Quiz Questions

Question 1

Veterinary staff ratio, veterinary production, team member production and staff payroll % are 4 key factors involved in considering when to hire, what is the 5th

Answer 1

hospital work flow

Question 2

____ refers to the degree to whichthe test actually measures what it claims to measure

Answer 2

validity

Question 3

A pre-adverse action letter should be used when?

Answer 3

When considering not hiring a candiate due to details revealed in pre-emplyment background check

Question 4

When it comes to Individual Develp Palns what are the three main details that should be addressed

Answer 4

development, training, career management

Question 5

ONboard with EASE stands for Encouergaement, Align, Solve, and

Answer 5

End

Question 6

A doctor is using 2 exam rooms simultaneously for appointments, what type of scheduling is this considered

Answer 6

High Density

Question 7

Regarding the practice client schedule, what is the definition of an emergency

Answer 7

where no doctor is immediately available and one must be pulled from another client

Question 8

You practicew has dewcided that they want clients to bond with the entire practice, what are the risks associated with the Bonding Philosophy?

Answer 8

The clients may not like all the doctors, lack of continuity of patient care

Question 9

When empowering a team member it is important to define the task with clairty. Which part of the SMART system will do that

Answer 9

Specific

Question 10

When it comes to management of daily work assignments ___________ and ________ are the keys to a successful veterinary practice

Answer 10

Delegation and empowerment

Question 11

The benefits of cross-training include

Answer 11

Empployee knowledge of the practice as a WHOLE, and the roles of others in the practice grows
whe team memberes are ill or absent, client service and wait times do not have to decline
Places another level of employee accouotability into the system, helping to reduce the occurrence of fraud and theft.

Question 12

what are the federal retention laws for applicant documents suh as resumes and employment applications

Answer 12

One year from filling the position, unless you suspect the applicandt is over 40 years of age, then it is recommended to keep records 2 years

Question 13

List the four elements necessary to ho;d working interviews

Answer 13

must be on payroll
must be eligible to work in US
Must be paid at least min wage
Must be covered under workers compensation

Question 14

Fit is how a candidate will complement the culture, and POTENTIAL is the measure of growth the new hire would be expected to experience. Define IMPACT

Answer 14

is the measure of results the candidate has achieved in the past and is likeely to achieve in the future.

Question 15

as it relates to interviewing candidates, what are the benefits of the use of a rating scale

Answer 15

a rating scale can help when hiring becasue it is challenging to compare candidates equally and consistently, especially if there are multiple members of the management team interviewing candidates for the same position

Question 16

Information revealed in the background checks can be helpful iwth hiring decisions and should be conducted on all candidates who make itto the final hiring pool to choose from. true or false

Answer 16

false

Question 17

what are phase training lists and what are four benefits of using them

Answer 17

Phase training outlines th4 progressive steps in the training for a specific position within the practice.
Helps insure team member are trained properly
Aidss in titrating information/instruction to the employee to avoid overloading tehm early in the process
Provides a sresource for trarining preparation forthe trainer
provides reference and review matrial fdor the new employee and phase training can accommodate a new employee that already has somej esxperience

Question 18

what is a reasonable budget to spend on training annually

Answer 18

1-2% of annual revenue of practice

Question 19

new employees must have immewdiate knowledge of what 5 safety details

Answer 19

Location of first aid kit, eye wash stations and exits
Location of all PPE and instructions on proper use
Location of all mandatory posteres
Location of hospital safety manuel
Copies of all applicable OSHA standards

Question 20

List 3 most common reasons staff member leave practice

Answer 20

lack of positive, feedback lack of training opportunities, failure of management to include them in the larger strategic vision of the practice

Question 21

Name 4 elements of ten enhancing empoyee productivity

Answer 21

shared purpose, tools sto do jjob, sops performance strandards, engage and empower, reognize and reward, physical fitness, personal focus, team focus

Question 22

the __________and __________ of the practice help define the core competencies that shouold be expected of employees

Answer 22

mission and value

Question 23

why are core competencies important in staff development

Answer 23

Because they jcan be tiered to beginner, intermediate, and expert and because tehy can be considered in terms of rewared based compensation

Question 24

Name at least 4 elements that should be considered in virtual team meetig

Answer 24

put your training on a diet
gain attention from the start
establish relevance
present information with a twist
ask compelling questions
conduct realistic demonstrations
provoke discusssion
enploye interactive activities
end with a bangh
prepare prepart prepare

Question 25

in the 70/20/10 learning and develpment model, define the elements involved

Answer 25

70% learning within an orga should come from on the job training 20% from coaching and mentoring 10% actual coureses, lectures, and formal trainging

Question 26

an effective appointment schedule system should have what two goals

Answer 26

to eliminate client wait time, To max the efficiency of the doctors, the supportd staff and the facility by minimizing downtime between clients or patient procedures

Question 27

In dense scheduling in PMP book, list hte breakdow of the three 5 minn sevios for a 15 minute annual wellness appointment

Answer 27

first 5 min= technician check in period for patient history and vitals second 5= doctore is present to perform the PE answer questions, gather information and discuss preventative care the last 5= technician and/or doctor may collect lab samples, fill prescriptions or vaccinte

Question 28

what are three ways to try to avoid appt problems with clients

Answer 28

appt cards should be givwen to clients hwo make appt wihile at cliinic proper hospital protocols that prepare the team for unexpectefd appt challenges advance reminders within 24 hrs of the appt is considered sbest practice

Question 29

name 5 + detailsj to consider regarding appt scheduling criteria for making appt schedules

Answer 29

DR avail during particular teime relative effiiency of the DR tiem allotted to each appt number of patients presented by each client types of cases seen # of exam room hrs of hospital operation, incliding the hours for scheduled and nonscheduled activities favored client times for vet care vet technician appt

Question 30

an unusual number of established clents arriving early or late to appt may be a sign of what

Answer 30

ongoing appt scheduling and time management problems at hospital

Question 31

when it comes to staff scheduling ________ is one of the most desired employee benefits, therefore, it is an important component in staff morale, productivity ad retention

Answer 31

flexibility

Question 32

name and define the five potential employee schedling options

Answer 32

rotating schedule= staff and duties and shifts rotate hybrid schedule- mix of fixed and variable days skill based scheduling- base on known skill set of the employee and needs of practice. greater skill set employee develops, the more flexible their scheduling options split scheduling- when employee works for more than one business unit in single workday per diem- scheduled one day at a time as needed by practice. most common among reflief DVM

Question 33

Ultimately the _________ is responsible for the efficiency, function, aned flow of thepractice

Answer 33

Manager

Question 34

Whe it comes to anaging daily work assignments, what does SMART stand for and give definitions

Answer 34

Specific- define the task, wjhy is it important andwhat are the expected outcomes Measureable- how isthe task going to be measured in terms of progress or completiion Agreed- boht parties agree on the importance of the task and how the results with be achieved. what resources will be needed to achiever these results Realistic- the task being delegated and the goals being sought are realistic with the time constraintes that are in plajce Time Bound- how and when will the resultjs be expected Creaate check in point on the calendar. It prevents micro=management and keeps lilnes ofd communicaiton open.

Question 35

what are 5 responsbilities in the role of the facilitator in staff meeting

Answer 35

starting and ending on time controlling topics preventing negativity from overcoming team prioritizing topics tactfulluy prjeventing a tea member from dominating meeting

Question 36

It is vital that staff meetings stay on track, and ____________ can help facilitate this

Answer 36

agendas

Question 37

List five of sseven ways to engage employees during a staff meeting

Answer 37

using visual aids tasteful appropriate humor publicly praise work well done and celebrate successess do not allow meetings to turn into gripe sessions share important information, changes and progress towards goals so that people want to be at meetings and not miss out on the announcemnts Request team members to present topics learning games or ice breaker exercises

Question 38

what details should be included in meeting minutes

Answer 38

record decisions and assignments designated responsible parties record the deadline agreed upon during meeting who was present what topics if any will be revisited next meeting

Question 39

what is the best way to end a staff meeting

Answer 39

on a positive note

Question 40

list 6 elements that should be includedf in employee performance review

Answer 40

conversations about mission, vision and values of practice clarity about goals addressing team meber accomplishmnets adfdress concerns over policy and procedures address potential conflict with teamm members or managemetn address any lapses in judgement however these should happen on stop

Question 41

employee performance reviews shoud be developed from the ____________

Answer 41

job descripton

Question 42

what renders an employee performance review useless

Answer 42

lack of clear performance expectations in job description because without them team members cannot be held accountable

Question 43

what are 3 most common ypes of employee performance reviews

Answer 43

360 peeer review self review job satisfaction survery

Question 44

what are the four disciplines necessary for an effective employee review

Answer 44

hold all employees accountablew for their local performance outcomes teach all employees to identify, deploy and develop their strenghts align all performnace appraisals and review systems around identifying, deploying and developing employee strenths disgn anndbuild each role to create work calss performers in the role

Question 45

the most successful employee performance review programs typically combine what four elements

Answer 45

regular informal feedback from supervisors performance goals that are set by employee and supervisor action plans to address performance or disciplinary problems formal reviews that document the "big picture"

Question 46

list potential pitfalls regarding employee reviews

Answer 46

spending more time on performance review than performance planning. More time should be spent preventing perfornmance problems be careful comparing employees forgetting the review is about performance and not blame stopping reviews when pay is no longer tied to the review believing the manager is in a position to accurately assess team members Cancelling or postponing reviews measuring the trival surprising a team member during the review thinking all employees and all jobs should be assessed the same way

Question 47

a practice witout conflicts could indicate what type of practice dynamic, and what are potentialj negative side effects of those dynamics

Answer 47

staff members may be afraid to speak up. The practice culture is one where team members are trained to do what they are told. The team all thinks so much alike that there is little creative tension to promote innovation or change This type of environment can sap the teams enthusiasm and initiative. It can also encourage passive resistance because open conflict and difference of opinions isn't tolerated

Question 48

what is the 4 step method for successful intervention regarding conflict managment

Answer 48

1)confront the behavior- call 2 employees into your office (if 2 departments, call in the supervisors) explain that their behavior isn't acceptable and that you expect them to turn it around 2) TAlk it out- explain that they are professionals and you expect them to listen to one another and work out a solution. Parties take turns talking and listening without interrupting, which should begin to discover solutions 3)hold team members accountable for solutions- once they have heard each other out, tell them you have confidence in them to find a solution, and give them 1 or 2 days and meet again to hear their solution 4)follow up and feedback-f hold short weekly check ins where you ask each team member in front of the other how things are going. Gradually phase out the meetings as the conflict resolves, and compliment them when you see evidence of cooperation

Question 49

define at will employment

Answer 49

form of employment in which employee is serving the employer at the will of both parties. This allows the employer to terminate its employees with or without cause

Question 50

define ideal witness to a termination

Answer 50

same gender, and in a supervisory position , not a direct peer of employee being terminated

Question 51

what is suggested protocol for an employee who is performing poorly due to a short term personal life stressor

Answer 51

they should be advised that it is unsatisfactory and that if not for these problems, they would be terminated, but will be given the opportunity to improve once the short term problems are resolved. Re-evaluate at that time

Question 52

name 4 express exceptions to at-will employment

Answer 52

collective bargaining agreement specific contracts that indicate a specific length of employment dismissals based on race, sex, color, national origin, or religion prohibited by title VII of civil rights act dismissal because of pregnancy, prohibited by the pregnancy discrimination act Dismissal based on age if over 40, Age Discrimination in Employment ACt Dismissal because an employee refuses to work in a workplace they consider unsafe or because they have exercised their rights under the Occupational Safety and Health Act Dismissal due to bankruptcy, prohibited by the Bankruptcy Reform Act Dismissal because of service on a feral jury, prohibited by federal law

Question 53

staff meeting are a good way to create team bonding and introduce new policies or products but they rarely show a financial return on investment true or false

Answer 53

false- well done staff meetings raise practice bench marks thereby providing for total quality management, increased profits and improved compliance with staff recommendATIONS AND CLIENT ACCEPTANCE

Question 54

what are some ways to engage team members at staff meetings

Answer 54

publicly praise work well done and celebrate successes do not allow meetings to turn into gripe sessions Share important information, changes and progress towards goals so that people want to be at meeting and not miss out learning games or ice breaker exercises

Question 55

Training meetings should be 20-40 minutes long for attendees to remain engaged

Answer 55

false

Question 56

employee performance reviews should include

Answer 56

clarity about goals and direction addressing team member accomplishmnets adddress concerns over policy and procedures

Question 57

one potential employee perofrmance review ptfall is _____________________

Answer 57

measiuring the trivial

Question 58

which element is in the ABCDEF formula

Answer 58

decision confirmed and consequences

Question 59

avoidance of the other person, personal attacks, hurtful gossip. barbed humor and lack of cooperation are all potential symptoms of what dynamic within your practice

Answer 59

symptoms of conflict within the practice

Question 60

what are op 3 causes of conflict in the workplace environment

Answer 60

gossip, lack of training, lack of communication

Question 61

after meeting iwth two team members who are experiencing onflict and you have told them that you have confidence in them to find a solution, how much time do you give them before you meet again to hear their soltuion?

Answer 61

one or two days

Question 62

in what type of employment relatiosip can an employee only be discrplined or terminated for a sufficient reason (example misconduct, negligence or theft

Answer 62

just cause

Question 63

o not misrepresent the qualifications or character of a former employee if you have knowledge of that employees propensity for violence, or illegal behavior in order to avoid liability claims if _______________

Answer 63

negligent referral

Question 64

an employment contract athat details a specific length of emplymneet is an exception to At Vill employment. true or false

Answer 64

true

Question 65

Which plans are a blend of Fee For Service and HMO medical plans. they do not require a visit to a primary care provider prior to visiting a specialist, although they do have a network of preferred providers and it is more costly to go outside that network

Answer 65

Preferred provider organization plan or PPO

Question 66

The patient protection and Affordable Care Act requires employers with ____ or more employees to provide group medical insurance or receive a penalty .

Answer 66

50 full time employees

Question 67

Why are employee medical documents stored separately from their main personnel file?

Answer 67

While it is sometimes appropriate or necessary for a direct supervisor to see some personnel records, there is rarely a reason for them to see medical records and The ADA and FMLA require that medical recrods be stored separately.

Question 68

Employee Wage Garnishment Orders and Credit Reports are to be filed

Answer 68

IN the #2 employee file that contains garnsishments in addition to background check results.. documents that have no legal role in hiring, firing , promotion, demotion or other employee decisions.

Question 69

Which entity or entites require employers to keep detailed payroll and benefits data? Access should be limited and ideally stored separately (mult choice)

Answer 69

The IRS and Fair Labor standards

Question 70

Section ___ is part of the IRS code that allows employees to pay some health care premiums on a pre-tax basis, which reduces the employee's total taxable income

Answer 70

125

Question 71

Which of the following health care plans operate with a "use it or lose it" rule at the end of the year

Answer 71

FSA

Question 72

The Employee Retirement Income Secvurity ACT (ERISA) of 1974 is enforced by

Answer 72

Depart of Labor

Question 73

How much should a practice budget for continuing education annually

Answer 73

5%

Question 74

The ___ form should be stored separately from the employee's other files

Answer 74

I9

Question 75

HOw long should records of job related injuries be kept

Answer 75

5 years

Question 76

One way to begin to create an Operations and Procedures Manuel is to refer to the __________ of the practice

Answer 76

job descriptions

Question 77

What are the 12 Cs for team building

Answer 77

Clear Expectations Context Commitment Competence Charter Control Collaboration Communication Creative Innovation Consequences Coordination Cultural Change

Question 78

What six factors are generally considered by courts in applying The Economics Realities Test under FSLA

Answer 78

the degree of control exercised by the practice over the individual work performance The extent of the relative investments by the practice and the individual in equipment and supplies used The individuals opportunity for profit and loss through managerial skills The skill and initiative required by the work. Lower skill requirements weigh toward employee status The permanence of the relationship The extent to which the workers services are an integral part of the practice

Question 79

AAHA Compliance study showed vets overestimate client compliance by 25%+. AAHA came up with CRAFT formula for compliance. The formula demostrates vets control three of the four components of compliance. Define CRAFT formula for compliance

Answer 79

C= compliance standard fo care R=recommendation a=acceptance FT=follow through Vets control three of the four components of compliance- Vets set the compliance standard Vets make the recommendations Vets provide the follow - through The clients responsibility is the acceptance of the recommendation

Question 80

Which plan enables employees to make their medical insurance premium payment before taxes are deducted from their paycheck and can also mean substantial pretax savings for employers?

Answer 80

section 125

Question 81

Regarding evaluating medical insurance plans; name at least four ingredients that should be included when creating a checklist to aid evaluation

Answer 81

10Basic type plan- HMO-PPO-POS 2) details of coverage 3) size of providers and related services- facilities within network 4) Cost to employee-employer, dependents and co-pays 5) employee eligibility 6) Simplicity of Administration

Question 82

What common veterinary employee benefit does the IRS require to be reported as taxable, and what percent is the cut-off for not reporting it?

Answer 82

The employee pet health discount policy discounts services at greater than 20%. All discounts after 20% need to be reported as taxable

Question 83

Name at least five documents that should be in a personnel file

Answer 83

1)employment application, resume, interview notes, background checks 2) job description 3) offer of employment letter 4) performance evaluations, education training 5) disciplinary docs 6) emergency contact 6) tax withholding 7)) copy degrees- diploma 8) contracts- agreements, non competes 10) EAP- change wage, position, department 11) leave of absense- attendance records

Question 84

What one personnel file document should be stored away in a separate file of other similar documents

Answer 84

I-9

Question 85

Name at least four documents that might be found in an employee medical personnel file

Answer 85

Health-life insurance physician notes, return to work notice, limited duties, a notice of accommodations insurance or workers comp claims physical exam results FMLA documents

Question 86

What element of a job description can help you avoid hiring someone who is unable to perform essential duties of the position?

Answer 86

Listing what is considered an impediment to satisfactory performance such as afraid of agressive animals

Question 87

What specifics should be included in the accountability section of a job description?

Answer 87

Where does position reside in hierarchy Who do they report to Who evaluates their performance How much authority does this position have

Question 88

Job descriptions are required by federal law- Tor F

Answer 88

False

Question 89

How often should job description be evaluated for accuracy, and what changes to the practice might indicate an update is necessary?

Answer 89

Yearly- more often in case of staff reduction or growth

Question 90

What three purposes do hospital manuals serve?

Answer 90

A reference tool for standards of care and practice guidelines Training and instructional tool They define a standard to which employees can be held accountable

Question 91

Which are common subjects in Employee Manual

Answer 91

Practice mission, vision, values Laws of Importancve ADA EEOC FMLA sexual harrassment Define full time verses part time Employment policies- compensation - overtime- personnel records Benefits offered Non compete agreement Jury duty Training procedures

Question 92

Explain the difference between the Hospital operations and procedure manual and Employee Policies and Guidelines manual

Answer 92

Hospital operation is comprehensive text details every aspect of how want work done. Employee policies manual details clarity and purpose mission0values-details expectation, comp benefits

Question 93

Where is it recommended to keep the Hospital Safety Manual

Answer 93

A central location

Question 94

Which plans are a blend of Fee for Service and HMO medical plans? They do not require a visit to a primary care provider prior to visiting a specialist, although they do have a network of preferrred providers and it is more costly to go outside that network

Answer 94

Preferred provider organization plan

Question 95

Which addition to medical insurance is owned by the employer

Answer 95

Flexible Spending Account FSA

Question 96

the Patient Protection and Affordable Care ACT requires employers with ____ or more employees to provide group medical insurance or receive a penalty

Answer 96

50 full time employees

Question 97

What are employee medical documents stored separately for their main personnel file?

Answer 97

While it is sometimes appropriate or necessary for a direct supervisor to see some personnel records, there is rarely a reason for them to see medical records The ADA and FMLA require that medical records be stored separately

Question 98

Employee Wage Garnishment Orders and Credit Reports are to be filed

Answer 98

neither is acceptable - should be in file with other confidential records that have help for firing/hiring

Question 99

Which entity requires employers to keep detailed payroll and benefits data? Access should be limited and ideally stored separately

Answer 99

the internal revenue code Fair Labor Standards Act

Question 100

At the core of any safety plan or manual is the _____ laws

Answer 100

Right to know

Question 101

A section on Chemotherapy should be included in every veterinary Health Safety Manual regardless of whether that practice performs chemotherapy t or F

Answer 101

True

Question 102

One way to begin to create an operations and Procedure Manual is to refer to the ___________ of the practice

Answer 102

job descriptions

Question 103

In regards to idenitfying your practice drive times, there are two common calculations: Radius and drive times. Which calculation is best?

Answer 103

drive times in my opinion

Question 104

When leanding a controlled drug to another practitioner, what step is unnessary for schedule !!!-V that is necessary for schedule II drug

Answer 104

Use the DEA form. Copy 3 of form stays with the veterinarian who received the drug. Copy 1 stays with the registerd practitioner supplying the drug. Copy 2 is sent to the DEA

Question 105

Regarding vets for work at more than one location; they may administer, dispense, and prescribe controlled drugs providing they have a current DEA registration at the central place of business

Answer 105

False- May prescribe controlled drugs if they are registered at some principle place of business. To administer or dispense they must be classified as an employee of a registrant, or they must register at each facility where they are employed.

Question 106

Under what circumstance can a DVM dispense an adulterated drug

Answer 106

under no circumstance

Question 107

In regards to a DEA inspection, what can the inspector copy without the consent of the practice owner or rep?

Answer 107

all records and reports involving controlled drugs

Question 108

A controlled drug with a high potential for abuse and severe dependence, but does have currently accepted medical uses in the US, would be in what schedule of narcotics

Answer 108

CII

Question 109

A non vet staff member may prescribe any non-controlled drug if directed to do so by a licenses, vet who employes them and if that vet directly supervises the staff member

Answer 109

False

Question 110

Under what four conditions will many states all a non-vet staff members to administer controlled drugs

Answer 110

1)if they are agents or employees of a registered practitioner 2) they are performing the task in the usual course of business 3) they are acting under direct supervision of a licensed vet 4) they are under the direct supervision of a licensed vet

Question 111

What is the process for lending a fellow vet a CII drug

Answer 111

Must use the DEA 222 form. Copy 3 of form stays with the vet who received the drug. Copy 1 stays with the registered practitioner supplying the drug. Copy 2 is sent to the DEA

Question 112

List two steps to take when a controlled drug has been lost or stolen

Answer 112

Registrants are required to notify the regional office of the DEA using DEA form 106 The local police department should also be notified

Question 113

Define Adulterated Drugs

Answer 113

Drugs that contain unsanitary components, lack of adequate control in manufacture, differ in strength from the official compendium, or that are mixed with another substance

Question 114

List 5 label requirements for prescription drugs

Answer 114

1) the statement "Caution: Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed vet 2) recommended dose and route of administration 3)quantity or proportion of each active ingredient 4)name of all inactive ingredients if the drug is for non-oral use 5) Identifying lot or control number from which it is possible to determine the complete manufacturing history of the drug

Question 115

In regards to OSHA inspection; employers have the right to deny access to specific areas of the building to avoid disturbing the business process

Answer 115

false- employers have the right to require a warrant, or to request a postponement, but not deny access once the inspection/investigation has begun

Question 116

A vet acupuncturist leases space from a general practice. Does the general practice need to share the hazard assessments from their department, even if the acupuncturist works in a separate part of the building

Answer 116

Yes. All separate businesses within a shared space must create a hazard assessment for the entire area.

Question 117

What else might the entities in mult business situations above be required to share or address

Answer 117

Each separate entity within the hospital will need to provide the other entity with their safety data sheets or store the safety information in a central location

Question 118

What five elements must be in a Hazardous Chemical Plan for the hospital to design

Answer 118

must be in writing a complete list of all hazardous chemicals must be maintained SDS library all containers properly labeled staff training

Question 119

What question is permissible to ask during pre-employment screening regarding legal history

Answer 119

Within the past 5 years have you been convicted of a felony, or a misdemeanor in the last 2 years, or are you presently charged Whe

Question 120

When it comes to scheduled drugs, the highest potential for abuste and the lowest potential for accepted medical use fall under Schedule ____

Answer 120

2

Question 121

Which agencies have a role in the rescheduling of a drug, in bringing an unscheduled drug under control, or removing the controls on a drug

Answer 121

the DEA and the Attorney General

Question 122

Drugs that contain unsanitary components, lack adequate control in manufacturing differ in strength from the official compendium or are mixed with another substance are known as

Answer 122

Adulterated drugs

Question 123

what is bailment

Answer 123

delivery of something of a personal nature by one party to another to be held according to the purpose of delivery and returned when purpose is accomplished. ex boarding or assumes custody of animal

Question 124

When a veterinarian accepts custody of clients pet, who is Bailor and who is Bailee

Answer 124

Bailor is client Bailee is DVM

Question 125

What two elements are essential for creation of bailment

Answer 125

1) physical delivery of property to bailee from bailor 2) knowing acceptance of possession of the propery by the bailee

Question 126

what is primary duty of the bailee in vet example

Answer 126

to return the animal either at a set time and be in at least as good condition as it was in when it was received. Duty of bailee is to provide care assessed by reasonable man standard.

Question 127

The law of malpractice is an extension of the law of negligence; therfore to undestand the malpractice laws, a thorough knowledge of negligent law is necessary .The law of neglgence requires proof of four essential elements, what are they?

Answer 127

1) establishing tat the defendant had a duty to prevent an injury from occurring to the plaintiff 2) establishing that defendant violated that duty by failing to act in accordance with the standard of care expected of other DVMs under the same circumstance 3) showing that a reasonable close causal connection existed between the defendants DVM conduct or lack and the resulting injury 4) proving that the actual damage or harm occurred to the interests of another person

Question 128

The AVMA Principles of Vet Med Ethics is an example of what branch of ethics

Answer 128

Official

Question 129

What is the process for making changes to Veterinary Practice Ace laws?

Answer 129

Proposed changes must be submitted to the House of Senate and ultimately signed by the Govenor

Question 130

In regards to Unjust Enrichment- the legal system will look for which of the following elements before considering applying the law to a situation

Answer 130

The more emergent the animal's needs are the more leeway exists to provide the emergency medical care The vet attempted to reach the owner prior to medical care The extent of the emergency care required to stabilize the patient was reasonable.

Question 131

What is the first A- in the 4 A's to Rise above Moral Distress?

Answer 131

Ask

Question 132

____ occurs when you know the ethically appropriate action to take but you are unable to do so or you act in a manner that does not agree with your own personal and professional value

Answer 132

Moral distressNO

Question 133

Yes or No- If a driver hits a loose dog with their car and brings the dog into your practice does your vet have a legal responsibility to stablize that patient or euthanize to relieve suffering since the owner is unknown and a vet client patient relationship has not been established

Answer 133

NO

Question 134

True or False- Having a client sign off on a surgical consent form is adequate proof of informed consent in a court of law

Answer 134

False

Question 135

Which are the most common complaints to the board of vet medicine

Answer 135

Unsatisfied experience lack of communication unexpected death recordkeeping

Question 136

A clear statement of agreement to the terms offered is called a what?

Answer 136

express acceptance

Question 137

True or False- IN a covenant not to compete, the scope of activity is generally restricted and includes a time limitation and geographic restraint

Answer 137

True

Question 138

What laws involve a person who has been authorized to act on behalf of another

Answer 138

Law of agency

Question 139

What is the 4th element of a contract

Answer 139

Intent to contract

Question 140

Define Descriptive Ethics

Answer 140

Study- refers to study of ethical views of Vet professionals regarding their behavior and attitudes. Essentially what is right and wrong

Question 141

Define Official Ethics

Answer 141

Creation- Involve the creation of the official ethical standards adopted by professional organizations and imposed on its members

Question 142

Define Administrative Ethics

Answer 142

(actions) involve actions by administrative government body that regulate vet practice and activities in which vets engage. License revocation can result if any civil or criminal violations of thee regulations occur

Question 143

Define Normative Ethics

Answer 143

(Search) refers to the search for correct principles of good and bad, right and wrong and justice or injustice

Question 144

What is Vet Practice Act

Answer 144

A state's or commonwealth law, codified into regulations, describing what licensed and non licensed employees can and cannot do, as well as acceptable medical standards, as it relates to vet medicine

Question 145

What is involved in making changes to the Vet Practice Act

Answer 145

Proposed changes must be submitted to the House and Senate and ultimately signed into law by the Governor

Question 146

What six elements do the courts want satisfied to consider the existence informed consent in a situation

Answer 146

1) consent must be freely given 2)Treatment and diagnosis must be given in understandable terms 3) Risk benefits, and prognosis orf defined procedure must be stated 4) Prognosis if no treatmetn is selected must be stated 5) Practice must provide alternative treatments, including risk, benefits and costs 6) Client must be given opportunity to ask questions and have them answered

Question 147

The law of ______ was created to avoid benefit of one party at the expense of another

Answer 147

Unjust Enrichment

Question 148

IN relation to Acceptance stage of a contract; what is the difference between Express Acceptance and Implied Acceptance

Answer 148

Express Acceptance: a clear statement of agreement to the terms offered that establishes an express contract Implied Acceptance_ no direct statement of agreement, but is demonstrated by actions indication acceptance of the offer, leading to an implied contract

Question 149

Although there may have been no formal agreement, justice requires enforcement of a promise when another party has justifiably relied on that promise, changed its position, and incurred substantial detriment. What is this situation called

Answer 149

Promissory Estoppel

Question 150

When it comes to the Law of Agency, what two scenarios are considered likely to be common in vet medicine

Answer 150

Agency and Consents for Care Agency and Consents for Euthanasia

Question 151

What is goal of Sherman Antitrust Act

Answer 151

to guarantee the freedom to compete

Question 152

Who is responsible for the intrepretation and application of the competitive objectives of anti trust laws

Answer 152

The courts, the Department of Justice, and the Federal Trade Commission page 177 law and ethics

Question 153

There are two rules the courts will use when making a ruling regarding antitrust laws.. what are they?

Answer 153

The Per Se Rule and the Rule of REason page 182 law and ethics

Question 154

Maximizing inventory turnover is a key strategy in creating an efficient and profitable inventory system. Name 4 ways to increase your inventory turnover

Answer 154

1) product consolidation 2) order quantities that make sense 3) measure and increase compliance 4) doctor and staff product education

Question 155

According to Fair labor Standards act if a relief vet has a set schedule with practice but also continues to provide random relief shifts for other practices, are they considered an independent contractor

Answer 155

NO, because of the set schedule

Question 156

When it comes to the employement of minors, which age group can only work 3 hours per day during school days and 8 hours on non school days. They also cannot work before 7 am

Answer 156

14-15 year olds

Question 157

____ occurs when submission to or rejection of unwelcome sexual conduct is used as the basis of employment decisions affecting the individual (applies to protected classes as much as it does gender.)

Answer 157

Quid pro Quo

Question 158

Who enforces the federal laws prohibiting employment discrimination

Answer 158

The Equal Employment Opportunity commission

Question 159

IN most states the Principles of Vet Medical Ethics if AVMA can actually be enforced true or false

Answer 159

False, the AVMA princoples are based more on porfessional relationships one has with colleagues than moral and ethical issues relating to animals and they cannot be enforced by law as written

Question 160

Client confidentiality is a critical part of our profession, with that in mind, when is it considered acceptable for a member of the practice to take client liasts and information with them when departing

Answer 160

It depends on what the agreement was with the practice

Question 161

Does VHMA jhave code of ethics

Answer 161

yes

Question 162

Which is not acceptable contacts for employees to discuss client or patient confidences? The clients agent a concerned coworker coworkers involved in patient care

Answer 162

a concerned coworker

Question 163

The difference between the cost of a product and the revenue it generates is called what?

Answer 163

Gross Profit Margin

Question 164

If end of year revenue was 2.4mil and profit was 312000, what is net profit margin percent

Answer 164

=312000/2400000=13%

Question 165

Which expenses are considered more controllable, direct or indirect expenses

Answer 165

direct are usually more controllable because they relate directly to specific income production

Question 166

an orgs debts or other obligations which must be discharged within a short time, (usually within the earning cycles, or one year) are called what

Answer 166

current liabilities

Question 167

What are the 3 main details the FSLA was created to address

Answer 167

1) establish a min wage 2) define overtime pay standards 3) regulate the employment of minors

Question 168

Can the owner of the practice be held responsible for the discriminating actions or behavior of their employee towards another employee

Answer 168

yes

Question 169

Manager Jan is relieved that her practice of 18 employees is too small to be required to follow accommodations under the ADA. Should she be relieved? why or why not

Answer 169

No, she shouldn't be relieved, any employer with 15 or more employees is required to follow the rules of the aDA

Question 170

when it comes to discrimination in general, what employment matters, aside from hiring, are included in anti-discrimination laws

Answer 170

All employment decisions should be made without discriminatory intent or appearance. This includes wages, termination, advancement, discipline, etc

Question 171

Regarding FMLA define an eligible part time employee

Answer 171

Someone who works twenty or more calendar weeks in the current or previous years

Question 172

Who pays the FUTA tAX

Answer 172

EMPLOYERS

Question 173

Among other things, what act also outlines reporting and disclosure obligations, min participation rules vesting and funding requirements and fiduciary standards for employees who participate in qualified benefit programs

Answer 173

ERISA- employment retirement income security act

Question 174

What are the 7 required federal posters?

Answer 174

Fair labor standards act and min wage equal opportunity provisions of the law The FMLA act OSHA right to know law Employee Polygraph protection act uniformed services employment and reemployment rights act right to join or forms unions

Question 175

name six potential exceptions to the client confidentiality statues

Answer 175

1)the client or client agent consent to the release 2)The law requires disclosure 3) an animals health is at stake 4)a legal dispute has arisen such as malpractice or fee conflict 5) A board investigation or disciplinary proceeding exist against vet or animal owner 60 there is suspected abuse or neglect

Question 176

Employees are obligated to maintain client/patient confidentiality even after they have left the employ of the practiced true or false

Answer 176

true

Question 177

Employees can legitimately discuss client or patient information with what four people

Answer 177

1)client 2) clients agent 3) treating veterinarian 4) other employees involved in the patient's care

Question 178

What entity requires vets to protect the personal privacy of clients and patients and not reveal confidences unless required by law

Answer 178

The principles of Vet Medical Ethics of the AVMA (PVME)

Question 179

What is considered a critical statement to include in your social Media Policy in regard to employees posting confidential photos/text on their personal social media sites

Answer 179

A statement that any employee conduct, including social medial posts, negatively affects the employee's job performance, or the performance of team members, clients, patients, or distributors may result in disciplinary action up to and including termination

Question 180

If the practice currently has $94250 of cash on hand and the annual operating expenses of the practice are $1,677,000, how many days cash balance do you have, and is that a healthy number for the practice.

Answer 180

=1677000/260 is cost practice is 6450 =94250/6450 is 14.5 days is how long the money will last a healthy number is 20-30 days cash on hand to ensure liquidity issues do not arise

Question 181

Employers with at least ___ or more employees who worked for the employer for at least __ calendar weeks in this year or last are protected from discrimination

Answer 181

15:20

Question 182

Which jobs listed may be classified as "exempt" from overtime?

Answer 182

office manager cvpm veterinarian (executive 2 reports) admin professional intellectual

Question 183

Pregnant employees can be prohibited by the employer from performing certain job duties to protect the developing baby

Answer 183

False

Question 184

Clavamox beginning of year is 2500 and end of year is 3000.. what is the average inventory

Answer 184

2500+3000=5750/2[=2750

Question 185

total clavamox purchased through year is 26000. What is inventory turn over ratio and is this considered an acceptable turns per year

Answer 185

26000/2750=9.5 this is acceptable.. there are conflicting numbers of acceptability in the books citing 4-8 and 8-10 turns per year

Question 186

Employees with at least ___ or more employess who worked for the employer for at least ___ calendar weeks in the year or last are protected from discrimination

Answer 186

15:20

Question 187

Which jobs listed may be classified as "exempt" from ovetime? team lead who manages two or more employees office mananager veterinarian cert vet asst

Answer 187

office manager and veterinarian

Question 188

Pregnant employees can be prohibited by the employer from performing certain job duties to protect the developing baby. Tor F

Answer 188

false

Question 189

What is considered more accurate, cash-based accounting or accrual-based accounting?

Answer 189

accrual

Question 190

which financial statement is considered the most important for smalll businesses?

Answer 190

profit and loss or income statement

Question 191

Is staff payroll c onsidered a fixed or variable expense

Answer 191

variable

Question 192

The Federal Insurance Contribution Act- or FICA is a payroll tax that is apaid by the employer or employee?

Answer 192

Both the employer and employee

Question 193

Which payroll tax is paid by employers only and only on the first $7000 of an employees earnings

Answer 193

FUTa- federal unemployment Tax Act

Question 194

What is an EIN number

Answer 194

It is a business identification number assigned by the IRS to identify tax accounts of employers

Question 195

AR this are over ___ % need the intervention of entire team to follow AR policy

Answer 195

3%

Question 196

Which ACT prohibits placing " delinquent account" stickers on the outside of an envelope when mailing statements to clients?

Answer 196

The Fair Debt Collections Act

Question 197

What does the accounts receivable turnover calcuation tell us

Answer 197

HOw many times the accounts receivable balance is converted into cash and The ration shows how efficient a company is at collecting its credit sales from customers

Question 198

What 3 financial responsibilities are typically outsourced in most practices

Answer 198

1)Primary tax preparation and advice 2) Valuation of practice 3) Large financial issues

Question 199

Are wages for doctors who are paid o n a salary basis considered a fixed or variable expense?

Answer 199

Fixed

Question 200

Define Cost of Goods Sold

Answer 200

The products used to produce a service for the client, or products sold to clients

Question 201

Offer five examples of COGS

Answer 201

rx, over the counter, anesthesia, dental supplies

Question 202

This tuype of accounting recognizes revenue when it is earned and expenses when they are incurred. When goods are received and services are performed. Is this Cash-based or accrutal basted

Answer 202

Accrual

Question 203

Which type of accounting is typically considered more accurate

Answer 203

accrual

Question 204

What is another name for Profit and Loss

Answer 204

The Income Statement

Question 205

When comparing expenses on the Profit and Loss Statement it is impportant to express expenses in dollar amounts but also as _______

Answer 205

a % of gross

Question 206

The basic accounting equation is ASset=____________+_____________

Answer 206

liability + Owner equite

Question 207

REgarding payroll deductions, what does FICA stand for, what does it fund, and is it paid by who

Answer 207

Federal Insurance contributions Act.- a tax paid by both the employer and employee to fund Social security and medicare

Question 208

At the end of the year, any independent contractor who received more than $___ in wages from the practice must be issued a 1099 form

Answer 208

600

Question 209

If the contractor fails to file and pay their taxes, and the practice did not issue a form 1099 at the end of the year, what risk is the practice subject to?

Answer 209

The practice can be held responsible to pay all back taxes, interest, and penalties

Question 210

If practice is found to spend more than generating, what steps can be taken to gain control?

Answer 210

1) decrease spending and increase revenue 2)hold employees acctable for waster 3) consider reevaluation your fee structure 4) review charges to be sure they are being captured correctly 5) review chares jto be sure they are being captured 6) if line of credit is needed, use for short term and pay back asap

Question 211

AR should be no higher than ____% gross revenue

Answer 211

1.5%

Question 212

When a non-sufficient funds check has been written to the practice, the practice has three choices of action

Answer 212

1) accept financial loss 2) attempt to collect 3) use third-party collection agency

Question 213

Which act regulates collection procedure of past due accounts

Answer 213

Fair Debt Collection Practices Act enforced by the federal trade commission

Question 214

Accounts receiveable turnover- how many times the accounts receivable balance is converted into cash. What is the formula for AR turnover?

Answer 214

Credit sales/average account receivable=Accounts receivable turnover

Question 215

Regarding the value of the accounts receivable turnover, is it better to have a higher or lower number

Answer 215

a higher value for the AR turnover is better because it indicates the AR balance is turned into cash more often

Question 216

How can you calculate the average age of the accounts receivable entries

Answer 216

number of days in AR (365) / accounts receivable turnover ex turnover is 12 365/12=30 days

Question 217

expansion, prosperity, contraction and recession are the four stages of

Answer 217

The business cycle

Question 218

What are two ways of normalizing revenue and expenses when creating a budget

Answer 218

Remove any non recurring items from the previous year Combine the last 3 years as an average

Question 219

What forms/metrics are important reports/ considerations when creating a budget

Answer 219

last 3 years profit and loss/productivity statement all lease and loan documents fee schedule list of operational changes expected in next year list of major capital expenditures

Question 220

IN regards to creating a credit policy, what are the two sub policies that you should begin with

Answer 220

a client credit policy charge account policy

Question 221

What elements should be included in the charge account policy for the practice

Answer 221

1) the pre-qualification procedures for clients of unknown standing 2)The process of flagging a pre-qualified client in PM system 3) Total invoice amount client can charge without manager approval 4) % bill must be paid on pick up 5)How to manage AR accts 6) Use of charge acct information

Question 222

What is the consumer price index

Answer 222

A list or index of prices used to measure the change in the cost of basic goods and services

Question 223

The consumer price index can be instrumental in determining the cost of living increase for a variety of expenses associated with running a business T or F

Answer 223

True

Question 224

IN regards to running a fee analysis and determining the cost of a service, which of the following elements should be included in the calculation

Answer 224

staff cost per minute veterinary cost per minute fixed cost

Question 225

What ___% of practices have been victims of embezzlement

Answer 225

67.8%

Question 226

Should you prosecute a staff member for embezzlement even if it is a small amount

Answer 226

yes

Question 227

Who should you turn to if you are victim of embezzlement?

Answer 227

insurance company, your accountant and attorney

Question 228

What is the annual lose figure per year for embezzlement

Answer 228

5%

Question 229

In the budgeting process, normalizing the hospital's expenses refers to

Answer 229

removing any large one-off expenses from a years expenses averaging the last 3 years expenses

Question 230

When budgeting for a start up practice, it is recommended to use the ___ % of industry benchmarks

Answer 230

25th

Question 231

What is percent of gross revenue if expenses are $87365 and revn is $1250000.

Answer 231

6.9%

Question 232

What is final stage of budget

Answer 232

Combining budgeted revenue and expense and making adjustments

Question 233

Patient volume is considered a ____ ____ of revenue growth

Answer 233

key driver

Question 234

A simple method of creating an expense budget is to add what to the base expense figure

Answer 234

The last 3 years average growth rate

Question 235

What is the difference between Client Credit Policy and the Charge Account POlicy

Answer 235

Client credit Policy- established the pre qualificaiotns necessary to open a charge account. Ex a client may need a min of 2 years of perfect payment history without a problem charge account policy- is the set of systems in place including established credit limits, payment due dates, payment methods and invoicing procedure

Question 236

The fee schedule should be reviewed minimally ___ a year

Answer 236

once

Question 237

Formula for determining fees for services

Answer 237

(Fixed Cost/min + staff cost/min) x lieth of procedure in staff minutes) + (dvm COST/MIN X Length of procedure in DVM min) + (direct cost x 2) + profit

Question 238

What percent of gross revenue is said to be lost to embezzlement in small businesses annually

Answer 238

5 %

Question 239

What is the most often used chart of accounts

Answer 239

AAHAS

Question 240

Why is Petty Cash system suggested over using cash from the recepton drawer for smaller purchases

Answer 240

improves internal controls by probiding a system for tracking cash purchases

Question 241

How long can it take to prepare a team member for a leadership position

Answer 241

12-36 months

Question 242

Which of the four phases of Strategic Planning is focused on how the practice will get from point A to point B

Answer 242

The Development stage

Question 243

In regards to a medical malpractice lawsuit, if a client fails to confine a dog after surgery, or there is proof of any degree of medical negligence by the client, it may eliminate financial recovery to the client in a lawsuit. What term supports this theory

Answer 243

Contributory Negligence

Question 244

What is the first step in creating a business contingency plan?

Answer 244

Risk Assessment

Question 245

How many diseases are currently known to be zoonotic

Answer 245

1400

Question 246

A liaison is a broad term that refers to the person who maintains communications with any other entity involved with the business of running the practice

Answer 246

True

Question 247

As it relates to tax planning, what is a safe harbor?

Answer 247

Safe Harbor is a system of calculating this year's projected tax based off last years tax

Question 248

Regarding financial statements, which is more detailed and provides the greatest level of assurance?

Answer 248

audited

Question 249

Ideally, no less than ___ of on-site training should accompany any major software conversion?

Question 250

Hardware and software are both examples of information systems

Answer 250

true

Question 251

The most common medical record format is:

Answer 251

problem-orientated medical records POMR

Question 252

The State Vet Practice act defines min medical record documentation ofr each state. What other entity defines minimal requirements of veterinary medical records?

Answer 252

PVME- Principles of vet medical ethics

Question 253

Which circumstances are considered a benefit of using logs in veterinary medicine?

Answer 253

To comply with legal requirements such as controlled substances provide evidence in the event of a malpractice claim convenient for quick data analysis and auditing

Question 254

Is a digital xray unit in practice considered capital inventory

Answer 254

yes if is in useable condition;

Question 255

Practices should plan to reinvest around ___ of gross revenue for replacing or acquiring equipment annually

Answer 255

1 percent

Question 256

The tax act of 2003 provided what increased benefits to small business owners

Answer 256

significantly increased the amount of eligible property tax can deduct act 168K gave an additional deduction of 50% of the remaining balance The remainder of the purchases can also be depreciated on a straight-line deviation

Question 257

To maintain tight inventory controls, the inventory purchaser should always be a separate individual from the

Answer 257

the inventory receiver and the inventory documenter and tracker

Question 258

Ideally, the top 20% of inventory items should be orderd

Answer 258

monthly

Question 259

According to PMP, applying Pareto 80/20 rule to inventory

Answer 259

prioritizing inventory time investment since 20% of our products account for 80% of income

Question 260

When considering vet negligence and malpractice disputes, case law and precedents are set at which of the following trial levels of the court system

Answer 260

civil level

Question 261

Client reference and education materials should always be branded with the missio of the practice

Answer 261

false

Question 262

The average person needs to hear about a product or service around ___ times before they purchase it

Answer 262

5

Question 263

Clients retain only ___ of what they hear

Answer 263

20%

Question 264

What are 5 of 6 C's Client relationship management?

Answer 264

consistency, compassion, customer service, cost, competence, convenience

Question 265

What is the target budget to allocate for advertising retail products?

Answer 265

1-3%

Question 266

How many visits per year per client is a good metric to compare your practices performance with

Answer 266

10

Question 267

When it comes to marketing the A in SMART stands for

Answer 267

achieveable

Question 268

EAch client who presents to the practice should be scheduled for at least one of the 3 follow up events so that the practice automatically contacts each client in the future

Answer 268

recall, reappointment, reminder

Question 269

The goal is to retain ___ to ___ of clients over a 3-year period

Answer 269

70-75%

Question 270

_____ is a proactive process of gathering data about client preferences an activities to better target their services and products to the client's needs

Answer 270

Customer Relationship management

Question 271

What net to new clients ratio indicates healthy growth of the practice

Answer 271

6:1

Question 272

What is a reasonable beginning goal for the number of transactions per year per doctor?

Answer 272

5000

Question 273

What are the 4 ps of marketing

Answer 273

product, price, place, promotion

Question 274

When comparing revenue and expenses, is it more valuable to deterine the % change or the dollar amount change year over years.

Answer 274

the percentage

Question 275

What is formula for average inventory

Answer 275

BI+EI/2=AI

Question 276

what does the inventory turn over ratio formula look like

Answer 276

DMSP/AI=turn over ration

Question 277

what is dmsp

Answer 277

total $ drug medical supplies purchases

Question 278

average shelf life formula

Answer 278

365 days in year/turn over ratio

Question 279

Name 4 ways to increase inventory turnover

Answer 279

product consolidation order quantities that make sense measure and increase compliance doctor and staff product education

Question 280

Who is responsible for the interpretation and application of the competitive objectives of the anti-trust laws

Answer 280

the courts, the department of Justice, and the Federal Trade Commission

Question 281

What are two rules courts use ruling in anti trust law cases

Answer 281

The Per Se Rule and the Rule of Reason

Question 282

How to express expenses using common sizing

Answer 282

you divide the total expenses by the total revenue and present as a %

Question 283

What is preferrable profit for owner

Answer 283

20-30%

Question 284

What are the 5 steps to changing organizational culture

Answer 284

1. define the culture 2. align behaviors with the desired culture 3. commit to change 4. support the shift 5. grow the team

Question 285

Which step of 5 steps of cultural change must the manager commit to

Answer 285

commit to change-- the leader has to go first

Question 286

IN regards to practice owner compensation, what are the five tiers

Answer 286

Veterinary salaries management salaries perquisite income profits reflected as return on owners investment in the practice distribution of remaining profits among owners *** know this

Question 287

What is considered an acceptable number of turns per year of total inventory

Answer 287

two citings 4-8 and 8-10

Question 288

The difference between the cost of a product and the revenue it generates is called what

Answer 288

Gross Profit Margin

Question 289

What is net profit margin

Answer 289

=profit dollars/gross revenue dollars * can figure net profit margin also knowing expenses but then you subtract expense express as common sizing by 100 to get the net profit margin

Question 290

What expense is considered more controllable

Answer 290

Direct because they relate directly to specific income production

Question 291

Name organization's debts which must be discharged within a short time (one year)

Answer 291

Current liabilities

Question 292

If a practice has 94500 cash on hand and annual operating expense is 1677,000, how many days cash on hand and is that a healthy number

Answer 292

find out operating cash per day and divide by total cash to see how long it will last. If hosp open 365 days- use that number ... if open 5 days a week- use 260

Question 293

How many days of cash is a healthy number to keep on hand

Answer 293

20-30 days worth of cash to ensure liquidity issues do not arise.

Question 294

Which entity created the PVME

Answer 294

AVMA

Question 295

Leadership fatigue can be experienced when there is lack of communication, lack of delineation of job duties. Which element of strategic plan addresses this dynamic

Answer 295

organizational design

Question 296

List inventory control goals

Answer 296

# Contolled drugs minimized expense no stock out Clients can obtain refills regular evaluation of preferred drugs Employees can order as needed contolled substances maintained appropriate security systems safeguards employees well versed communicating value products with clients fees adjusted regularly profit margin set

Question 297

Combined ordering and holding cost account for approx what percent of total true cost

Answer 297

25-35 %

Question 298

What is perpetual inventory system

Answer 298

when items received are immediately added to the inventory record, and items sold are immediately subtracted from the inventory record

Question 299

define gross profit

Answer 299

the difference between $ of product to the client and the cost product to practice

Question 300

What two main benefits of using Central Supply inventory system

Answer 300

reduce theft and waste Better organization and tracking

Question 301

Define ABC analysis in 5 steps

Answer 301

1. Create spreadsheet and calculate annual usage volume products 2. calculate cumulation (all) annual usage volume 2. calculate cumulate % of annual usage volume 4. calculate annual useage distribution 5. Group into classes A B C

Question 302

Bi+EI/2 is

Answer 302

average inventory on hand

Question 303

What math formula recognized three specific costs including unit cost, ordering cost and holding cost which allows calculation of ideal inventory ordering

Answer 303

Economic Order Quantity EOQ

Question 304

Which pricing strategy useful to use where there are large differences in end price based on the size of patient

Answer 304

margin pricing method

Question 305

Which category of drugs are going to have a higher mark up- competitive drugs or drugs used to treat chronic conditions

Answer 305

drugs to treat chronic conditions

Question 306

Should you itemize fee associated with filling rx

Answer 306

no.. clients do not have understanding of cost of running hosp

Question 307

What are the benefits in Just in time-ordering

Answer 307

low holding costs no expired products

Question 308

What are disadvantages of Just in time ordering

Answer 308

higher ordering costs, stock outs, back orders

Question 309

What are the two main inventory organizational techniques

Answer 309

zoning and central supply

Question 310

What are short four steps to inventory budgeting

Answer 310

1. project revenue 2. project COG expenses 3.project COG subsection expenses 4. share the budget and communicate expectations

Question 311

A running capitol inventory list should contain what information about the equipment

Answer 311

1. equipment name 2. manufacturer 3. model/serial number 4. purchase date, amount paid, and purchase locationl

Question 312

What is the most significant drawback to paper records

Answer 312

poor legibility which can lead to patient care mistakes and confusion. Illegible records will work against practice if ever needed in court case

Question 313

Name 7 examples of license board violations regarding medical records

Answer 313

lack of complete patient and client identification lack of complete system-by-system description with annotated exam notes lack of tentative diagnosis lack of prognosis Lack of treatment specified and especially lack of client waiver or detail of recommendation for a specific treatment or procedure Illegible entries Alterations or deletions of record after a reasonable contemporaneous period

Question 314

Illegible medical records are equal to what?

Answer 314

An incomplete, illegible record can be considered an admission of professional incompetence and imply that the care provided was sub standard

Question 315

Can a veterinarian still be cited for medical record violation even if the client complaint did not concern medical records and the vet was acquitted of the client complaint?

Answer 315

Although a client complaint is rarely about records, it is the records that the board will investigate to rule on the complaint Even if the vet is acquitted of a client complaint, they could still be citedf for medical record violations if they do not meet the min stnandards

Question 316

In medical records, only abnormal results are recommended to be documented in the patient's medical record

Answer 316

false

Question 317

Medical documentation must include; name of the medication, ___ , dose given, and route administered

Answer 317

Medication documentation must include: name of medication, strenth, dose given, and route administered

Question 318

Define SOAP

Answer 318

S-subjective O-objective A-assessment P-plan

Question 319

What 6 areas should be included in the auditing of medical records

Answer 319

date of entry initials of all team members writing in record a complete SOAP format all authorization forms signed by the client missed charges recheck and recall compliiance

Question 320

Define Source Oriented Medical Records

Answer 320

SOMR- Data is entered in the record and then grouped by the information source and then orgainzed chronologically by date of patinet encounter.

Question 321

The syste the program and computer follows is called

Answer 321

software

Question 321

List potential applications of technology in vet practices

Answer 321

online continuing education computereized appt system consultation with specialist digital photo and xrays credit card processing email reminders electronic medical recrods online office procedural manuals supply purchases webpage design and maintenance

Question 321

___ and ___ purchases will show greater return on investment than any other capital expense. why

Answer 321

software and hardware purchases due to increased efficiency in every department

Question 321

When considering new software, if you have employees lacking comfort with technology, what might be an important element

Answer 321

training provide by the company should be a strong consideration with new software

Question 322

In reference to disease transmission, fleas, ticks and mosquitos are considered vectors

Answer 322

true

Question 323

why is it recommended to have a steady and ongoing relationship with vendors, what are some examples?

Answer 323

this strategy avoids urgent and crisis-oriented circumstances and maintains more of a preventative relationship

Question 324

The role of liaison for a practice manager involves more than relationships with vendors, what are some examples

Answer 324

This role is a full time responsibility involving staff, vendors, authorities, professional peers, advisors, indep contractors, clients, practice owners, stock holders, consultants and other

Question 325

It is best to have obtained cpa prior to year end and have all accounting records to your cpa by___?

Answer 325

The 3rd or last week in January

Question 326

Name reasons to have a healthy relationship with vendors

Answer 326

they are highly educated and well trained by the company, and can often provide the most cutting-edge inform for new products. they have a wide range of experience inside various practices and can offer various practices and offer feedback on how you are doing or share some good ideas have wide network in vet community and may know when a practice is coming up for sale, employees looking for work

Question 327

When implementing control methods for zoonotic diseases, treatment programs are focused on reservoirs and hosts- define reservoirs and hosts

Answer 327

Reservoir- a place where an infectious organism survives and replicates Host- a living organism that provides the environment for the maintenance of the organism but may not be necessary for organism survival

Question 328

What is most common bacteria present in dog and cat bites

Answer 328

Pasteurella

Question 329

Why is it important to have a through conversation with cleint when treating chemotherapy patient

Answer 329

some chemo agents are eliminated in the urine and feces and can potentially expose family members

Question 330

What are three types of gas scavenger systems and which provides best protection

Answer 330

active- best passive- absorption system

Question 331

Name two steps taken in pref woman working around anesthetic gases

Answer 331

wear an anesthetic monitoring badge proper PPE

Question 332

Once a VCPR is established, it must be continued until

Answer 332

the animal recovers The vet agreed to all treatments agreed upon the animal dies The client terminates the VCPR The responsibility for treatment is transferred to another practitioner with the consent of the client

Question 333

What are five strategies to reduce potential malpractice lawsuit?

Answer 333

continuing education maintaining thorough medical records, practice informed consent staff training referrals

Question 334

What is the risk assessmenrt equation

Answer 334

Hazards + vulnerabilities= Risk

Question 335

What are the four paper priorities in the event of emergency management and what is a brief definition of each MPRR

Answer 335

Mitigation Preparation Response Recovery

Question 336

What is the definition of Migration in above ?

Answer 336

strategies and actions that reduce the likelihood and impact of a threat

Question 337

A relationship-centered practice is defined as utilizing empowered veterinary team members who share vet knowledge to develop long lasting relationships with clients and patients. Which element of strategic planning best addresses this dynamic?

Answer 337

organizational design

Question 338

Lack of follow through from management, "push" verses "Pull" and negative peer pressure from team members who have plateaued, are all common reasons for what?

Answer 338

resistance to learning

Question 339

Which phase of strategic planning includes the development of the Mission Vision and Values and why are they so important

Answer 339

The formulation phase- MVVs are critical because they represnet the goals of org and every decision made for the business must support the MVVs

Question 340

What are the 4 phases of stategic planning

Answer 340

1 formulation 2. development 3. implementation 4. evaluation

Question 341

What are the 3 parts of strtegic planning in an organization?

Answer 341

Organizational Design Organizantional Development Organizational Learning

Question 342

What is the per se rule

Answer 342

ruling when business lacks redeeming virtue and have no purpose but to stifle competition. ex agreeements between competitior to fix prices

Question 343

Give formula for Economic Quanity value what is rule of reason

Answer 343

square root of 2 time annual demant times fixed cost divided by holding cost and unit cost rule of reason is used when per se rule doesnt qualify but business reasonalbe is considered in restraint of trade

Question 344

common zoonotic diseases

Answer 344

anthrax brucellosis cat scratch disease lepto lyme pasteurella salmonella tetanus TB ringworm scabies toxo encephalistis monkeypos newcastle giardia

Question 345

performing a necropsy without owners consent is unethical but it also a high risk liability center on causes of action. Define those two causes?

Answer 345

The tort of outrageous conduct The right not to have ones sensibilties shocked

Question 346

These represent the determination of financial statement entry relationships and the fractional structure that results provides performance. They are generaly used to assess aspects of profitability, solvency and liquidity

Answer 346

Ratios

Question 347

If your practice had 3691000 in revenue and 2952800 in expenses, how would express the expenses in common sizing? ONce the calculation is found, is that within the preferred benchmark?

Answer 347

expense is 80% gross leaving 20% profit and is considered preferred

Question 348

in regards to owners compensation, what are the five tiers?

Answer 348

Veterinary salaries Management salaries Perquisite income profits reflected as return on investment in practice equitable distribution of remaining profits among owners

Question 349

Negligence is defined as doing something that a person ordinary prudence would not have done under the circumstances or failure to do what a person of ordinary prudence would have done under the same or similar circumstances. Of all the types of legal action in tort law, vets are most likely to incur some sort of degree of professional liability from the law of negligence. The law of malpractice is an extension of law of negligence therefore to understand the law of malpractice, a thorough knowlege of negligence law is necessary. The law of negligence requires proof of four essential elements what are they?

Answer 349

1- establishing that the defendant had a duty to prevent an injury from occurence to the plantiff's property 2- EStablishing that the defendant violated that duty by failing to act in accordance with the standard of care expected of DVMs. under the same or similar circumstances. 3- Showing that a reasonably close causal connection existed between the defendents DVM conduct and a lack of conduct and the resulting injury -doctrine of probable cause. 4- Proving that the actual damage or harm occured to the interests of another party.

Question 350

What is name of test from FSLA that determines if one qualifies as independent contractor

Answer 350

Economic Realisties Test

Question 351

What 6 factors are generally considered by the courts in applying the economic realities test

Answer 351

1- the degree of control exercised by the practice over the individuals work performance. 2- the extent of the relative investments by the practice and the individual in equipment and supplies used. 3- the individuals opportunity for profit and loss through managerial skill 4- the skill and initiative required by the work. Lower skill requirments weigh toward employee status. 5- the permancence of the relationship 6- the extent to which the workers service are in integral part of the practice.

Question 352

DAvid Pink defines motivation as "the desire to do things because they matter" However, three elements must exist for intrinsic motivation to occur. What are they?

Answer 352

automony mastery purpose

Question 353

what are the 12 c's for team building

Answer 353

communication competence consequences context clear expectation culture change commitment charter control collarboration creative innovation coordination

Question 354

David Golemans book Emotional INtelligence says IQ is not a good predictor, that individuals equally need emotional intelligence in managing relationships. What are the five levels

Answer 354

Self awareness self motivation empathy self control effective managment of relationships

Question 355

Name the list of OSHA topics that specifically require staff member training

Answer 355

General duty clause- workers rights and responsibilites Emergency & fire prevention plans occupational noise exposure Ionizing radiation PPE Signs and tags medical services and first aid portable fire extinguishers ethylene oxide formaldehyde Hazard communications (chemicals)

Question 356

In communication what is the breakdown between verbal, paraverbal and non verbal

Answer 356

verbal- 7% message paraverbal- (tone) - 38% nonverbal- (posture expression) 55 %

Question 357

another smart goal for team delegation

Answer 357

smart measurable attainable resources time bound

Question 358

a team grows and changes markedly furing its lifetime. What is the process of development described as fsnp-all part of the ing's

Answer 358

forming storming norming performing

Question 359

What is managing about

Answer 359

developing trust and respect

Question 360

can a manager help with dysfunction

Answer 360

Yes identify dysfunctions that disrupt efficiency, invlole the team to sole the problem, im plement the develped solution and coach for success

Question 361

What 3 funcitons does a leadership team

Answer 361

to faciliattae, to inspire, and to implement

Question 362

HOw get engage employees

Answer 362

find out how to motivate using Expectancy theory, Maslow's hierarchy and Herzber Motivaotry theory

Question 363

What is expectancy theory

Answer 363

theory that motivation is increased when employees believe that increased effort leads to desired results

Question 364

What is Herzbergs Theory

Answer 364

Theory that meeting basic needs results in motivation and increased performance

Question 365

What is Maslow Hierarchy of Needs

Answer 365

People seek to satisfy basic needs and satisfying ta lower level need resutls in the next level being a motivation factor

Question 366

What are the levels fo Maslows herarchy from top

Answer 366

Self Actualization- one full potential esteem-achievement relationship safety physiloogical

Question 367

What is process of talent management

Answer 367

attracting, selecting, training , developintg, and promoting

Question 368

What does the OZ principle say

Answer 368

That staff has the ability to see it, own it, solve it and do it rather than thinking like in the wizard of oz that they OZ would solve there problem instead of knowing everything they need is inside of them

Question 369

What is compromise fatigue

Answer 369

extreme sense of stress asso with repeated request4s to make compromises on basis of the medical or financial management of pateint care

Question 370

What is Hedonic Adaptation

Answer 370

Also called Hedonic threadmill, the observed tendency of individuals to return to a relatively stable level of happiness despite major positive or negative events or life changes

Question 371

What is Culture

Answer 371

the sum of all the characteristics that describe the way we do things around here. Set of rules, procedures, processes attitudes communicaiton methods or work styles that se thte tone ofr a practice

Question 372

What is difference between manager and leader

Answer 372

Found in the meaning of word to move so leaders take us to places wever never been before

Question 373

What is Louzes and Posner fiive commitments of leaders

Answer 373

Challenge the Process Inspire a shared vision Enable otheres to act Model the way Encourage the Heart

Question 374

DAvid Norton advocates the balanced scoredcared which says businesses should evaluate themselves on what concepts

Answer 374

Financial Customer/client internal business processes Learning and growth

Question 375

What is the four steps in implementation of a plan

Answer 375

analysis, planning, deployment, evaluation

Question 376

What does the EOQ determine?

Answer 376

Finds the optimal ordering quantity by determining the point at which inventory ordering and holding costs are minimized

Question 377

In terms of longevity, what are the # years for strategic, tactical, and operational planning

Answer 377

strategic- long term- 5-10 years Tactical- near future- 1-3 years Operational- days and weeks ahead