LFUS 5 Flashcards

(30 cards)

0
Q

After what point is a rejected landing not permitted?

A

Selection of reverse thrust

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1
Q

In an RTO Emer evac, does the Delta P check apply?

A

No. TO not permitted with manual pressure therefore check is irrelevant

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3
Q

What are the immediate and secondary actions in the stall recovery?

A
  1. Reduce AoA “Nose-Down Pitch Apply”
  2. Bank Wings level
    Once out of the stall:
    Increase energy:
    • steadily increase thrust
    • retract SB
    • Flight path recover
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3
Q

What is the preferred power source for the emergency generator?

A

EDP

Provides twice as much power as RAT

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4
Q

In Emer Elec CONFIG, who must be PF?

A

CM1 as only PFD 1 availible

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5
Q

Where is the list of remaining systems on Emer elec config?

A

In QRH.

As a complex proc, a summary is in the QRH which is read once ECAM actions complete.

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6
Q

With Emer Elec Config, why is the gear always manually lowered?

A

If G HYD is used, could disrupt power to Emer Gen

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7
Q

In Emer Elec Config, what must be set to ON prior to the app?

A

LAND RECOVERY

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8
Q

In the SMOKE/FUMES/AVNCS SMOKE PAPER PROCEDURE what is signified by boxed items?

A

May be completed at any time once immediate actions complete

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9
Q

What will be displayed on ECAM if during the smoke checklist, Emer Elec Config is selected?

A

Generate the standard ECAM drill. As the crew deliberately made the selection, do not attempt to follow and restore generators

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10
Q

On the ECAM WHEEL SD page, how many green triangles are required to confirm the gear is down and locked?

A

At least 1 per wheel

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11
Q

If a flap/slat retraction problem occurs at takeoff, what is the most important crew action?

A

Pulling sel speed to avoid overstress

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12
Q

What will Dual NAV ADR or NAV IRS failures cause?

A
  • Loss of AP and A/THR

- Flight controls revert to ALTN LAW

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13
Q

Why does erroneous airspeed data does not affect the STALL warning

A

As it is based on AoA

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14
Q

If the PF calls for “LOSS OF BRAKING” what is the PNF action?

A

Select A/SKID & N/W STRG sw OFF

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15
Q

How can the crew activate the BUSS (back-up speed scale)?

A

Turn all three ADRs off

16
Q

What data is the BUSS speed based on?

A

AoA - also depends on flap/slat config

17
Q

When the BUSS is active, what is the alt indication based on?

18
Q

When using the BUSS, what control surface is not availible?

19
Q

With a dual RA failure, when does FLARE law become active?

A

When the gear is selected down with both APs disengaged. Will have to use man pitch trim

20
Q

What button must be used to establish on the ILS with a dual RA failure?

21
Q

What problem occurs with using AP in the latter stages of an ILS with a dual RA failure?

A

AP gains are no longer updated with the radio altitude signal

22
Q

In a dual eng flameout with fuel, when should the APU be started?

23
Q

For an overweight landing, what should the speed be at the FAF

A

VAPP (to reduce energy of a/c)

24
For an overweight landing, what is the speed for the final stages of the app?
VLS
25
For takeoff in high turb what is the flap retraction speed?
Target speed + 20 (ie F+20 for selection of flap 1) Limited to VFE-5
26
If severe turb is encountered in the cruise, what should be done with AP and A/THR?
AP on | Thrust levers set to turb N1 (QRH) and A/THR off
27
What is the problem with using the bird for dynamic manoeuvres?
It suffers from a delay
28
On the radar, how far should crew avoid all yellow, red, or magenta areas or green areas over 28,000ft?
20nm
29
What type of law is flare law?
Direct law - designed so pilot has to add a progressive pull to increase pitch gently in flare