Lab markers, diagnostic signs, buzz words Flashcards

-AI (199 cards)

1
Q

Cullen sign

A

Acute pancreatitis

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2
Q

Grey-Turner sign

A

Acute pancreatitis

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3
Q

CA 19-9

A

GB adenocarcinoma

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4
Q

HLA-DQ2

A

Celiac disease

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5
Q

tTGA IgA, EMA

A

Celiac disease

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6
Q

Cobblestoning

A

Crohn’s disease

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7
Q

Lead pipe

A

UC

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8
Q

Hasselbach’s

A

Direct inguinal hernia

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9
Q

High pitched tinkling sounds

A

Intestinal obstruction

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10
Q

Rome Criteria

A

12 w in past 12 months have 2/3 sxs:

  • relieved by defecation
  • change in frequency of stool
  • change in form of stool
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11
Q

Technetium-99 radioisotop

A

Use in:
Meckel’s diverticulum
Grave’s Dz

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12
Q

CEA marker

A

CRC

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13
Q

GGT increased

A

cholestasis

alcoholism

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14
Q

AFP marker

A

hepatocellular carcinoma

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15
Q

diffuse ST elevation

A

acute pericarditis

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16
Q

irregularly irregular pulse

A

A fib

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17
Q

diastolic rumble

A

mitral or tricuspid stenosis

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18
Q

diastolic “opening snap”

A

mitral stenosis

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19
Q

crescendo-descrescendo ejection murmur

A

aortic or pulmonic stenosis

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20
Q

holosystolic murmur

A

mitral or tricuspid regurg

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21
Q

decrescendo diastolic murmuc

A

aortic or pulmonic regurg

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22
Q

LD1>LD2

A

MI

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23
Q

ApoA1 is good or bad

A

good

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24
Q

Apo B is good or bad

A

bad

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25
Apoa is good or bad
bad
26
Delta wave
Wolff-Parkinson-White
27
anti microsomal =
TPOAb
28
Chvostek's sign
Hypoparathyroidism | Facial movement
29
21-hydroxylase enzyme defect
Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
30
acquired hemolytic anemia - warm
IgG | "gloves keep you warm"
31
acquired hemolytic anemia - cold
IgM | "mayonnaise should be cold"
32
direct and indirect coombs
Extravascular tests for hemolytic anemia
33
basophilic stippling
alpha-thalassemia
34
Heinz bodies and bite cells
G6PD
35
JAK2 mutation
Polycythemia vera
36
Increased PT (INR) and PTT
DIC
37
Prolonged PTT, normal INR
Hemophilia
38
VIII deficinecy
Hemophilia A
39
hemorrhage in the joints
Hemophilia A
40
IX deficiency
Hemophilia B
41
Normal INR and PTT w suden onset petechiae
ITP
42
Vitamin K factors
II, VII, IX, X, protein C & S
43
PT elevated
Vitamin K deficiency
44
Increased PTT
Von Willebrand disease
45
inability to stabilize facor VIII
von willebrand disease
46
Urine porphobilinogen
Acute intermittent porphyria
47
Ferrochelatase def
Erythropoietic protoporphyria
48
Roth and cotton wool spots
AML
49
Virgin B cells
CLL
50
Reed-sternberg cells
hodgkin lymphoma
51
M-spike | Punched out lytic lesions
Multiple myeloma
52
antigp120
HIV/AIDS
53
bamboo spine
Ankylosing spondylitis
54
Edrophonium test
Myasthenia gravis
55
Racoon eyes | Gottrons patches
Polymyositis/dermatomyositis
56
HLA B-27
Reactive arthritis
57
HLA-DR4
RA
58
anti-SSA/Ro | anti-SSB/LA
Sjogren
59
Schirmer test
Sjogren
60
HLA B8/DR | Anti-dsDNA
SLE
61
Anaphylaxis EPI dose
0.3-0.5 1:1,000 EPI IM
62
Anaphylaxis Diphenhydramine dose
50 mg IM or IV q 4-6 hrs
63
Pulm fungal infection east of the Mississippi
Blastomycosis
64
Valley fever Cali Will see after earthquakes skin infxn = good prognosis
Coccidiodomycosis
65
Pulm fungal infection in Ohio and Mississippi
Histoplasmosis
66
Trachea deviates towards lesion
Atelectasis
67
Blue bloater | increased pCO2
chronic bronchitis
68
Pink puffer | reactive polycythemia
Emphysema
69
asbestos starts in: upper or lower lobes and takes _ years to develop sxs
lower | 10 years
70
silicosis starts in: upper or lower lobes and takes _ years to develop sxs
upper | 20 years
71
bronchopneumonia pathogen | atypical - patchy consolidation
mycoplasma
72
lobular pneumonia pathogen
streptococcus pneumonia
73
trachea deviates away from lesion
pneumothorax
74
pink frothy sputum
pulmonary edema
75
Homans sign
pulmonary embolism | discomfort while squeezing calf
76
pulmonary HTN values
>25 at rest | >30 w exercise
77
non-caseating granulomas
sarcoidosis
78
Horner syndrome
pancoast tumor | IL lid lag, miosis (pinpoint pupil), IL anhidrosis
79
descending symmetric flaccid paralysis
botulism
80
Negi bodies
rabies
81
ascending and symmetrical motor weakness
Guillain-Barre
82
Multinucleated giant cells on Tzanck test
Herpes zoster | examination of fluid from a bullae
83
muscle rigidity in a descending pattern
tetanus
84
worst HA of my life
cerebral aneurysm
85
``` seizure: unresponsive for 5-10 seconds can occur up to 100 times/day blinking eye-rolling ```
Absence seizure | aka petit mal
86
``` seizure: localized to one part of brain pt is aware UL muscle contraction lip smacking ```
Focal/partial seizure
87
``` seizure: prodrome of irritability tonic muscle contracts > violent jerking > tongue biting elevated serum CK ```
Generalized seizure | aka grand mal
88
degeneration of anterior horn cells (motor neurons)
ALS
89
Accumulation of defective proteins in neurons | Chorea
Hunington's
90
CNS demyelination
MS
91
anterior horn destruction causing asymmetrical permanent muscles weakness may also see fever
Post-polio syndrome
92
brain CA in frontal lobe
astrocytoma
93
CA in brain stem
Glioma
94
Tumors near meninges
meningioma
95
pustules w/ burning sensation and ruddy complexion | involves pilosebaceous units
Acne rosacea
96
multiple openings | larger than a boil
carbuncles
97
Tznack smear shows multinucleated giant epithelial cells
Herpes Simplex
98
Yellow honey crusted exudate, surround by erythema
Impetigo vulgarious (nonbullous)
99
Clear yellow turbid fluid, no surround erythema
Bullous impetigo
100
6 P's: pruritic, polygonal, planar, purple, papules, plaques
Lichen planus
101
Pain out of proportion to clinical findings | Diagnosis made clinically and tx should begin ASAP
necrotizing fasciitis
102
Nits
Pediculosis (lice)
103
Lipoma description
moveable, soft, rubber
104
"stuck on" appearance | waxy papule appearance
seborrheic keratosis
105
Acanthosis nigricans is a marker of
insulin resistance
106
Eczema is a __ mediated rxn | and on __ surfaces
IgE | Flexor
107
Bull's eye pattern
Erythema multiforme
108
Pemphigus vulgaris is a __ reaction | and is ___ (superficial or deep)
Type II | Superficial
109
Pemphigus pemphigoid is a __ reaction | and is ___ (superficial or deep)
Type II | Deep
110
Nikolsky's sign | Asboe-Hansen sign
Pemphigus vulgaris nikolsky (rubbing causes separation of epidermis) asboe (lateral pressure to bulla causes it to extend laterally)
111
Auspitz sign
Psoriasis
112
Urticaria is a __ reaction
IgE
113
sandpaper-like texture
actinic keratosis
114
Most common malignancy in humans
BCC
115
red-purple papules that ulcerate | associated with immunodeficiency
Kaposi sarcoma
116
favors upper lip
BCC
117
favors lower lip
SCC
118
initially presents as non-healing ulcer
SCC
119
90% of breast cancer is in __
ductal epithelium
120
Screening mammography should be performed every __ years from ages __
2-3 years | 50-74
121
Most aggressive breast cancer
inflammatory carcinoma
122
most common breast cancer
invasive ductal carcinoma
123
Mastitis pathogen
Staph aureus
124
Painless vaginal bleeding Snowstorm appearance on US increased hCG
Hyatidiform mole
125
Group B strep should be screen at __ weeks
35-37
126
Toxoplasmosis can be transmitted in __ trimester
third
127
T/F: TIBC is elevated in pregnant
True
128
Folate deficiency anemia can cause __ defects in __ trimester
Neural tube | First
129
Gestational diabetes can occur in ___ weeks and plasma glucose is > __
24-48 | 10.3
130
Polyhydraminos is > ___ cc of amniotic fluid and has __ x __ cm pocket of fluid on US
2000 | 8 x 8
131
In pregnancy: HTN > 140/90 Proteinuria > 300 Pitting edema
Pre-eclampsia
132
Separation of placenta after 20 weeks
Abruptio placenta
133
Marginal placenta previa has a risk of __
hemorrhage
134
Painless bright red vaginal bleeding
Placenta Previa
135
Postpartum hemorrhage is a blood loss of ___
>500 mL
136
Abortion likely happens prior to __ weeks
20
137
If pt has threatened abortion, what amount of blood loss warrants ER
2 pads w/ blood per hour
138
Bulls-eye rash | BL bell's palsy
Lyme
139
HLA-B27 dactylitis nail pitting CASPAR criteria
Psoriatic arthritis
140
Paget disease has __ ALP and __ GGT
high | normal
141
T score for osteopenia and osteoporosis
penia: -2.5 to -1 porosis: < -2.5
142
``` In osteomalacia you see high or low of the following: Vit D Phosphate Ca ALP Parathyroid ```
Low D, phosphate and Ca | High ALP and parathyroid
143
Depuytrens involves which fingers and joints
MP and IP flexion | 4, 5, 3
144
Trigger fingers involved
1, 3, 4
145
most common location for cervical disc herniation
C6-7
146
Most common location of cervical sponylosis
C5-6
147
Kyphosis cobb angle
>45
148
Scoliosis angles for bracing and surgery
20-45 brace | >45 surgery
149
Sciatica involves
L4-S3
150
Spondylolisthesis involves
L5-S1
151
Kemp sign and CT myelogram to diagnose
Spinal stenosis
152
MSK mass that shows stippled or "popcorn" calcifications
Chondroma
153
Most common benign bone tumor
Osteochondroma
154
Onion-like skinning and moth-eaten appearance on XR
Ewings sarcoma
155
benign scrotal masses that are painful
hematocele | varicocele
156
benign scrotal masses that are painless
hydrocele spermatocele varicocele
157
Prostate CA occurs in the ___ zone
peripheral
158
Testicular CA is painful or painless?
Painless
159
Prehn's sign is positive in __ and negative in ___
Epididymitis | Testicular torsion
160
List the male repro emergent conditions
Paraphimosis Testicular torsion Prostatitis
161
BPH occurs in the __ zone
transitional
162
Proliferative types of glomerulonephritis
IgA neph/ Berger's acute proliferative membranoproliferative Rapidly progressing
163
Non-proliferative types of glomerulonephritis
minimal-change | membranous
164
most common type of Ki stone
Calcium
165
Ca oxalate Cystine Uric acid are from urine acidic or alkaline?
acidic
166
ca phosphate from urine too acidic or alkaline?
alkaline
167
which Ki stone cannot be seen on XR
Uric acid
168
Nephritic s/sx mneumonic
``` PHAROH proteinuria hematuria azotemia RBC casts Oliguria HTN ```
169
Nephrotic s/sx mneumonic
``` PALE proteinuria > 50 hypoAlbuminemia hyperLipidemia Edema ```
170
Kidney's w/ moth eaten appearance on US
Polycystic Ki Disease
171
waxy casts on UA
renal failure
172
Hunner's ulcers in cytoscopy is gold standard for:
interstitial cystitis
173
chocolate cysts and/or mulberry spots on laparoscopy
endometriosis
174
strawberry cervix
trichomoniasis
175
pressure on eyelid produces toothpaste-like secretion
chalazion
176
most common cause of reversible blindness | painless
cataracts
177
most common cause of permanent visual loss in elderly
macular degeneration
178
progressive central vision loss
macular degeneration
179
may see flashes of light, blackness in peripheral field, loss of central vision, floaters
retinal detachment
180
elevated intraocular pressure (>21) | NO redness or pain
Primary open angle glaucoma
181
extremely elevated intraocular pressure (>40) | Red AND painful
primary angle-closure glaucoma
182
microaneurysms in the eye is an early clinical sign of
diabetic retinopathy
183
sudden UL loss of vestibular function and hearing
Labyrinthitis
184
recurring episodic vertigo and low frequency hearing loss
meniere dz
185
2 forms of conduction hearing loss
AOM | Otosclerosis
186
Schwart'z sign | Carhart notch
Otosclerosis schwart'z - faint pint TM Carhart - audiometric artifact
187
pellagra is __ and associated with ___
Niacin def | Diarrhea, dementia, dermatitis
188
Heberden's nodes located on
DIP
189
Bouchard's nodes located on
PIP
190
cogwheel rigidity pill rolling shuffling gait
Parkinson's
191
For urinary incontinence you want to use a muscarinic agonist or antagonist
antagonist use tolterodine
192
fifths disease Parvovirus B19 slapped-cheek appearance
Erythema infectiosum
193
ABRUPT loss of fever, then RASH appears – pink pruritic maculopapules starting at neck and trunk
Roseola infantum
194
forchheimer’s spots | pink/discrete maculopapular rash, painful post LA
Rubella (German Measles) Forchheimer’s spots = red spots in mouth
195
Paramyxovirus, 4 day pre and post rash – starts at hairline, 3 c’s: cough, coryza, conjunctivitis Koplik spots
Rubeola (Measles)
196
Rash that spares the mouth, but has strawberry tongue
Scarlet fever
197
R to L shunt (congenital heart defects)
Tetralogy of fallot
198
L to R shunt (congenital heart defects)
ASD VSD Coaractation PDA
199
EDTA used to chelate
Lead