Lesson 7 (BONE DISEASES) FINALS Flashcards

1
Q

brittle bones

A

OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

_______ is a dense calcified tissue affected by a variety of diseases causing dynamic reactions

A

bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

characteristically follows _______ patterns of heredity; however, sometimes a specific disease will be inherited in one case and not in another

A

mendelian

(BONE AND BONE DISEASES)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

True or false

both maxilla and mandible do not suffer from generalized and
localized forms of skeletal diseases

A

FALSE

(both maxilla and mandible SUFFER from generalized and
localized forms of skeletal diseases)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

the anatomic arrangement of the teeth embedded ______ in
the bone often produces a modified response to the primary injury

A

partially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

fragilitas ossium

A

OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

osteopsathyrosis

A

OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Lobstein’s disease

A

OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

closely related to dentinogenesis imperfecta

A

OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

arise or recognize later in childhood; also called osteopsathyrosis

A

Lobstein’s Type or tarda

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What disease ?

Lobstein’s Type or tarda

A

OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What disease?

Vrolik’s Type or congenita

A

OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

True or false

many infants affected with osteogenesis imperfecta are stillborn or die shortly after birth

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

extreme fragility and porosity of the bones with an
attendant proneness to fracture

A

OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

the fracture heals readily but new bone is of imperfect
quality

A

OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

→ hyperplastic callus formation

A

OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

pale blue sclerae

A

OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

o may be exuberant and mimics osteosarcoma

o in some cases true sarcoma arises

A

hyperplastic callus formation

(OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

o abnormally thin sclerae causing pigmented choroid to show and produce its bluish color

A

pale blue sclerae

(OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

not confined to this diseases; also seen in:
- osteopetrosis
- fetal rickets
- Marfan syndrome
- Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

(M,E,F,O)

A

OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

white sclerae

A

OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

found in older patients with more severe disease and earlier onset of fractures

A

white sclerae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

additional signs and symptoms:

o laxity of the ligaments
o peculiar shape of the skull
o abnormal electrical reaction of the muscles
o capillary bleeding with no specific blood dyscrasia or
defect

A

OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

→ thin cortices

o composed of immature spongy bone

o trabeculae of the cancellous bone are delicate and show
microfractures

A

OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

failure of fetal collagen to be transformed to mature collagen in the organic matrix

A

OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

→ calcification proceeds normally
→ defective intermolecular cross-linkage of adjacent collagen
molecules

A

OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Caffey’s disease, Caffey-Silverman Syndrome

A

INFANTILE CORTICAL HYPEROSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

described by Caffey, Silverman, Smith and their coworkers

A

INFANTILE CORTICAL HYPEROSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

unusual cortical thickening in bones of infants without presence of cortical thickening diseases such as scurvy, rickets

A

INFANTILE CORTICAL HYPEROSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

ETIOLOGY

→ generally, unknown but a few theories have been suggested:

**embryonal osteodysgenesis consequent to a local defect in
the blood supply to the area

A

INFANTILE CORTICAL HYPEROSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

ETIOLOGY

inherited defect of arterioles supplying the affected part
results in hypoxia, producing focal necrosis of overlying soft
tissues and periosteal proliferation

A

INFANTILE CORTICAL HYPEROSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

ETIOLOGY

allergic phenomenon where edema and inflammation
produces periosteal elevation and subsequent deposition of
calcium

A

INFANTILE CORTICAL HYPEROSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

CLINICAL FEATURES
→ development of tender, deeply placed soft-tissue swellings and cortical thickening or hyperostosis involving various bones of the skeleton

A

INFANTILE CORTICAL HYPEROSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

→ arises either:

o during first three months of life

o may not appear before the second year

o in the fetus in utero

o within first few hours after birth

A

INFANTILE CORTICAL HYPEROSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

familial type appears to have an earlier onset than the sporadic type

A

INFANTILE CORTICAL HYPEROSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

→ mandible and the clavicles are most frequently affected

→ other bones affected include the calvarium, scapula, ribs,
tubular bones of the extremities, including the metatarsals

A

INFANTILE CORTICAL HYPEROSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

→ soft-tissue swellings:
o associated with deep muscles
o occur in locations where hyperostoses arise
o described in the scalp, face, neck, thorax, and extremities

A

INFANTILE CORTICAL HYPEROSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

→ other signs & symptoms: (not inevitably present)
o fever
o hyperirritability
o pseudoparalysis
o dysphagia
o pleurisy
o anemia
o leukocytosis
o monocytosis
o elevated sedimentation rate
o increased serum alkaline phosphatase

A

INFANTILE CORTICAL HYPEROSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

RADIOGRAPHIC FEATURES
→ involvement may be unilateral or bilateral
→ gross thickening and sclerosis of the cortex due to an actively
proliferating periosteum

A

INFANTILE CORTICAL HYPEROSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

course of disease not altered by sulfonamides or penicillin

A

INFANTILE CORTICAL HYPEROSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Marie and Sainton’s Disease

A

CLEIDOCRANIAL DYSPLASIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Scheuthauer-Marie-Sainton Syndrome,

A

CLEIDOCRANIAL DYSPLASIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Mutational Dysostosis

A

CLEIDOCRANIAL DYSPLASIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

often but not always hereditary; when inherited, appears as a
dominant mendelian characteristic

A

CLEIDOCRANIAL DYSPLASIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

may be transmitted by either sex

A

CLEIDOCRANIAL DYSPLASIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

→ in sporadic cases, represent either:

o a recessively inherited disease
o incomplete penetrance in a genetic trait with variable gene
expression
o true new dominant mutation

A

CLEIDOCRANIAL DYSPLASIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

affects men and women with equal frequency

A

CLEIDOCRANIAL DYSPLASIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

abnormalities of the skull, teeth, jaws, and shoulder girdles

A

CLEIDOCRANIAL DYSPLASIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

in the skull:

o fontanels remain open or exhibit delayed closing and are thus, large

o suture may remain open and wormian bones are common

o sagittal suture is characteristically sunken, giving the skull a
flat appearance

A

CLEIDOCRANIAL DYSPLASIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

head is brachycephalic, or wide and short, with the
transverse diameter of the skull being increased

A

CLEIDOCRANIAL DYSPLASIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

→ in the shoulder girdle:

o ranges from:
- complete absence of clavicles
- partial absence or simple thinning of one or both clavicles

o patients have unusual mobility of shoulders and may bring shoulders forward until midline

A

CLEIDOCRANIAL DYSPLASIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

anomalous muscles may be secondary to bony involvement

A

CLEIDOCRANIAL DYSPLASIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

TREATMENT AND PROGNOSIS

→ no specific treatment but care for the oral conditions is important

→ retained deciduous teeth must be restored if carious since their extraction does not necessarily induce eruption of the permanent teeth

A

CLEIDOCRANIAL DYSPLASIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

utilization of the pedodentists, orthodontist, and oral surgeon can build potential for eruption of the permanent teeth using correct timing of surgical procedures for uncovering teeth and orthodontic repositioning for excellent functional results

A

CLEIDOCRANIAL DYSPLASIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Crouzon disease or syndrome

A

CRANIOFACIAL DYSOSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

occurs without syndactyly

A

CRANIOFACIAL DYSOSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

→ genetic disease with a variety of cranial deformities, facial
malformations, eye changes, and others
→ follows a hereditary pattern through an autosomal dominant
trait
→ some cases have shown no hereditary or familial history

A

CRANIOFACIAL DYSOSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

ETIOLOGY
→ thought to result from a retardation or failure of differentiation of maxillary mesoderm at and after the 50 mm stage of the embryo

A

CRANIOFACIAL DYSOSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

→ all variations in appearance is due to early synostosis of the sutures

→ protuberant frontal region with an anteroposterior ridge overhanging the frontal eminence and often passing to the root of the nose (triangular frontal defect)

→ facial malformations consist of hypoplasia of the maxillae with mandibular prognathism and a high arched palate (cleft in some cases)

A

CRANIOFACIAL DYSOSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

→ facial angle is exaggerated
→ nose resembles a parrot’s beak

A

CRANIOFACIAL DYSOSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

→ eye changes include:

o hypertelorism
o exophthalmos with divergent strabismus and optic neuritis
o choked disks resulting frequently in blindness

A

CRANIOFACIAL DYSOSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

→ may present spina bifida occulta
→ mentality of patient may or may not be retarded
→ not all features are inevitably present
→ prognathic mandible may not be found

A

CRANIOFACIAL DYSOSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

craniectomy at an early age to provide space for the rapidly growing brain

A

CRANIOFACIAL DYSOSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Treacher Collins syndrome

A

MANDIBULOFACIAL DYSOSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Franceschetti syndrome

A

MANDIBULOFACIAL DYSOSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

→ encompasses a group of related defects of the head and face
→ hereditary or familial in pattern, following an irregular form of
dominant transmission

A

MANDIBULOFACIAL DYSOSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

→ antimongoloid palpebral fissures with a coloboma of the outer portion of the lower lids and deficiency of the eyelashes (and sometimes the upper lids)
→ hypoplasia of the facial bones, especially of the malar bones and mandible

A

MANDIBULOFACIAL DYSOSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

→ malformation of the external ear and occasionally the middle and internal ears
→ macrostomia, high palate (sometimes cleft) and abnormal position and malocclusion of the teeth
→ blind fistulas between the angles of the ears and the angles of the mouth

A

MANDIBULOFACIAL DYSOSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

→ atypical hair growth in the form a tongue-shaped process of the hairline extending towards the cheeks
→ other anomalies such as facial clefts and skeletal deformities
→ characteristic facies are described as “birdlike or fishlike” in
nature
→ teeth of upper jaw are unaffected

A

MANDIBULOFACIAL DYSOSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

→ malar bones are grossly and symmetrically underdeveloped → may be agenesis of the malar bones
→ nonfusion of the zygomatic arches
→ absence of palatine bones

A

MANDIBULOFACIAL DYSOSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

→ cleft palate may be visible
→ hypogenesis and sometimes agenesis of the mandible
→ underdeveloped paranasal sinuses
→ infantile and sclerotic mastoids
→ absent auditory ossicles and deficient cochlea and vestibular
apparatus
→ normal cranial vault

A

MANDIBULOFACIAL DYSOSTOSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Robin Anomalad

A

PIERRE ROBIN SYNDROME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

the isolated defect is considered a sporadic or non-genetic
condition with a very low recurrence risk in the family

A

PIERRE ROBIN SYNDROME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

→ if associated with other genetic syndromes, may carry a very high recurrence risk
→ commonly associated conditions:
o Stickler syndrome
o cerebrocostomandibular syndrome
o camptomelic syndrome
o persistent left superior vena cava syndrome

A

PIERRE ROBIN SYNDROME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

consists of:
o cleft palate
o micrognathia
o glossoptosis

A

PIERRE ROBIN SYNDROME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

→ the primary defect:
o arrested development

o ensuing hypoplasia of the mandible, producing
characteristic “bird facies” and preventing normal descent of the tongue between the palatal shelves, resulting in cleft palate

o cleft lip does not occur in association with the cleft palate

A

PIERRE ROBIN SYNDROME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

→ respiratory difficulty

o most important result of jaw malformation

o it is suggested that failure of support of tongue musculature
occurs because of micrognathia, allowing tongue to fall
down and backward, partially obstructing the epiglottis

A

PIERRE ROBIN SYNDROME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

→ other systemic defects:

o congenital heart defects
o skeletal anomalies
o ocular lesions
o mental retardation

A

PIERRE ROBIN SYNDROME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Marfan-Achard syndrome

A

MARFAN SYNDROME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Arachnodactyly

A

MARFAN SYNDROME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

→ hereditary disease through an autosomal dominant trait
→ disease of connective tissue related to defective organization of
collagen

A

MARFAN SYNDROME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

o collagen is abnormally soluble

o reduced amounts of chemically stable forms of
intermolecular cross-links

o attenuation of non-enzymatic steps in maturation of
collagen

A

MARFAN SYNDROME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

→ excessive length of the tubular bones resulting in dolichostenomelia or disproportionately long thin extremities and arachnodactyly or spidery fingers

→ shape of skull and face is long and narrow

A

CLINICAL FEATURES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

other features:
o hyperextensibility of joints with habitual dislocations
o kyphosis or scoliosis
o flatfoot

A

MARFAN SYNDROME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

o bilateral ectopia lentis
o myopia
o aortic aneurysm
o aortic regurgitation

A

MARFAN SYNDROME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

vascular defects

o enlargement of the heart

A

MARFAN SYNDROME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Trisomy 21 syndrome, Mongolism

A

DOWN SYNDROME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

associated with subnormal mentality

A

DOWN SYNDROME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

causative factors:

o advanced maternal age

o uterine and placental abnormalities

o chromosomal aberration

A

DOWN SYNDROME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

3 forms of DOWN SYNDROME

A

Typical type

Translocation Type

Chromosomal Mosaicism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

47 chromosomes

A. Typical type

B. Translocation Type

C. Chromosomal Mosaicism

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

46 chromosomes

A. Typical type

B. Translocation Type

C. Chromosomal Mosaicism

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

→ more commonly born to mothers under 30
years of age
→ incidence of mongolism in subsequent
siblings may greatly increase in such
instances
→ rare in mothers over 40 years of age

A. Typical type

B. Translocation Type

C. Chromosomal Mosaicism

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

affected individuals have an increased incidence of acute leukemia, especially children

A

DOWN SYNDROME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

CLINICAL FEATURES:

flat face
large anterior fontanel
open sutures
small, slanting eyes with epicanthal folds

A

DOWN SYNDROME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

→ open mouth
→ frequent prognathism
→ sexual underdevelopment
→ cardiac abnormalities
→ hypermobility of the joints

A

DOWN SYNDROME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Marble Bone disease

A

OSTEOPETROSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

ALbers-Schonberg disease

A

OSTEOPETROSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Osteosclerosis Fragilis Generalisata

A

OSTEOPETROSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

subdivided into:

o benign dominantly inherited form

o malignant recessively inherited form

A

OSTEOPETROSIS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

more severe form of the disease

A. MALIGNANT RECESSIVE OSTEOPETROSIS
B. BENIGN DOMINANT OSTEOPETROSIS

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Present at birth and early life

A. MALIGNANT RECESSIVE OSTEOPETROSIS
B. BENIGN DOMINANT OSTEOPETROSIS

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

→ the earlier the disease appears, the more serious it is
→ affected infants are usually stillborn or die after birth

A. MALIGNANT RECESSIVE OSTEOPETROSIS
B. BENIGN DOMINANT OSTEOPETROSIS

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

→ common clinical manifestations:

o optic atrophy (most common)
o hepatosplenomegaly
o poor growth
o frontal bossing
o pathologic fractures o loss of hearing
o facial palsy
o genu valgum

A. MALIGNANT RECESSIVE OSTEOPETROSIS
B. BENIGN DOMINANT OSTEOPETROSIS

A

A

105
Q

→ death is a result of anemia or secondary infection
→ no known patient survives beyond 20 years

A. MALIGNANT RECESSIVE OSTEOPETROSIS
B. BENIGN DOMINANT OSTEOPETROSIS

A

A

106
Q

→ less severe type of disease
→ develops later in life
→ patients can survive into old age
→ half of patients are totally asymptomatic

A. MALIGNANT RECESSIVE OSTEOPETROSIS
B. BENIGN DOMINANT OSTEOPETROSIS

A

B

107
Q

→ common clinical manifestations:

o pathologic fractures, often multiple (most common)
o bone pain
o cranial nerve palsy including optic and facial
o osteomyelitis

A. MALIGNANT RECESSIVE OSTEOPETROSIS
B. BENIGN DOMINANT OSTEOPETROSIS

A

B

108
Q

RADIOGRAPHIC FEATURES

→ diffuse, homogeneous, symmetrically sclerotic appearance of all bones
→ clubbing and transverse striations of the ends of the long bones
→ medullary cavities are replaced by bone
→ thickened cortex
→ on occasions, jaw may be spared; however, when affected,
roots of teeth are nearly invisible

A

OSTEOPETROSIS

109
Q

→ endosteal production of bone
→ concomitant lack of physiologic bone resorption
→ prominent osteoblasts but seldom osteoclasts

A

OSTEOPETROSIS

110
Q

→ persistence of cartilaginous cores of bony trabeculae long after
their replacement should have occurred in endochondral bones → disorderly arrangement of trabeculae
→ fibrous marrow tissue
→ in benign osteopetrosis, patients do not have a deficiency in
osteoclastic activity but rather an abnormality in the type and structure of bone

A

OSTEOPETROSIS

111
Q

→ no effective treatment
→ depletion of vitamin D or administration of vitamin A has failed
to modify the course of the disease

A

OSTEOPETROSIS

112
Q

Chondrodystrophia Fetalis

A

ACHONDROPLASIA

113
Q

→ disturbance of endochondral bone formation, resulting in a
characteristic form of dwarfism

A

ACHONDROPLASIA

114
Q

→ hereditary condition through autosomal dominant trait
→ begins in utero and may be diagnosed before parturition
→ high mortality rate
→ affected infants are usually stillborn or die after birth

A

ACHONDROPLASIA

115
Q

→ short height and stature of patient
→ short and thickened muscular extremities
→ brachycephalic skull
→ bowed legs
→ small hands and stubby fingers

A

ACHONDROPLASIA

116
Q

→ lumbar lordosis with prominent buttocks
→ protruding abdomen
→ limitation of motion in numerous joints

o arms do not hang freely at the side
o elbows often cannot be straightened

→ normal intelligence
→ unusual strength and agility

A

ACHONDROPLASIA

117
Q

→ long bones are shorter than normal
→ thickening or mild clubbing of ends of bones
→ epiphyses appear normal but may close either early or late
→ bones at the base of the skull fuse prematurely, producing
shortening as well as a narrow foramen magnum

A

ACHONDROPLASIA

118
Q

→ disturbances in the epiphyseal cartilage of long bones and ribs as well as in certain membrane bones of the base of the skull
→ retardation or aplasia of the zone of provisional calcification of endochondral growth

A

ACHONDROPLASIA

119
Q

→ lack of orderly arrangement of cartilage columns, failure to calcify properly which are not resorbed and replaced by bone in the usual fashion
→ defective chondrocyte development causing disruption of longitudinal growth of bone and stunting of the bone

A

ACHONDROPLASIA

120
Q

→ no treatment
→ if patient survives past first few years of life, it is expected that
he will have a normal life expectancy

A

ACHONDROPLASIA

121
Q

→ Paget’s disease of bone
→ chronic disease that develops slowly

A

OSTEITIS DEFORMANS

122
Q

→ generally unknown but numerous theories have been suggested:

o inflammatory causes

o circulatory disturbance

o breakdown in normal mechanism of creeping replacement
to which bone is constantly subjected

o infection by a “slow” virus

A

OSTEITIS DEFORMANS

123
Q

One of the best known “slow” viral human diseases is ______

A

subacute sclerosing panencephalitis

124
Q

CLINICAL FEATURES:

→ predominantly in patients over 40 years of age
→ both sexes are affected with a slight predilection for men

A

OSTEITIS DEFORMANS

125
Q

→ common symptoms:

o bone pain

o severe headache

o deafness (due to involvement of the petrous portion of the
temporal bone of the cochlear nerve in its foramen)

o blindness or other visual disturbances
o facial paralysis (due to pressure on the facial nerve)

o dizziness

o weakness

o mental disturbance

A

OSTEITIS DEFORMANS

126
Q

→ common features:
o progressive enlargement of the skull

o deformities of the spine, femur, and tibia, making the
patient shorter

o bowing of the legs

o broadening and flattening of the chest and spinal curvature

o pathologic fractures

A

OSTEITIS DEFORMANS

127
Q

→ patient assumes a “simian” appearance and facial pattern may become grotesque

A

OSTEITIS DEFORMANS

128
Q

→ bones:
o become warm to the touch due to increased vascularity

o increased fragility with tendency for fracture

o fracture healing is normal but callus may be abundant

A

OSTEITIS DEFORMANS

129
Q

→ depend upon the stage of the disease:

o initial phase of deossification and softening

o followed by bizarre, dysplastic type of reossification not
related to functional requirements

o the two processes taking place simultaneously or alternately

A

OSTEITIS DEFORMANS

130
Q

→ osteolytic areas of the skeleton are commonly associated with areas of osteoblastic activity

→ destructive lesions may be multiple and diffuse or isolated

o isolated lesions in the skull, when large, is sometimes
referred to as “osteoporosis circumscripta”

A

OSTEITIS DEFORMANS

131
Q

→ osteoblastic ares appear as opacities and are patchy in
distribution, eventually becoming confluent, but still showing minute areas of radiodensity

o this patchiness has been termed as “cotton-wool
appearance”

→ hypercementosis in the teeth and loss of a well-defined lamina
dura
→ root resorption can also occur but is unusual

A

OSTEITIS DEFORMANS

132
Q

→ depends upon the stage of the disease

→ osteoclastic and osteoblastic activity

→ formation of “mosaic” bone, which appears as partially
resorbed and then repaired bone leaving deeply staining hematoxyphilic reversal lines

o these lines indicate the alternation between the resorptive

and formative phases
o these lines eventuate in a “jigsaw-puzzle” appearance of
the bone

A

OSTEITIS DEFORMANS

133
Q

→ fibrous marrow, inflammatory edema and focal collections of
lymphocytes

→ the more rapidly bone is laid down, the more immature it is and
the greater amounts of osteoid one may find

→ bone changes from a fibrillar type to mature lamellar as bone
formation lags and resting phase is reached

→ obliteration of the PDL

A

OSTEITIS DEFORMANS

134
Q

→ no specific treatment
→ use of calcitonin and diphosphonates has been utilized to
suppress bone resorption

A

OSTEITIS DEFORMANS

135
Q

TREATMENT AND PROGNOSIS

→ use of mithramycin has been done but has serious side effects

A

OSTEITIS DEFORMANS

136
Q

Van Buchem disease or syndrome

A

GENERALIZED CORTICAL HYPEROSTOSIS

137
Q

Endosteal Hyperostosis

A

GENERALIZED CORTICAL HYPEROSTOSIS

138
Q

→ excessive deposition of endosteal bone throughout the skeleton
→ hereditary condition through autosomal recessive characteristic

A

GENERALIZED CORTICAL HYPEROSTOSIS

139
Q

→ usually not discovered until adult life
→ facial appearance may be altered

→ face may appear swollen, particularly with widening at the angles of the mandible and bridge of the nose
→ loss of visual acuity
→ loss of facial sensation
→ some degree of facial paralysis
→ deafness
→ overgrowth of the alveolar process

A

GENERALIZED CORTICAL HYPEROSTOSIS

140
Q

RADIOGRAPHIC FEATURES
→ increased density of many bones of the body, though hands and feet may be unaffected
→ skull exhibits diffuse sclerosis as may the jaws

A

GENERALIZED CORTICAL HYPEROSTOSIS

141
Q

normal dene bone without evidence of remodeling

A

GENERALIZED CORTICAL HYPEROSTOSIS

142
Q

Vanishing Bone, Disappearing Bone, Phantom Bone

A

MASSIVE OSTEOLYSIS

143
Q

Progressive Osteolysis, Gorham Syndrome

A

MASSIVE OSTEOLYSIS

144
Q

→ spontaneous, progressive resorption of bone with ultimate total disappearance of the bone

→ unknown etiology but may be related to active hyperemia of bone

→ different from: osteolysis associated with an infection and osteolysis associated with disease of the CNS

A

MASSIVE OSTEOLYSIS

145
Q

CLINICAL FEATURES
→ most common in older children and young and middle-aged adults
→ affects both sexes equally
→ only one bone is usually affected; polyostotic cases can occur in
others
→ most commonly affected bones include: clavicle, scapula,
humerus, ribs, ilium, ischium, and sacrum
→ may or may not be painful
→ begins suddenly and advances rapidly until bone is replaced by
a thin layer of fibrous tissue surrounding a cavity

A

MASSIVE OSTEOLYSIS

146
Q

HISTOLOGIC FEATURES

replacement of bone by connective tissue containing many thin-walled blood vessels or anastomosing vascular spaces lined by endothelial cells

A

MASSIVE OSTEOLYSIS

147
Q

TREATMENT AND PROGNOSIS
→ no specific treatment
→ radiation therapy and surgical resection
→ if left untreated, can progress to total destruction of involved
bone

A

MASSIVE OSTEOLYSIS

148
Q

can be either:

Monostotic

Polyostotic

A

FIBROUS DYSPLASIA OF BONE

149
Q

→ only a single bone is involved
→ does not manifest extraskeletal lesions

A

Monostotic

150
Q

→ can either be:

o involving a variable number of bones,
although most of the skeleton is normal, accompanied by pigmented lesions of the skin or “cafe-au-lait” spots (Jaffe’s type)

o involving nearly all bones in the skeleton and accompanied by pigmented lesions of the skin and endocrine disturbances (Albright’s syndrome)

A

Polyostotic

151
Q

→ manifests early in life
→ evident deformity, bowing or thickening of long bones, often
unilateral in distribution
→ onset is insidious but recurrent bone pain is most common
→ bones of face and skull are frequently involved and asymmetry
may result
→ other bones involved include: clavicles, pelvic bones, scapulae,
long bones, metacarpals, and metatarsals

A. POLYOSTOTIC FIBROUS DYSPLASIA
B. MONOSTOTIC FIBROUS DYSPLASIA OF THE JAWS

A

A

152
Q

→ spontaneous fractures resulting in invalidism
→ skin lesions:
o irregularly pigmented melanotic spots
o described as “cafe-au-lait” spots because of light brown
color
→ female patients may exhibit precocious puberty, beginning at
2-3 years of age or younger
o vaginal bleeding is common
→ endocrine disturbances such as pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid
and ovary
→ intramuscular soft-tissue myxomas

A. POLYOSTOTIC FIBROUS DYSPLASIA
B. MONOSTOTIC FIBROUS DYSPLASIA OF THE JAWS

A

A

153
Q

RADIOGRAPHIC FEATURES
→ medullary portions of bone are rarefied and present irregular trabeculations, often a multilocular cystic appearance
→ thinned cortical bone and considerably expanded

A. POLYOSTOTIC FIBROUS DYSPLASIA
B. MONOSTOTIC FIBROUS DYSPLASIA OF THE JAWS

A

A

154
Q

→ lesions composed of fibrillar connective tissue within which are numerous trabeculae of coarse, woven fiber bone, irregular in shape but evenly spaced, showing no relation to functional patterns
→ large osteocytes

A. POLYOSTOTIC FIBROUS DYSPLASIA
B. MONOSTOTIC FIBROUS DYSPLASIA OF THE JAWS

A

A

155
Q

→ collagen fibers of trabeculae extending out into the fibrous
tissue
→ bone formation by stellate osteoblasts
→ wide osteoid seams of trabeculae

A. POLYOSTOTIC FIBROUS DYSPLASIA
B. MONOSTOTIC FIBROUS DYSPLASIA OF THE JAWS

A

A

156
Q

TREATMENT AND PROGNOSIS
→ surgical treatment for mild cases; impossible treatment for severe cases
→ x-ray radiation
→ prognosis depends upon degree of involvement of the skeleton

A. POLYOSTOTIC FIBROUS DYSPLASIA
B. MONOSTOTIC FIBROUS DYSPLASIA OF THE JAWS

A

A

157
Q

less serious but of greater concern to the dentist due to frequent jaw involvement

A. POLYOSTOTIC FIBROUS DYSPLASIA
B. MONOSTOTIC FIBROUS DYSPLASIA OF THE JAWS

A

B

158
Q

→ unknown but theories have been suggested:

o aberrant activity in the bone-forming mesenchymal tissue

o local infections or trauma that may eventuate the disease
under certain conditions

o reparative reaction of the bone to injury

A. POLYOSTOTIC FIBROUS DYSPLASIA
B. MONOSTOTIC FIBROUS DYSPLASIA OF THE JAWS

A

B

159
Q

→ equal predilection for males and females
→ more common in children and young adults than in older persons
→ painless swelling or bulging of the jaw
o first clinical sign of the disease
o usually involves labial or buccal plate
o sometimes causes a protuberant excrescence of the inferior
border when mandible is involved

A. POLYOSTOTIC FIBROUS DYSPLASIA
B. MONOSTOTIC FIBROUS DYSPLASIA OF THE JAWS

A

B

160
Q

→ malalignment, tipping or displacement of teeth
→ mucosa is intact over the lesion
→ in the maxilla:
o has a marked predilection for children

o impossible to eradicate without radical, mutilating surgery

o lesions are not well-circumscribed and extend locally to
involve the maxillary sinus, zygomatic process and floor of the orbit and even the base of the skull

o severe malocclusion and bulging of canine fossa or extreme prominence of zygomatic process, producing a marked facial deformity

→ sometimes referred to as craniofacial fibrous dysplasia

A. POLYOSTOTIC FIBROUS DYSPLASIA
B. MONOSTOTIC FIBROUS DYSPLASIA OF THE JAWS

A

B

161
Q

→ has (3) basic patterns:

o lesion is a small unilocular radiolucency or larger
multilocular radiolucency, both with a well-circumscribed
border and network of fine bony trabeculae

o similar to first except that increased trabeculation renders
lesion more opaque and mottled in appearance

o opaque lesion with many delicate trabeculae giving a “ground-glass” or “peau d’ orange” appearance; not
well-circumscribed but blends into adjacent bone

A. POLYOSTOTIC FIBROUS DYSPLASIA
B. MONOSTOTIC FIBROUS DYSPLASIA OF THE JAWS

A

B

162
Q

→ all three types may be found in either maxilla or mandible
→ cortical bone is thinned
→ roots of teeth may be separated or moved out of normal
position but only occasionally exhibit severe resorption

o bone may be so opaque that roots of teeth may be
indistinct or not visible

→ thickening of base of the skull

A. POLYOSTOTIC FIBROUS DYSPLASIA
B. MONOSTOTIC FIBROUS DYSPLASIA OF THE JAWS

A

B

163
Q

HISTOLOGIC FEATURES
→ fibrous lesion made up of proliferating fibroblasts in a compact stroma of interlacing collagen fibers

A. POLYOSTOTIC FIBROUS DYSPLASIA
B. MONOSTOTIC FIBROUS DYSPLASIA OF THE JAWS

A

B

164
Q

→ irregular trabeculae of bone
with no definite pattern of
arrangement

→ C-shaped trabeculae or Chinese character-shaped

A. POLYOSTOTIC FIBROUS DYSPLASIA
B. MONOSTOTIC FIBROUS DYSPLASIA OF THE JAWS

A

B

165
Q

TREATMENT AND PROGNOSIS
→ surgical removal of the lesion

o however, most lesion have
become too large by time of diagnosis and surgical excision will lead to facial deformity
or weakening of bone leading to pathologic fracture

o lesions of ground-glass appearance are not circumscribed
and would have to be block-resected

→ majority of cases are treated by conservative removal of
portion of the lesion contributing to facial deformity

A. POLYOSTOTIC FIBROUS DYSPLASIA
B. MONOSTOTIC FIBROUS DYSPLASIA OF THE JAWS

A

B

166
Q

Familial Fibrous Dysplasia of the Jaws,

A

CHERUBISM

167
Q

Disseminated Juvenile Fibrous Dysplasia

A

CHERUBISM

168
Q

Familial Multilocular Cystic Disease of the Jaws,

A

CHERUBISM

169
Q

Familial Fibrous Swelling of the Jaws,

Hereditary Fibrous Dysplasia of the Jaws

A

CHERUBISM

170
Q

CLINICAL FEATURES
→ manifests early in childhood, often at 3-4 years of age

→ progressive, painless, symmetric swelling of the jaws, mandible or maxilla, producing typical chubby face suggestive of a cherub

→ mostly involve only the mandible

A

CHERUBISM

171
Q

→ jaws are firm and hard to palpation and reactive regional lymphadenopathy may be present

→ enlarged palate

→ no associated systemic manifestations

→ may have pigmented skin lesions similar to those in polyostotic
fibrous dysplasia

→ deciduous dentition may be shed prematurely, beginning as
early as 3 years of age

→ defective permanent dentition with absence of numerous teeth
and displacement and lack of eruption of those present

→ intact oral mucosa of normal color

A

CHERUBISM

172
Q

RADIOGRAPHIC FEATURES
→ extensive bilateral destruction of bone of one or both jaws with expansion and severe thinning of the cortical plates
→ body of bone may present multilocular appearance
→ perforation of cortex may occur
→ ramus may be involved but condyle is usually spared
→ numerous unerupted and displaced teeth which appear to be
floating in cystlike spaces

A

CHERUBISM

173
Q

HISTOLOGIC FEATURES
→ great numbers of large multinucleated giant cells in a loose, delicate fibrillar connective tissue stroma containing large numbers of fibroblasts and many small blood vessels
→ inflammatory cells in lesions
→ epithelial remnants of developing teeth
→ perivascular, eosinophilic cuffing of the small capillaries

A

CHERUBISM

174
Q

TREATMENT AND PROGNOSIS

→ though progresses rapidly during early childhood, tends to become static and may regress as patient approaches puberty
→ surgical correction of jaws
→ radiation therapy is contraindicated

A

CHERUBISM

175
Q

True or false

GENERALIZED CORTICAL HYPEROSTOSIS

TREATMENT AND PROGNOSIS
→ no treatment
→ patients may lead a normal life

A

True

176
Q

True or false

MARFAN SYNDROME

TREATMENT AND PROGNOSIS
no specific treatment good prognosis

A

True

177
Q

True or false

OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

→ no known treatment

A

True

178
Q

Abnormality in the type 1 colllagen (bone ligament, dentin, and sclera)

A

OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

179
Q

Decrease bone mass

A

OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

180
Q

Abnormal electrical response of muscle

A

OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

181
Q

True or false

In OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA the skin is thin and translucent

A

True

182
Q

True or false

In OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA there is subcutaneous capillary bleeding

A

True

183
Q

True or false

In OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA there head is triangular-shaped and they are deaf

A

True

184
Q

teeth: bulbous crowns, with narrow, constricted roots and obliterated canals

A

OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

185
Q

True or false

In OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA the color of the teeth is blue-gray to yellowish-brown

A

True

186
Q

Treatment and Prognosis:
> no definite treatment (bisphonates)
> immobilization of fractures
> may improve after puberty

A

OSTEOGENESIS IMPERFECTA

187
Q

Clinical Features:
1. tender, deeply-placed soft tissue swellings
2. systemic manifestations
3. cortical thickening

A

Infantile Cortical Hyperostosis

188
Q

DOral Manifestations:
1. assymetric deformity of mandible
2. facial swelling

A

Infantile Cortical Hyperostosis

189
Q

There’s swelling but cannot find the cause

A

INFANTILE CORTICAL HYPEROSTOSIS

190
Q

Cortical thickening

A

INFANTILE CORTICAL HYPEROSTOSIS

191
Q

“ wormian bone”

A

CLEIDOCRANIAL DYSPLASIA

192
Q

Vertical midline furrow with frontal bossing

A

CLEIDOCRANIAL DYSPLASIA

193
Q

Depressed mid face
Prominent chin

A

CLEIDOCRANIAL DYSPLASIA

194
Q

Sutures close early

A

CRANIOFACIAL DYSOSTOSIS

195
Q

occurs without syndactyly

A

CRANIOFACIAL DYSOSTOSIS

196
Q

Spina bifida occulta

A

CRANIOFACIAL DYSOSTOSIS

197
Q

Triangular frontal defect
Steep forehead

A

CRANIOFACIAL DYSOSTOSIS

198
Q

Oral feauture:
Hypoplasia of maxilla
Mandibular pronathism
High arched palate

A

CRANIOFACIAL DYSOSTOSIS

199
Q

Coloboma of the outer portion of the lower eyelids

Dificiency of eyelashes

A

MANDIBULOFACIAL DYSOSTOSIS

200
Q

Malformation of middle and inner ear

Ear is underdeveloped, malformed, prominent

A

MANDIBULOFACIAL DYSOSTOSIS

201
Q

Parrot beak nose

Frog like features

A

CRANIOFACIAL DYSOSTOSIS

202
Q

Small chin

Bird like or fish like features

A

MANDIBULOFACIAL DYSOSTOSIS

203
Q

In PIERRE ROBIN SYNDROM, what defect is this?

micrognathia

A

Primary defect

204
Q

In PIERRE ROBIN SYNDROM, what defect is this?

Cleft palate

A

Secondary defect

205
Q

In PIERRE ROBIN SYNDROM, what defect is this?

Respiratory difficulty

A

Tertiary defect

206
Q

In PIERRE ROBIN SYNDROM, what defect is this?

Glossoptosis

A

Tertiary defect

207
Q

Spider like

A

MARFAN SYNDROME

208
Q

Defect on chromosome 15 codes for the connective tissue protein, fibrillin

A

MARFAN SYNDROME

209
Q

Musculoskeletal, cardiac and ocular problems predominate

A

MARFAN SYNDROME

210
Q

Funnel chest pr pigeon breast

A

MARFAN SYNDROME

211
Q

Kyphosis/ scoliosis

A

MARFAN SYNDROME

212
Q

True or false

Pale blue sclera can be seen in MARFAN SYNDROME and osteogenesis imperfecta

A

True

213
Q

Bifid uvula, High arched palate, odontogenic cyst, TMJ dysarthrosis, malocclusion are the oral manifestations in?

A

MARFAN SYNDROME

214
Q

High arched palatal vault and maloclussion of maxilla

A

MARFAN SYNDROME

215
Q

Txt:

No specific txt.

Management of the cardiovascular manifestations

A

MARFAN SYNDROME

216
Q

Cardiovascular compromise is the most common cause of patient death

A

MARFAN SYNDROME

217
Q

“Blushfields type”

A

DOWN SYNDROME

218
Q

Etiology:

Advanced maternal age

Uterine and placental abnormalities

A

DOWN SYNDROME

219
Q

Features:

Short stature with short hands and fingers and may have an acute leukemia

A

DOWN SYNDROME

220
Q

ORAL MANIFESTATIONS:

macroglossia ( pebbled tongue)

Open mouthed appearance

A

DOWN SYNDROME

221
Q

True or false

DOWN SYNDROME has an bifid ovula and the teeth has a short roots

A

True

222
Q

Failure of osteoclastic bone resorption leads to increased bone mass

A

OSTEOPETROSIS

223
Q

Thickened and uniformly sclerotic bones

Increased bone fragility

A

OSTEOPETROSIS

224
Q

hepatosplenomegaly

genu valgum

A. Benign dominant
B. Malignant recessive

A

B

OSTEOPETROSIS

225
Q

In OSTEOPETROSIS

Optic atrohy
Frontal bossing
Poor growth

A. Benign dominant
B. Malignant recessive

A

B.

226
Q

In OSTEOPETROSIS

Pathologic fractures
Loss of hearing
Facial palsy

A. Benign dominant
B. Malignant recessive

A

B

227
Q

In osteopetrosis

A. Benign dominant
B. Malignant recessive

Multiple pathologic fracture
Bone pain

A

A

228
Q

In osteopetrosis

A. Benign dominant
B. Malignant recessive

Cranial nerve palsy
Osteomyelitis

A

A

229
Q

Radiographic Features:
1. roots of teeth “invisible”
2. dense bone
3. obliterated sinuses
4. hypoplastic maxilla

A

OSTEOPETROSIS

230
Q

Treatment:

Calcitriol, Erythropoietin’ Corticosteroids,
Gamma interferon

A. Adult osteopetrosis
B. Infantile osteopetrosis

A

B

231
Q

requires no treatment by itself complications might require intervention.

A. Adult osteopetrosis
B. Infantile osteopetrosis

A

A

232
Q

short stature with thickened musculature

A

ACHONDROPLASIA

233
Q

brachycephalic skull

A

ACHONDROPLASIA

234
Q

lumbar lordosis

A

ACHONDROPLASIA

235
Q

Small hands and stubby fingers

limited joint movement

unusual physical strength and ability

normal intelligence

A

ACHONDROPLASIA

236
Q

Oral Features:
1. mandibular prognathism / maxillary retrusion

A

ACHONDROPLASIA

237
Q

Histologic Features:
1. aplasia of the zone of calcification of endochondral growth
2. disruption of the longitudinal growth of bone

A

ACHONDROPLASIA

238
Q

Dentures becoming tight overtime

Has hypercementosis

A

OSTEITIS DEFORMANS

239
Q

“Cotton-wool” appearance

Prone to osteosarcoma (bone cancer)

A

OSTEITIS DEFORMANS

240
Q

Affected bones (sacral and lumbar vertebrae, pelvis, tibia, femur) soften and bend

A

OSTEITIS DEFORMANS

241
Q

Oral Manifestations:
1. progressive enlargement of maxilla with widening and flattening of the palate
2. teeth: loose, migrating
3. open-mouth appearance

A

OSTEITIS DEFORMANS

242
Q

Late onset: 40 yrs old and beyond

A

OSTEITIS DEFORMAN

243
Q

Histologic Feature:
1. mosaic-bone appearance or jigsaw puzzle appearance of bone resorption and deposition

A

OSTEITIS DEFORMAN

244
Q

Features:
1. swelling at the angles of the mandible and bridge of nose
2. loss of vision and facial sensation
3. facial paralysis
4. deafness
5. overgrowth of alveolar process

A

GENERALIZED CORTICAL HYPEROSTOSIS

245
Q

• Features:
1. pathologic fractures after minor trauma
2. destruction of mandible
3. facial asymmetry
4. polyostotic: clavicle, ilium, ishium, humerus, ribs, sacrum

A

MASSIVE OSTEOLYSIS

246
Q

osteolytic process involving the whole of the femur

A

MASSIVE OSTEOLYSIS

247
Q

“Orange peel” appearance

A

FIBROUS DYSPLASIA OF BONE

248
Q

> Lesions affecting multiple bones (Polyostotic Fibrous
Dyplasia)

> Café-au-lait pigmentation

• Endocrine disturbances

A

McCune-Albright Syndrome)

249
Q

> Pathologic fractures with pain and deformity

> Teeth: disturbed eruption pattern; jaw expansion

> Histologic feature: Chinese script-writing appearance

A

McCune-Albright Syndrome)

250
Q
  • massive jaw expansion
A

Monostotic Fibrous Dysplasia

251
Q

Leontiasis ossea

A

Monostotic Fibrous Dysplasia

252
Q

Treatment of ______

> Surgery: mainly to alleviate functional disturbances
radiation therapy is contraindicated

A

Fibrous Dysplasia

253
Q

Treatment of ______ :

> Surgery: mainly to alleviate functional disturbances
radiation therapy is contraindicated

A

Fibrous Dysplasia

254
Q

Soap bubble appearance

A

CHERUBISM

255
Q

Eyes upturned to heaven

Angel appearance

A

CHERUBISM

256
Q

> Displacement of follicles of permanent teeth

> Permanent teeth may be missing or malformed

A

CHERUBISM

257
Q

> Ectopic eruption

A

CHERUBISM

258
Q

Tx: self-limiting ; conservative curettage of lesion with bone recontouring

A

CHERUBISM

259
Q
  • bilateral expansion of rami
A

Cherubism