Lecture Mod 2 Flashcards
1
Q
Which cell will result from a lymphoid stem cell?
a. erythrocyte
b. T cell
c. basophil
d. eosinophil
A
T cell
2
Q
Which of the following is a characteristic of basophils?
a. first on scene of an injury
b. associated with parasitic infections
c. pro-inflammatory
d. phagocytic
A
pro-inflammatory
3
Q
Which clotting factor activates prothrombin activator?
a. factor X
b. factor III
c. factor XI
d. factor IX
A
Factor X
4
Q
Capillaries can have a diameter that is smaller than that of the red blood cell.
a. true
b. false
A
True
5
Q
Which phase of hemostasis is the most efficient in stopping bleeding?
a. coagulation
b. platelet plug formation
c. vascular phase
d. they are all equally efficient
A
Coagulation
6
Q
Clotting factors are primarily produced in the _____.
a. spleen
b. heart
c. liver
d. kidney
A
Liver
7
Q
Plasminogen is activated by _____.
a. T-PA
b. fibrin
c. thrombin
d. factor X
A
T-PA
8
Q
Serum is plasma without _____.
a. albumin
b. globulins
c. globins
d. fibrinogen
A
Fibrinogen
9
Q
Which of the following is NOT associated with secondary polycythemia?
a. high altitude
b. dehydration
c. cancer
d. lung disease
A
Cancer
10
Q
Which of the following plays the largest role in determining plasma osmolarity?
a. albumins
b. globulins
c. fibrinogen
d. globins
A
albumins
11
Q
People taking which medication/s to reduce blood clotting need to be careful to not eat
too many foods that are high in vitamin K?
a. heparin and Xarelto
b. coumadin and warfarin
c. coumadin and Xarelto
d. heparin and prostacyclin
A
coumadin and warfarin
12
Q
Erythrocytes contain carbonic anhydrase which is essential for oxygen transport.
a. true
b. false
A
False
13
Q
Eosinophils are often identified by their large pink granules and horseshoe shaped
nucleus.
a. true
b. false
A
True
14
Q
Leukopenia is _____.
a. increased number of white blood cells
b. cancer of the white blood cells
c. decreased number of white blood cells
A
decreased number of white blood cells
15
Q
What is the name of the molecule that is produced when heme binds oxygen?
a. carbaminohemoglobin
b. oxyhemoglobin
A
oxyhemoglobin
16
Q
Which proteins are responsible for storing iron?
a. ferritin and transferrin
b. ferritin and hemosiderin
c. transferrin and hemosiderin
A
ferritin and hemosiderin
17
Q
Megakaryocytes are crucial in the production of _____.
a. T cells
b. monocytes
c. platelets
d. erythrocytes
A
Platelets
18
Q
The fluid portion of your blood is more than 90% water.
a. true
b. false
A
True
19
Q
In a transfusion reaction, a primary reaction is when the donor red blood cells have
antigens that the recipient has antibodies for.
a. true
b. false
A
True
20
Q
What causes the release of erythropoietin from the kidneys?
a. high blood pressure
b. low oxygen levels in the blood
c. high hematocrit
d. infection
A
low oxygen levels in the blood
21
Q
Which leukocyte is first to respond to a bacterial infection?
a. neutrophil
b. lymphocyte
c. monocyte
d. basophil
A
Neutrophils
22
Q
What is the function of thrombopoietin?
a. increase red blood cell production
b. increase white blood cell production
c. increase platelet production
A
increase platelet production
23
Q
Which of the following can be given in a transfusion to a patient with type A- blood?
a. AB-
b. B+
c. A+
d. O-
A
O-
24
Q
How long do mature red blood cells live for?
a. 90 days
b. 120 days
c. 150 days
d. 240 days
A
120 days
25
NOT all white blood cells can/are _____.
a. migrate out of the bloodstream
b. capable of amoeboid movement
c. navigate via chemotaxis
d. perform phagocytosis
perform phagocytosis
26
From each heme unit _____.
a. only the iron is recycled
b. amino acids are recycled
c. both iron and amino acids are recycled
d. neither iron nor amino acids are recycled
only the iron is recycled
27
Which of the following antibodies contributes to hemolytic disease of the newborn?
a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgM
d. IgG
e. IgE
IgG
28
In the extrinsic coagulation pathway, damaged endothelial cells or peripheral tissues
release _____.
a. histamine
b. factor III
c. factor X
d. heparin
factor III
29
Which of the following blood types would have B antigens, anti-A antibodies, and D
antigen?
a. A+
b. B-
c. B+
d. A-
B+
30
What type of anemia is pernicious anemia?
a. iron deficient anemia
b. aplastic anemia
c. vitamin deficient anemia
d. blood loss anemia
vitamin deficient anemia
31
If you were to calculate cardiac output correctly, what would be your final units?
a. ml/beat
b. beats/min
c. ml/min
d. beats/ml
ml/min
32
Pressure and volume have a/n ______ relationship.
a. direct
b. inverse
Inverse
33
_____ causes valves to open during the cardiac contraction cycle.
a. A pressure gradient
b. A chemical gradient
c. Papillary muscle relaxation
d. Papillary muscle contraction
A pressure gradient
34
If someone develops pulmonary edema, which of the following likely failed?
a. right atrium
b. right ventricle
c. left atrium
d. left ventricle
Left ventricle
35
A first-degree AV block is a shockable rhythm.
a. true
b. false
False
36
Beta blockers and calcium channel blockers are often used in the treatment of hypertension
because they are _____.
a. negative inotropes
b. positive inotropes
c. negative chronotropes
d. positive chronotropes
Negative inotropes
37
What happens during S1?
a. AV valves close
b. AV valves open
c. semilunar valves close
d. semilunar valves open
AV valves close
38
Blood pressure rises during diastole and falls during systole.
a. true
b. false
False
39
What sets a normal sinus rhythm?
a. AV node
b. bundle of His
c. Purkinje fibers
d. SA node
SA node
40
Atrial systole is associated with _____.
a. atrial filling
b. ventricular filling
c. atrial relaxation
d. ventricular contraction
Ventricular filling
41
Cardiac conductive cells require stimulation to generate an action potential.
a. true
b. false
False
42
During exercise _____.
a. stroke volume is low and EDV is low
b. stroke volume is high and EDV is high
c. stroke volume is high and EDV is low
d. stroke volume is high and EDV is high
stroke volume is high and EDV is high
43
Why does heart failure causes an increase in heart rate?
a. increasing heart rate helps compensate for the decreased stroke volume
b. increasing heart rate causes a decrease in cardiac output
c. because there is a higher stroke volume
increasing heart rate helps compensate for the decreased stroke volume
44
The action potential of a cardiac contractile cell includes hyperpolarization.
a. true
b. false
False
45
During isovolumetric contraction _____.
a. all 4 valves are open
b. the AV valves are open and semilunar valves are closed
c. all 4 valves are closed
d. the semilunar valves are open and the AV valves are closed
all 4 valves are closed
46
Pulmonary edema is most often the result of right sided heart failure.
a. true
b. false
False
47
Potassium is a _____.
a. negative chronotrope
b. positive chronotrope
negative chronotrope
48
What is the spontaneous depolarization rate of the SA node?
a. 60-100 impulses per minute
b. 40-60 impulses per minute
c. 30-40 impulses per minute
d. 10-20 impulses per minute
60-100 impulses per minute
49
Where does the left atrium receive blood from?
a. pulmonary veins
b. pulmonary arteries
c. superior vena cava
d. aorta
Pulmonary veins
50
Which of the following is a function of intercalated discs?
a. transmit electrical signals between cardiac muscle cells
b. prevent cardiac muscle cells from stretching
c. anchor cardiac muscle cells to the fibrous skeleton
d. to prevent too much tension generation in cardiac muscle cells
transmit electrical signals between cardiac muscle cells
51
Why is it important for cardiac contractile cells to have a longer absolute refractory period than
skeletal muscle cells?
a. to allow for atrial filling
b. to prevent wave summation and tetanus from occurring
c. the cardiac muscle cells contract more frequently so need longer to relax
d. to help pump blood out of the ventricles
to prevent wave summation and tetanus from occurring
52
he sympathetic division can have a direct effect on contractility.
a. true
b. false
True
53
Which valves are open during ventricular diastole?
a. tricuspid and bicuspid
b. aortic and pulmonary
tricuspid and bicuspid
54
Which of the following dose not empty directly into the right atrium?
a. pulmonary veins
b. superior vena cava
c. inferior vena cava
d. coronary sinus
pulmonary veins
55
our heart “skipping a beat” is due to a premature ventricular contraction.
a. true
b. false
True
56
Both ventricles normally eject the same volume of blood.
a. true
b. false
True
57
The parasympathetic division has a negligible effect on contractility.
a. true
b. false
True
58
Caffeine can cause a premature ventricular contraction.
a. true
b. false
True
59
Which of the following is referred to as the “pacemaker” of the heart?
a. Purkinje fibers
b. bundle of His
c. AV node
d. SA node
SA node
60
The way to a man’s heart is through his left 3rd and 4th intercostals.
a. true
b. false
True
61
When do semilunar valves open?
a. during ventricular ejection
b. during ventricular filling
c. during isovolumetric contraction
d. during atrial systole
during ventricular ejection
62
What happens during the p-wave in an EKG?
a. atrial repolarization
b. ventricular depolarization
c. atrial depolarization
d. ventricular repolarization
atrial depolarization
63
Which of the following structures prevents backflow of blood into the left atrium?
a. aortic valve
b. pulmonary valve
c. tricuspid valve
d. bicuspid valve
bicuspid valve
64
All of the following are true with regards to the difference between arteries and veins
EXCEPT _____.
a. arteries have valves, veins do not
b. arteries have thicker walls compared to veins
c. veins are less elastic than arteries
d. veins have a large, irregular lumen
arteries have valves, veins do not
65
Blood colloidal osmotic pressure drives_____.
a. filtration
b. reabsorption
reabsorption
66
Central chemoreceptors respond to changes in all of the following EXCEPT _____.
a. calcium ion levels in the CSF
b. pressure of carbon dioxide in the CSF
c. pressure of oxygen in the CSF
d. pH of the CSF
calcium ion levels in the CSF
67
Which of the following controls blood flow into capillaries?
a. elastic arteries
b. arterioles
c. muscular arteries
d. venules
Arterioles
68
Increased blood viscosity raises blood pressure by increasing resistance.
a. true
b. false
true
69
Which of the following types of blood vessel would have the thickest tunica media?
a. arterioles
b. elastic arteries
c. muscular arteries
d. large veins
muscular arteries
70
Which of the following hormones decreases blood pressure by promoting loss of sodium
and water?
a. aldosterone
b. antidiuretic hormone
c. epinephrine
d. atrial natriuretic peptide
atrial natriuretic peptide
71
Osmotic pressures push water away from the pressure.
a. true
b. false
false
72
The least common type of capillaries are _____.
a. continuous
b. collateral
c. fenestrated
d. sinusoidal
sinusoidal
73
A high sodium diet can contribute to hypertension.
a. true
b. false
true
74
Someone passes out after witnessing a gruesome car crash, what could have happened?
a. neurogenic shock
b. hypovolemic shock
c. septic shock
d. endotoxic shock
neurogenic shock
75
Blood flow to the brain decreases when the peripheral tissues have a high blood
demand.
a. true
b. false
false
76
The purpose of valves in veins is to _____.
a. ensure one way blood flow
b. help with bi-directional flow
c. regulate blood pressure
d. increase lymphatic drainage
ensure one way blood flow
77
During a medical emergency, the blood pressure in both arms is taken and is different
between the two arms. This is indicative that the patient is likely suffering from _____.
a. a heart attack
b. an aneurysm
c. anemia
d. epilepsy
an aneurysm
78
Where would you find sinusoidal capillaries?
a. teeth
b. lymph nodes
c. liver
d. intestines
Liver
79
Vasoconstriction decreases perfusion.
a. true
b. false
True
80
What is the relationship between pressure and resistance in the venous system?
a. low pressure and high resistance
b. low pressure and low resistance
c. high pressure and high resistance
d. high pressure and low resistance
low pressure and low resistance
81
Capillary hydrostatic pressure is the main force that drives filtration.
a. true
b. false
true
82
Net filtration pressure = capillary hydrostatic pressure - blood colloidal osmotic
pressure.
a. true
b. false
true
83
You would expect to find _____ capillaries in the bone marrow.
a. continuous
b. fenestrated
c. sinusoidal
sinusoidal
84
Which of the following is the most significant contributor to peripheral resistance?
a. blood viscosity
b. blood vessel length
c. blood volume
d. blood vessel diameter
blood vessel diameter
85
Veins are capacitance vessels that contain 65-70% of blood.
a. true
b. false
true
86
Cardiovascular centers are located in the _____.
a. pituitary gland
b. hypothalamus
c. medulla oblongata
d. cerebellum
medulla oblongata
87
he baroresponse to hypertension includes all of the following EXCEPT _____.
a. cardioinhibitory center stimulation
b. cardioacceleratory center inhibition
c. sympathetic nervous system stimulation
d. vasomotor center inhibition
sympathetic nervous system stimulation
88
The longer a blood vessel is, the rate of blood flow _____.
a. increases
b. decreases
c. does not change
Decreases
89
Mean arterial pressure is measured by _____.
a. diastolic pressure + 1/3 pulse pressure
b. systolic pressure - diastolic pressure
c. (systolic pressure * pulse pressure)/diastolic pressure
d. pulse pressure - stroke volume
diastolic pressure + 1/3 pulse pressure
90
Epinephrine and norepinephrine are vasoconstrictors of all blood vessels.
a. true
b. false
false
91
Which of the following best describes how skeletal muscle contractions assist in venous
return to the heart?
a. they compress nearby veins, pushing the blood toward the heart against gravity
b. they increase arterial pressure, forcing more blood into the veins
c. they relax the smooth muscle in vein walls, reducing resistance to blood flow
d. they do not help with venous return
they compress nearby veins, pushing the blood toward the heart against gravity
92
Plasma protein concentration is higher in capillaries compared to interstitial fluid. This
causes the ______ to be higher in the blood than the interstitial fluid.
a. capillary hydrostatic pressure
b. interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure
c. blood colloid osmotic pressure
d. interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure
blood colloid osmotic pressure
93
How does damage to the cardioinhibitory center change heart rate? Why?
heart rate increases; sympathetic dominance
94
All of the following will increase heart rate EXCEPT _____.
hyperkalemia
95
All of the following are negative inotropes EXCEPT _____.
epinephrine
96
Hypotension will increase afterload.
false
97
The Starling Law of the heart states that greater _____ will cause greater contraction strength.
preload
98
Heart rate times stroke volume gives you cardiac output.
true
99
Baroreceptors measure blood pressure.\
true
100
The difference between the end diastolic volume and the end systolic volume is the stroke volume.
true
101
Diastole is contraction of the heart.
false
102
A heart murmur is due to abnormal or turbulent blood flow through the heart.
true
103
During ventricular systole all of the following would occur EXCEPT _____.
ventricular blood pressure will exceed aortic blood pressure
all heart valves will be briefly closed
ventricular blood pressure will exceed atrial blood pressure
the semilunar valves will be forced shut
the semilunar valves will be forced shut
104
The first heart sound (S1) is due to _____.
opening of the AV valves
closing of the AV valves
opening of the semilunar valves
closing of the semilunar valves
closing of the AV valves
105
The volume of blood when the ventricles contain the least amount of blood is called the _____.
end systolic volume
end diastolic volume
ejection fraction
stroke volume
end systolic volume
106
What is the importance of the 100-msec delay at the AV node?
it allows for full ventricular filling
It gives the AV valves time to close slowly.
it gives the semilunar valves time to open slowly.
it allows for full ventricular filling
107
Why is resting heart rate lower than the intrinsic rate set by the SA node?
The AV node slows the heart to a rate.
the parasympathetic division dominates at rest.
the sympathetic division dominates at rest.
the parasympathetic division dominates at rest.
108
On an ECG reading, what does the P wave indicate?
atrial depolarization
atrial contraction
ventricular contraction
ventricular depolarization
atrial depolarization
109
What factor could cause in increase in the size of the QRS complex on an ECG recording?
a decrease in blood volume
a decrease in blood pressure
an increase in heart rate
an increase in heart size
an increase in heart size
110
Calcium ions bind to the troponin in cardiac muscle to cause tropomyosin to move and expose active sites on actin.. T/F
True
111
Which is NOT true for cardiac muscle?
cardiac muscle depends on fermentation
cardiac muscle cells usually have a single nucleus
cardiac muscle cells have a long refractory period
cardiac muscle cells have myoglobin
cardiac muscle depends on fermentation
112
Which layer of the pericardium is also known as the epicardium?
parietal pericardium
pericardial sac
fibrous pericardium
visceral pericardium
visceral pericardium
113
Why is the left ventricle more muscular than the right ventricle?
it pumps a larger volume of blood.
the papillary muscles are stronger
it contracts with greater force.
it contracts with greater force.
114
The right atrium sends deoxygenated blood through an AV valve.
T/F
True
115
The right AV valve is also known as the bicuspid valve.
T/F
False
116
The epicardium is continuous with the endothelium.
t/f
False
117
The ridges of muscle inside the auricles and right atrium are called pectinate muscles. t/f
True
118
Which of the following best describes the clotting factors of the extrinsic cascade?
factor XII -> factor XI -> factor IX -> factor VIII -> factor X
factor XI -> factor XII -> factor IX -> factor X
factor III -> factor VII -> factor X
factor III -> factor VII -> factor X
119
The extrinsic and intrinsic clotting cascades will be activated at the same time. t/f
True
120
The term "diapedesis" refers to the ability of leukocytes to _____.
phagocytize bacteria
mature in the thymus
kill virus infected cells
migrate through capillary walls
migrate through capillary walls
121
What is the fate of the proteins in a hemoglobin molecule?
they are converted to bilirubin and excreted in the bile.
they are filtered by the kidneys into the urine.
they are stripped of their heme and converted into biliverdin.
they are disassembled into their component amino acids.
they are disassembled into their component amino acids.
122
Myeloid stem cells differentiate into lymphocytes.
t/f
False
123
Cirrhosis can be a result of chronic liver disease in which the tissue becomes fibrotic. How could this impact the blood
it can decrease the ability to fight infection.
it can cause a decrease in the ability to clot.
it can decrease the viscosity and osmottic pressure of blood.
all of these are true.
all of these are true.
124
Albumin contributes the most to blood colloid osmotic pressure.
t/f
true
125
Serum is plasma without albumin.
t/f
False
126
Why does blood pressure increase during exercise?
because of decreased sympathetic tone
because heart rate increases
because stroke volume increases
because heart rate increases
because stroke volume increases
127
The myogenic response to blood pressure is a type of _____ control.
central
neural
endocrine
local
local
128
Why does most filtration take place at the arterial end of a capillary?
fenestrations are larger in diameter.
blood colloid osmotic pressure is greater there.
capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher at the arterial end.
there are more solutes to be filtered there.
capillary hydrostatic pressure is higher at the arterial end.
129
The blood colloid osmotic pressure (BCOP) is created by _____.
RBC
PLT
WBC
Plasma proteins
plasma proteins
130
Which of the following regarding capillary exchange is true?
HP = NFP - BCOP
NFP = BCOP + BHP
BCOP = NFP - BHP
NFP = BHP - BCOP
NFP = BHP - BCOP
131
How is mean arterial pressure (MAP) determined?
it is the difference between systolic and diastolic pressure.
it is systolic pressure + pulse pressure.
it is diastolic pressure + (pulse pressure divided by 3).
it is diastolic pressure + (pulse pressure divided by 3).
132
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding blood flow?
blood flow is inversely proportional to blood viscosity.
blood flow is directly proportional to blood turbulence.
blood flow is inversely proportional to resistance.
blood flow is directly proportional to vessel width.
blood flow is directly proportional to blood turbulence.
133
Which of the following will have the greatest impact on blood flow?
blood turbulence
vessel diameter
vessel length
blood viscosity
vessel diameter
134
Which layer of the vessel wall causes vasomotion?
tunica media
tunica intima
tunica exerna
tunica media
135
The vessels known as "resistance vessels" that regulate flow into capillary beds are _____.
veins
arterioles
venules
arteries
arterioles
136
Cardiac conduction cell action potential
Resting potential
Depolarization ion
Automacity
No true resting potential
Ca+
Self-excitable
137
Cardiac contractile cell action potential
Resting potential
Depolarization ion
Automacity
Stable resting potential
Na+
Needs conduction impulse
138
