory fluid
Leakage of fluid portion of blood into tissues at site of injury that is protein rich, has blood cells and sometimes microorganism both dead and alive.
182
What is the specific gravity of exudate?
more than 1.020
183
What is Transudate
This is a fluid that is not a result of tissue injury. Could be result of normal muscle function
Not protein rich like exudate
Specific gravity less than 1.012
184
What is serous inflammation?
A response to a mild injury in which only fluid is allowed to escape. Ex: common cold
185
T or F
Fibrinous inflammation is NOT dangerous
False
Fibrinous inflammation is the appearance of Fibrinogen in the exudate. Can lead to conditions such as Rheumatic Pericarditis
186
Are these matched correctly in terms of Suppurative Inflammation:
```
Localized = Cellulitis
Diffuse = Abscess
```
No
```
Localized = Abscess
Diffuse = Cellulitis
```
187
Pleural Empyema
| Subdural Empyema fall under what type of inflammation
Suppurative
188
T or F
RBC play NO role in inflammation
True
189
What is Hemorrhagic Inflammation?
Accumulation of RBC at site of injury.
190
What is Leukocyte Emigration?
Outpouring of large amounts of WBC from the blood
191
In what disease are Lung Abscess a concern?
TB & cancer
192
In what vessels does Leukocyte Emigration occur?
Postcapillary venules
193
Normal blood flow = ________________
Axial blood flow
194
Describe how the blood cells travel together with axial blood flow.
Larger blood cells (leukocytes) are in the centre, surrounded by RBCs which are surrounded by platelets.
195
How does injury disrupt axial blood flow?
RBCs will become sticky from chemicals released that causes them to stick together and become bigger than the WBC and start to flow down the middle.
196
Describe what Margination is
WBC's become positioned in the periphery of the column as a result of the redistribution that occurs when RBCs move to the centre of the column.
WBC are now close to the vascular endothelium
197
What is pavementing?
- This happens to the leukocytes and is their adherence to the endothelial cell surfaces.
- Endothelial cells become sticky and project receptors into the lumen
- WBCS get caught in the receptors.
198
T or F
Margination and Pavementing are a preparation step for Leukocyte Emigration
True
199
What does Dr.B define Diapedesis as?
The PASSIVE escape of RBC from vessels into site of inflammation.
200
T or F
Leukocyte emigration is a passive process where WBC's move outside the vessels at the site of inflammation
False
ACTIVE process
201
T or F
Polymorphonuclear cells are agranulocytes
False
Granulocytes mother truckerrrrrr
202
Name the polymorphonuclear cells
Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils
203
Name the agranulocytes
Lymphocytes
| Monocytes
204
```
Eosinophils represent what % of granulocytes in the blood:
2 - 4 %
55-60%
0.5-1%
20-25%
```
2 - 4 %
205
What percentage of granulocytes are Basophils?
0.5-1%
206
What mononuclear cells represent the least %
Monocytes = 4 - 8%
207
T or F
Eosinophils have pink granules
False
Red
208
What is the lifespan of Neutrophils
8hr - 3 days
209
What WBC are the first to arrive at the site of inflammation?
Neutrophils
210
T or F
Neutrophils have a bilobed nucleus
False! 3-4 lobes
| Bilobed = basophils & eosinophils
211
What are the second WBCs to arrive at the site of inflammation?
Monocytes
212
T or F
Macrophages will remain at site of inflammation longer than Neutrophils
True
213
What WBCs escape the vessel into site of inflammation?
Neutrophils & Monocytes
214
Name the major Phagocytic cells
1. Neutrophils
2. Monocyte/Macrophage
3. Eosinophils
215
Name the 4 stages of the Phagocytic process
1. Recognition
2. Engulfing
3. Indigestion
4. Exocytosis
216
What is the name of the antibody like substance in neutrophils?
Defensin
217
What stage of Phagocytosis involves the use of pseudopods and the formation of a vesicle surrounding foreign microbe/antigen
Engulfing
218
Provide examples of oxygen independent mechanisms of Phagocytosis
Lysozyme
Elastase
Collagenase
Defensin
219
What are anions?
Found in granules of phagocytic cells that kill bacteria by releasing oxygen.
220
Name the anion's discussed in lecture
Superoxide Anion
Hypochlorite Anion
Hydrogen Peroxide H2O2
221
T or F
Chediak-Higashi Syndrome is a rare genetic disease in children where the child's phagocytic cells (all of them) are not able to produce free radicals.
False
This is describing Chronic Granulomatous Disease of Children
Chediak = impairment of phagocytic cell MOTILITY and therefore cannot go to the site at a proper time.
222
T or F
WBC's in Chediak-Higashi Syndrome are not able to degranulate and these children often die early
True
223
All of the following are initiators of the inflammatory response except:
1. Complement activation
2. Histamine
3. Microbial products
4. Direct stimulus to mast cells
2. Histamine - this is a mediator of the inflammatory process and is released in response to a physical injury.
224
Name the functions of Histamine
Vasodilation
Increase permeability of vessels
Bronchospasm - narrowing of bronchiole lumen
Increase mucous production
225
Name the causes of Degranulation
```
Physical injury
Type 1 hypersensitivity rxn
Anaphylotoxins CSa, C5a
Neuropeptides like substance P
Cytokines
```
226
T or F
Neuropeptides stimulate the release of Histamine
Fals!!
Anaphylotoxins C3a & C5a do this!
227
What cells produce Serotonin
Platelets
228
What is known as the hormone of pleasure?
Serotonin
229
Where is substance P produced
Nervous fibers - peripheral and central NS
| Lungs & GI nervous tissue
230
All of the following are functions of Substance P except:
- promote production of pain
- increase vasoconstriction
- regulate blood pressure
- increase permeability of blood vessels
Increase vasoconstriction
231
Nitric oxide's axa
Endothelial-derived releasing hormone.
232
What mediator of inflammation's role is to cause Bronchospasm?
Histaime
233
what anaphylotoxins stimulate the release of Histamine?
C3a and C5a
234
What cytokines will cause the degranulation of the mast cells to release histamine?
Cytokines IL-1 and IL-8
235
Where is serotonin located in regards to inflammation?
Platelets
236
What inflammation mediator is a product of arachidonic acid?
Eicosanoids
237
What Eicosandoid is involved with the inhibition of hair growth?
PGE2
PGD2
PGF2alpha
PGD2
238
T or F
| PGD2 is associated with bronchospasm and type 1 hypersensitivity reactions
True
239
What blood cells are the major produced of prostaglandins?
Neutrophils and Macrophages
240
T or F
| Prostacyclin = PGI2
True
241
What prostaglandin is produced in the platelets?
Thromboxane A2 (TXA2)
242
What prostaglandin's function is opposite to PGI2?
TXA2 (Thromboxane A2)
243
What prostaglandin causes Hyperalgesia (increases perception of pn at site of inflammation)?
PGE2
244
What prostaglandin is associated with the corpus luteum and induces labour?
PGF2alpha
245
T or F
Prostaglandins in excess can cause irritation to the wall of the stomach and cause Peptic ulcers.
False
They actually protect against Peptic ulcers and it is common to see individuals who use NSAIDS in excess suffering from ulcers.
246
T or F
COX 1 inhibitors will suppress the immune response more than COX 2
True
247
Tumor necrosis factor = ?
Interleukins-1 & 6
| - produced predominantly by activated macrophages
248
What are the physiological effects of Interleukins?
```
Fever
Decrease appetite
Increase sleep
Increase acute-phase proteins
Hemodynamic effects (shock)
Neutrophilia
```
249
What inflammatory mediator is responsible for the perception of pain and causing vasodilation. (hint - not substance P)
Bradykinin
250
T or F
Lymph vessels are valveless
False
- contain valves that keep it flowing in one direction -> towards the venous system
251
What one of these enzymes is responsible for Leukotriene production:
1. 5-lipoxygenase
2. 12-lipoxygenase
5-lipoxygenase
252
What inflammation mediator stimulates monocyte adhesion?
Lipoxins
253
Steroids inhibit the production of Eicosanoids by inhibiting what class of enzymes?
Phospholipases
254
T or F
IL-1 and IL-6 are produced predominantly by B helper cells
False
T-Helper
255
T or F
| Antibodies are part of the inflammatory cascade
False
But they do promote inflammation
256
Clotting Factor XII aka ?
Hageman Factor
257
Lymphangitis = ?
inflammation of lymph vessels
258
T or F
When lymph glands are painful it usually indicates metastases of lymph nodes
False
They will be painless - painful is a normal response
259
What is an infection of the blood called?
Bacteremia
260
T or F
Lymphocytosis is usually seen with a bacterial infection
False
Viral
261
What does Leukocytosis mean?
Increased leukocytes in the blood >9000 leukocytes per 1 cubic mm
262
Lymphadenopathy of neck and upper thoracic lymph nodes is commonly called?
Infectious mononucleosis
263
T or F
| Chronic inflammation is associated with an increase in exudate production of the body
False
264
How long does inflammation need to last to be considered chronic?
6-8 weeks
265
How high can the Neutrophil content(%) increase with a bacterial infection?
Greater than 60-70%
266
What happens to bone when there is chronic inflammation in soft tissue?
Cytokines will enter the area and they promote osteoclasts and therefore we see a loss of bone density in that area
267
Loss of bone density is referred to as?
Osteopenia
268
What is aseptic osteonecrosis?
Caused by compressed blood vessels -> infarct -> dissolution of bone without infection -> joint and bone loss
269
Describe what can happen to the tissues the kidneys with chronic kidney inflammation
- tissue replaced by connective tissue
- the CT will shrink over time (more than half) and pull the other tissue with it causing a tautness or granular appearance.
- leads to Chronic Granulomatous Nephritis
270
Acute inflammation lasts how many days?
7-10 days
271
T or F
It is important to ice injured tissue for at least 3 days following injury or trauma.
False
- 1st day only!
272
T or F
Neutrophils are present in chronic inflammation
False
Only macrophages and lymphocytes
