lec 5 mcq

Question 1

1. What type of interview is designed to increase organizational productivity?
   A. Interrogation
   B. Perception-based
   C. Cognitive
   D. Job

Answer 1

→ D. Job

Question 2

2. What is the function of the thalamus in perception?
   A. Long-term memory storage
   B. Emotional processing
   C. Sensory relay station
   D. Language comprehension

Answer 2

→ C. Sensory relay station

Question 3

3. Which brain structure is primarily responsible for encoding memories?
   A. Cerebellum
   B. Hippocampus
   C. Thalamus
   D. Cortex

Answer 3

→ B. Hippocampus

Question 4

4. Episodic memory is first stored as:
   A. Semantic storage
   B. Permanent memory
   C. Transient storage
   D. Visual memory

Answer 4

→ C. Transient storage

Question 5

5. Memory retrieval involves which part of the brain?
   A. Only hippocampus
   B. Cerebral cortex and hippocampus
   C. Thalamus alone
   D. Brain stem

Answer 5

→ B. Cerebral cortex and hippocampus

Question 6

6. What does proactive interference refer to?
   A. Old memories interfering with new ones
   B. New memories strengthening old ones
   C. Deletion of memories
   D. Short-term memory loss

Answer 6

→ A. Old memories interfering with new ones

Question 7

7. What is retroactive interference?
   A. Remembering old memories in detail
   B. New information interfering with old memories
   C. Enhanced memory of past events
   D. Forgetting current tasks

Answer 7

→ B. New information interfering with old memories

Question 8

8. Who is the most reliable interviewee in an investigation?
   A. Bystanders
   B. ATC personnel
   C. Crew
   D. Passengers

Answer 8

→ C. Crew

Question 9

9. Which of the following should interviews avoid?
   A. Being scheduled ahead
   B. Closed or leading questions
   C. Being private
   D. Involving two interviewers

Answer 9

→ B. Closed or leading questions

Question 10

10. What is the ideal number of interviewers?
    A. One
    B. Two or more
    C. None
    D. Five

Answer 10

→ B. Two or more

Question 11

11. What stage of a cognitive interview involves uninterrupted storytelling?
    A. Introduction
    B. Narration
    C. Closing
    D. Review

Answer 11

→ B. Narration

Question 12

12. What technique enhances detail recall during probing?
    A. Use of silence
    B. Telling answers
    C. Leading questions
    D. Time limits

Answer 12

→ A. Use of silence

Question 13

13. Why should interviews be done ASAP?
    A. To comply with law
    B. To schedule media briefings
    C. To avoid memory fade and contamination
    D. To get emotional reactions

Answer 13

→ C. To avoid memory fade and contamination

Question 14

14. What helps with error detection in an interview?
    A. Closing remarks
    B. Reviewing and reading back information
    C. Introduction of participants
    D. Long gaps

Answer 14

→ B. Reviewing and reading back information

Question 15

15. METAR is what type of report?
    A. Forecast only
    B. Significant meteorological alert
    C. Meteorological observation report
    D. Safety update

Answer 15

→ C. Meteorological observation report

Question 16

16. What information does ATIS NOT include?
    A. Active runways
    B. Aircraft registration
    C. Weather observations
    D. Approaches being used

Answer 16

→ B. Aircraft registration

Question 17

17. What is the minimum water depth considered a “bare runway” under GRF?
    A. 10mm
    B. 5mm
    C. 3mm
    D. 1mm

Answer 17

→ C. 3mm

Question 18

18. Which of the following weather phenomena would trigger a SIGMET?
    A. Light drizzle
    B. Clear sky
    C. Tornado activity
    D. Mild turbulence

Answer 18

→ C. Tornado activity

Question 19

19. What is GAF used for?
    A. Forecasts for oceanic routes
    B. Graphical area forecasts
    C. Runway condition updates
    D. Fuel planning

Answer 19

→ B. Graphical area forecasts

Question 20

20. What document provides weight and balance info?
    A. AFM
    B. FCOM
    C. CVR
    D. METAR

Answer 20

→ A. AFM

Question 21

21. What can indicate pilot fatigue during interviews?
    A. Audio distortion
    B. Eye movement
    C. Duty/rest schedule
    D. Blood pressure

Answer 21

→ C. Duty/rest schedule

Question 22

22. CRM aims to avoid:
    A. Engine flameout
    B. Task saturation
    C. Excess weight
    D. ATC conflict

Answer 22

→ B. Task saturation

Question 23

23. What is cockpit gradient?
    A. Flight deck temperature
    B. Altitude difference
    C. Gradient of authority
    D. Wind correction angle

Answer 23

→ C. Gradient of authority

Question 24

24. What is the purpose of operational flight plans?
    A. Review passenger meals
    B. Document weather and route info
    C. Record hotel accommodations
    D. Log voice recordings

Answer 24

→ B. Document weather and route info

Question 25

25. The center of gravity is determined through: A. Audio recordings B. Simulator reports C. Weight and balance analysis D. Fuel contamination test

Answer 25

→ C. Weight and balance analysis

Question 26

26. What does the FCOM contain? A. Cabin announcements B. Airport ground charts C. Procedures and limitations D. Passenger list

Answer 26

→ C. Procedures and limitations

Question 27

27. What is the purpose of the QRH? A. Fuel consumption log B. Interview script C. Checklist for in-flight situations D. Maintenance history

Answer 27

→ C. Checklist for in-flight situations

Question 28

28. SOP stands for: A. Safety Officer Plan B. Standard Operating Procedures C. Standard Observation Protocol D. Strategic Overview Plan

Answer 28

→ B. Standard Operating Procedures

Question 29

29. Which manual contains emergency procedures? A. AFM B. METAR C. SIGMET D. CVR

Answer 29

→ A. AFM

Question 30

30. Which aspect of CRM promotes balanced workload? A. Automation B. Simulator time C. Division of labor D. Manual log entries

Answer 30

→ C. Division of labor

Question 31

31. What is NOT a factor in flight planning interviews? A. Duty time B. Rest periods C. Hair color D. Weather products used

Answer 31

→ C. Hair color

Question 32

32. What is required for valid crew qualification? A. Crew personality profile B. Valid license and medical certificate C. Number of passengers flown D. Logbook color

Answer 32

→ B. Valid license and medical certificate

Question 33

33. What could indicate crew fatigue risk? A. Proper sleep B. Excessive simulator time C. Extended duty schedule D. Light workload

Answer 33

→ C. Extended duty schedule

Question 34

34. What data might support a fatigue claim? A. Hotel records B. Baggage claim receipts C. Headsets D. Ticket stubs

Answer 34

→ A. Hotel records

Question 35

35. What is part of operational guidance materials? A. Tax records B. Personal diaries C. SOPs and checklists D. Ground crew photos

Answer 35

→ C. SOPs and checklists

Question 36

36. What does ORG data focus on? A. Airline competition B. Organizational safety culture C. Runway length D. Weather types

Answer 36

→ B. Organizational safety culture

Question 37

37. Which of the following is part of the 6 M’s? A. Maintenance hours B. Management C. Mood D. Magnetism

Answer 37

→ B. Management

Question 38

38. What part of CRM helps avoid communication failure? A. Silence between crew B. Effective communication C. Single pilot decision-making D. Autopilot

Answer 38

→ B. Effective communication

Question 39

39. What is a component of SMS (Safety Management System)? A. Flight entertainment B. Emergency oxygen C. Risk management D. Inflight meals

Answer 39

→ C. Risk management

Question 40

40. What type of weather report would detail volcanic ash activity? A. METAR B. GAF C. SIGMET D. TAF

Answer 40

→ C. SIGMET