Liz Flash Flashcards
(174 cards)
1
Q
OSHA, as governing body
A
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
2
Q
OSHA’s Hazard Communication Stnadard
A
Requires employers to identify all workplace hazards and communicate them to employees
3
Q
OSHA applies to which employers?
A
All employers, regardless of the number of employees
4
Q
Define PPE
A
Personal Protective Equipment
5
Q
What is the first OSHA form filled out when an employee has a recordable injury or illness?
A
OSHA Form 301: Injury and illness Incident Rerport
6
Q
What is OSHA Form 300
A
Log of work related injuries and Illnesses
7
Q
Which employers have to fill out an OSHA Form 300
A
Employers with 11 or more employees, at anytime during the year
8
Q
What is OSHA Form 300A
A
Summary of Work Related Injuries and Illnesses
9
Q
Which employers have to fill out an OSHA Form 300A
A
Any employer required to maintain OSHA From 300, therefore employers with 11 or more employees at any time during the year
10
Q
When does OSHA Form 300A have to be posted?
A
From Feb 1 of the following year, and remain posted until at least April 30
11
Q
How long must OSHA records related to injuries and illnesses be maintained?
A
For at least 5 years
12
Q
Define Sharps
A
Any device with physical characteristics that make it possible to puncture, lacerate, or penetrate the skin
13
Q
Another name for OSHA’s Hazard (Chemical) communication standard
A
“Right to know
14
Q
MSDS
A
Material Safety Data Sheets
15
Q
Which federal entity regulates general prescription drugs?
A
FDA, Food and Drug Administration
16
Q
Define Controlled Substances
A
Those drugs that are subject to abuse, the possession and use of which is regulated under the Controlled Substances Act
17
Q
The Controlled Substances Act is regulated by which federal agency?
A
DEA, Drug Enforcement Administration
18
Q
What symbol is used to designate a controlled substance on the package?
A
A large letter “C” with roman numeral centered inside, depicting the schedule of the drug
19
Q
What form is needed to purchase Schedule II controlled substances
A
DEA form 222
20
Q
For controlled substances, the inventory procedure and documentation must be repeated every ___ years
A
Two
21
Q
Which federal entity regulates biologicals including vaccines?
A
USDA- United States Department of Agriculture
22
Q
Which federal entity regulates topical pesticides
A
EPA- Environmental Protection Agency
23
Q
FUTA
A
Federal Unemployment TAx ACT
24
Q
ADA
A
American with Disability ACT
25
FICA
Federal Insurance Contribution ACT
26
FSLA
Fair Labor Standards ACT
27
COBRA
Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation ACT- 20+ employees
28
ERISA
Employee Retirement Income Security ACT
29
ADEA
Age Discrimination in Employment ACT
30
FMLA
Family Medical Leave ACT
31
OSHA
Occupational Safety and Health ACT
32
Title VII is a part of what act?
Civil Rights ACT of 1964
33
USERRA
Uniformed Service Employment and Reemplyment Rights ACT
34
HIPAA
Heath Insurance Portabiliity and Accountability ACT
35
EEOC
Employee Equal Opportunity Commission
36
The FLSA applies to employers who
engage in interstate commerce 2) produce goods for interstate commerce or 3) is an enterprise - a business entity with a distinct commercial purpose and annual gross sales of $500 k or more
37
FSLA definition of workweek
unit of time used for determining complance with minimum wage standards; defined as seven consecutive, regularly recurring, 24-hour periods totaling 168 hours
38
FSLA definition of overtime pay
all hours worked above 40 in a given workweek; overtime pay premium is 1.5 times the regular rate of pay
39
Who enforces the FLSA?
The Wage and Hour Division of the US Department of Labor
40
How long must records on wages, hours, and other pay related items be retained?
Three years
41
IRC
Internal Revenue Code
42
What is the 1099 form used for?
Report compensation paid to non employee workers
43
Civil rights issues enforced by the EEOC include
sexual harassment, pregnancy discrimination, disabled employees, and age discrimination, discrimination related to race, color, religion, sex, or national origin
44
The EEOC with regard to the Civil Rights ACt covers those employers who
Employs 15 or more employees, meaning anyone with whom the business has an "employment relationship" including part-time workers
45
quid pro quo sexual harassment
Occurs when submission to or rejection of unwelcome sexual conduct is used as the basis of employment decisions affecting the individual
46
environmental sexual harassment
included unwelcome sexual conduct that unreasonably interferes with the individual's job performance or creates an "intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment," even if it leads to no tangible or economic job consequence
47
The ADA law applies to employers who
employ 15 or more employees- workers who are on the payroll at leqast 20 weeks during the year
48
Under the ADA, disability means
a physical or mental impairment that substantially limits one or more of the major life functions of an individual
49
Under the ADA, a "qualified person with a disability" means
one who satisfies the requisite skill, experience, education, and other job-related requirements of the position such individual holds or desires, and who, with or without the assistance of a reasonable accommodation, can perform the essential functions of such position
50
Under the ADA, a reasonable accommodation means>>>
a modification or adjustment to a job or to the work environment that enables a qualified applicant or an employee with a disability to participate in the application process or to perform the job unless the accommodation would impose an undue hardship on the operation of the business
51
Under the ADA, undue hardship to the employer means >>>
significant difficulty, significant disruption of business, or significant expense
52
The ADEA applies to employers with
employs 20 or more employees
53
The ADEA prohibits discrimination against persons over ____ years of age, based on their age
40
54
The FMLA provides how much unpaid leave to eligible employees?
12 work weeks during any 12 month period
55
`The FMLA applies to employers who >>>
employ 50 or more employees for each working day during each 20 or more calendar weeks in the current or previous year; all employees are counted including part-time and temporary as long as they were on the payroll at the beginning and end of each relevant work week
56
Under the FMLA an employee is eligible when?
an employee must have been employed for at least 12 months, although the months needs not be consecutive; must have worked at least 1250 hours during the 12 month period immediately preceding the commencement of leave
57
Under the FMLA the definition of key employee>>
individuals in the top 10% of the highest-paid employees who are employed by the employer within a 75-mile radius of the employee's work site; restoration of such individuals to previously held or equivalent positions could result in substantial economic injury to employers business operations
58
OSHA applies to which employers?
all employers regardless of the number of employees
59
Definition of contract
Generally refers to an agreement between two or more parties
60
Definition of express contract
Contract established when willingness to provide the consideration requested is expressly indicated
61
Definition of implied contract
contract established when acceptance can be inferred from the actions of the parties even if no express acceptance is proved
62
IN what general situation does the Law of Agency apply in veterinary practice
When someone other than the owner brings in a pet for treatment or care
63
In what general situation does the Law of Unjust Enrichment apply in veterinary practice
When emergency care for animals is administered without express permission;owner would be required to pay for services because it would be wrong and against public policy for them to retain any benefit or value for care rendered
64
What is another term for Law Of Unjust Enrichment
Law of Quasi Contract
65
Three terms used interchangable for a clause in an employment contract that prohibits competition after leaving the practice
non compete clause, restrictive covenant,, covenent not to compete
66
Sherman Antitrust Act enters into the discussion of what employment contract clause, and why?
non-compete clause, because the Anittrust Act states that every contract that restrains trade is illegal
67
VCPR
Veterinary Client Patient Relationship
68
Attending veterinarian
a veterinarian (or group of veterinarians) who assumes responsibility for primary care of a patient, a VCPR is established
69
Consulting veterinarian
A veterinarian (or group) who agrees to advise an attending veterinarian on the care and management of a case, the VCPR remains the responsibility of the attending veterinarian
70
Referral veterinarian or receiving veterinarian
a veterinarian (or group) who agrees to provide requested veterinary services, a new VCPR is established
71
Fee Splitting
The dividing of a professional fee for veterinary services with the recommending veterinarian
72
Ethical product
A product for which the manufacturer has voluntarily limited the sale to veterinarians as a marketing decision
73
Over the counter (OYC) drug
Any drug that can be labeled with adequate direction to enable it to be used safely and properly by a consumer who is not a medical professional
74
Legend Drug
A synonymous term for a veterinary prescription drug; the name refers to the statement (legend) that is required on the label
75
Prescription drug
a drug that cannot be labeled with adequate direction to enable its safe and proper use by non professionals
76
Veterinary Prescription Drug
A drug that is restricted by federal law to use by on the order of a licensed veterinarian, the law requires that drugs be labeled with the statement "CautionDis, federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian."
77
Dispensing
The direct distribution of products by veterinarians to clients for use on their animals
78
Prescribing
The transmitting of an order authorizing a licensed pharmacist or equivalent to prepare and dispense specified pharmaceuticals to be used in or on animals in the dosage and in the manner directed by a veteirnareianfdl
79
Marketing, as defined in the AVMA Ethics
Promoting and encouraging animal owners to improve animal health and welfare by using veterinary care, services, and products
80
Merchandising, as defined in the AVMA Ethics
The buying and selling of products or services
81
Advertising, as defined in the AVMA Ethics
Communication that is designed to inform the public about the availability, nature, or price of products or services or to influence clients to use certain products or services
82
Testimonials, as defined in the AVMA Ethics
Also known as endorsements; statements are intended to influence attitudes regarding the purchase or use of products or services
83
Definition of advertising
announces and proclaims the value fo a service or business; any paid announcement, especially one that proclaims the qualities or advantages of a product or business so as to increase sales
84
Definition of marketing
Gives information that implies an offer to sell
85
Definition of indirect marketing
The image intentionally or unintentionally conveyed by the hospital
86
Definition of direct marketing
the more deliberate effort to introduce animal owners to specific services and recommendations
87
Definition of external marketing
introduces the practice to potential clients, people who have never used the hospitals services, and aims to convince them to use the practice's services
88
Definition of internal marketing
concentrates on existing clientele and aims to strengthen their bond with the practice and to increase their demand for veterinary services
89
The Four P's of Marketing
Product, Price, Place, Promotion
90
Define of Product
The veterinary services that are offered, accepted, and provided; services are identifiable activities that provide buyer satisfaction
91
Definition of veterinary Place
The hospital, clinic, mobile unit, or any other location where the veterinary service is provided
92
The goals of Promotion
Convince your target market of the benefits of the hospitals services, differentiate the practice from others and to build a positive practice image
93
Definition of segmentation
The identify a specific target group by specific characteristics such as age, income level, type of pet, or number of pets, and to know which characteristics are significant in predicting which services the target group might want or what prices they are willing to pay for those services
94
Definition of target marketing
To direct the promotional effort toward one or more identifiable segments
95
Definition of message
The information you want the target market to hear, see, or learn
96
Definition of reach
the audience addressed by the message (the target group or marketees)
97
Definition of frequency
The average number of times that the targeted audience is exposed to the message in a given period of time
98
Definition of media
the communication channels used to send the message to the potential clients or targeted audience
99
Definition of public relations
any activity initiated by the animal hospital that is designed to create a positive image while communicating with present and potential clients
100
Definition of personal selling
The effort made by every hospital staff member to use direct personal communications to inform and persuade a client, either in person or on the telephone
101
Definition of publicity
marketing through any unpaid communication conveyed through the media
102
SWOT analysis
S-Strenths W=weaknesses o= opportunites T-= threats
103
Define inventory
All goods owned and held for sale or use in the regular course of business
104
Define merchandise inventory
Teh inventory of porducts purchased for resale to clients
105
Define professional and medical supplies inventory
Inventory items used in the course of providing veterinary medical and surgical services
106
Define inventory control
the process whereby the need to maintain sufficient inventory to meet the hospitals needs is weighed against the cost of carrying inventory
107
Define unit cost
The amount paid to the vendor, including applicable sales taxes and shipping costs, divided by the quantity of the item ordered
108
Describe components of ordering cost
Labor-related expenses such as hourly wage paid and benefits to the employee performing the inventory and ordering process
109
Ordering cost can account for as much as ___% to ___% of the total unit cost
15-20
110
Define holding costs
The costs of owning and keeping inventory on the premises in anticipation of use
111
Holding costs can account for as much as ___ to ___ percent of the total unit cost
8%-15%
112
Together the holding and ordering costs comprise on average between ___ and __ % of the total unit cost
25%-40%
113
The Central Supply Concept is also known as ____
Ration-Based inventory
114
Define Stock out
The event of running out of a supply item before the next order arrives
115
Define operating level
The inventory amount that is expected to be used up between the point of order receipt to the time another order must be placed
116
Define lead time
The time between the order is placed and the shipment is received
117
Define lead-time quantity
The amount of inventory expected to be used up from the time the order is placed until the order is received
118
Define safety stock
An inventory cushion, in excess of lead-time quantity, to help prevent a stock out if the shipment is delayed or the item in placed on back order
119
Define inventory turnover
a computation that relates the volume of merchandise sold to the inventory amount, it determines if inventory items have the desired shelf life
120
Formula for Average Inventory for a specific period
Beginnning inventory+ ending inventory divided by 2
121
formula for inventory turns
Total purchases between inventory dates divided by Average Inventory
122
Formula for average shelf life in days
365 divided by inventory turns per year
123
The average turnover in veterinary hospitals is around ____ times per year
6
124
Define Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) formula
A mathematical calculation of optimal order quantities
125
EOQ formula
Quotient:2 X A X F divided by H x HC
126
EOQ components defined
A=annual demand in units
F=Fixed ordering costs incurred per order
H= holding costs expressed on an annual basis as a percentage of unit cost
UC= unit cost to purchase item from vendor or supplier
127
EOQ spelled out
2, times annual demand, times ordering cost, divided by, holding cost, times unit cost
128
Define FOB shipping point
Ownership or title passes to the veterinary practice when the merchandise is delivered to the shipper
129
Define FOB destination
Ownership pr title passes to the veterinary practice when merchandise is delivered to the buyer, the veterinary practice
130
In veterinary practices, a ____% markup prices the product very close to the break-even price
40%
131
Breakeven analysis formula
S=F + V + P
132
Breakeven analysis Formula Components defined
S=sales price
F=fixed costs
V=variable costs
P=profit
133
Describe fixed cost
the simple unit price of obtaining the item to be sold, plus holding costs and ordering costs
134
Describe variable costs
Consider costs such as doctor compensation
135
Most small animal practices aim to maintain a profit margin of at least a ___% return
12%
136
Define full absorption analysis
Requires that the variable component of a breakeven analysis include all the other costs of managing the practice
137
Define use tax
A compensation tax; it compensates the state when sales tax should nave been collected, but was not
138
Define SOMR
Source-Oriented Medical Records; the record is organized chronologically by office visit or period of hospitalization.
139
Define POMR
Problem-oriented Medical records; record is organized chronologically according to each identified health problem.
140
Define SOAP
Progress notes for Problem Orientated medical records, where S=subjective o=objective a= assessment p= plan
141
DIS
once per day
142
BID
twice per day
143
TID
three times a day
144
QID
four times a day
145
EOD
every other day
146
AU
ear, right and left - both
147
AD
Ear, right
148
AS
Ear, left
149
OU
eyes, both
150
OD
eyes, right
151
OS
eyes, left
152
Define internal controls
All measures, systems, and protocols used by a business to ensure against errors, waste, and fraud
153
Define accounting
The art of measuring, communicatng, and interpreting financial activity
154
Define bookkeeping
The process of recording business data in a prescribed manner
155
Levels of assurance; define compilation
Lowest level of assurance; CPA assesses and makes adjustments to bookkeeping data and supporting documentation provided by the hospital
156
Levels of assurance; define review
Middle level of assurance; CPA conducts a higher level of analytic review of various accounts and transactions
157
Levels of Assurance; define audit
Highest level of assurance; an independent review of the accounting records for fairness and reliability of the finANCIAL REPORTS
158
Define transaction
The occurrence of an event or condition that must be recorded
159
Define asset
All of the economic resources of the business that can be expressed in monetary terms, meaning anything the business owns
160
Define liabilities
Present obligations resulting from past transactions that require the practice to pay money, provide goods, or perform services in the future
161
Define owner's equity
the interest or claim of the practice owners in the practice assets; what the practice owes its owners
162
What is the accounting equation (formula)?
Assets= Liability + Owner's Equity
163
Define balance sheet
Summarizes the assets, liabilites, and owner's equity at a particular date
164
Define income statement
Reports values that have accumulated between two points in time; also known as the Profit and Loss Statement
165
Define Cash flow statement
Details inflows and outflows of cash between two points in time
166
Define cash basis accounting
Income is measured when cash is received and expenses are measured when cash is spent
167
Define accrual basis accounting
Income and expenses are measured when the transactions occur (regardless of teh physical flow of cash).
168
Define revenue
The price of goods sold and services rendered during a given period of time
169
Define imprest
The amount of cash available to make change for transactions during the coming hours of business activity
170
Define ProSal Formula
A form of compensation where employees are guaranteed specified base salaries but are paid a percentage of their gross income collected by their employers when this yields a higher take-home pay than they would earn from a flat salary.
171
Define pro forma statement
Projected income statements and balance sheets that aid in profit planning
172
Define zero-based budgeting
Starting with the assumed profit level required to make the practice grow at the desired rate in the upcoming year and then looking at the current and possible income potentials
173
Define horizontal level of income
Adding products or services, satellite facilities, etc
174
Define vertical level of income
Expanding existing services, increasing return rates, etc
