Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Repro II > male pathology > Flashcards

male pathology Flashcards

(61 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

hypospadias

A

ventral/inferior opening of urethra
common
associated with constriction UTIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

epispadias

A

dorsal/superior opening of urethra
less common
almost always associated with extrophy of bladder
associated with constriction UTIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

phimosis

A

excessive retraction of foreskin
congenital or acquires s/d recurrent infection in uncircumcised adults
may lead to paraphimosis (strangulation of venous flow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

vesicoureteral reflux

A

short intramural ureter gives poor flap-valve fnx -> reflux of urine into bladder
recurrent UTIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

extrophy of bladder

A

failure of cloacal membrane development occurs at same time as lower abdominal wall formation so bladder at surface
associated with epispadias of penis
surgical repair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

testicular descent

A
  • testes appear on urogenital ridge in month 2
  • coelomic cavity envaginates into scrotal swelling forming processes vaginalis in month 3
  • testes begin descent into scrotum guided by gubernaculum in month 7
  • processes vaginalis obliterates after birth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

communicating hydrocele

A

patent inguinal canal allows for peritoneal fluid to drain into scrotum more common on R

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

non-communicating hydrocele

A

usually older children and adults

may be idiopathic or secondary to epididymitis, orchitis, testicular torsion, trauma, or tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

varicocele

A

dilated and tortuous vv of papiniform plexus more common on L
only 10-15% of fertility issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

spermatocele

A

aka epididymal cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Tumor on PE

A

Firm
does not transilluminates
does not increase with valsalva maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

varicocele on PE

A

bag of worms
does not transilluminate
does increase with valsalva maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

noncommunicating hydrocele

A

fluid filled
does transilluminate
does not increase with valsalva maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

communicating hydrocele

A

fluid filled
does transilluminate
does increase with valsalva maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

spermatocele

A

small soft and localized cyst
does transilluminate
does not increase with valsalva maneuver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

balanoposthitis

A

inflammation of foreskin and glands d/t poor hygiene
caused by multiple organisms
smegma
may cause phimosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

circinate balanitis

A

assocaited with Chlamydia, reactive arthritis (Reiter syndrome)
painless ulcers resolve in months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

LS&A

A

same as in women
autoimmune
can cause painful erections and narrowing of urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

condyloma accuminata

A

HPV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

CIS

A

bowen disease, bowenoid papulosis, erythroplasia of querat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

bowen disease

A

red or gray plaque on shaft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

erythroplaisa of querat

A

shiny soft red plauqes on glans and foreskin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

bowenoid papulosis

A

multiple reddish-tan papules in young adults

DO NOT invade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

high risk HPV

A

incorporate into host DNA where viral E6 gene oncoprotein inactivated host p53 gene and E7 inactivated pRB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
invasive squamous cell carcinoma
rare slow growing painless tumor prognosis depends on spread to lymph nodes
26
risk factors for invasive squamous cell carcinoma
``` lack of circumcision association with HPV 16&18 40-70 association with smoking inflammatory conditions LS&A ```
27
pearly penile papules
normal variant appears in 2nd-3rd decade usually goes away 2 rows of papules
28
cryptorchidism
failure of testes to descend associated with kleinefelters, prematures birth, and FHx at risk for testicular CA, trauma, torsion, and infertility must be surgically corrected
29
2 embryological phases of testical development
- transabdominal: at 6 wks sertolid cells -> MIS/AMH -> regression of female organs then at 9 wks leydig cells produce T -> wollifian duct develops into male genitalia -> testis up in lower abdomen - inguinal-scrotal: androgen driven craniosuspensory ligament dissolves gubernaculum guides testis into scrotum
30
cryptorchid histo
hyperplasia of leydig cells peritubulor fiborisis few sertoli cells
31
prune belly syndrome
aka eagle-barrett syndrome abdominal mm deficiency severe uriary tract abnormalites b/l cryptorchidism
32
epdidymitis
bacteria: gonorrhea, chlamydia, may get abscesses, in older men may see E. coli from UTI TB- palpable enlargement
33
benign testicular tumors
sertoli cell tumors sex cord stromal tumors (usually benign) leydig cell tumors
34
malignant testicular tumors
germ cell tumors (90% of tumors) | rare germ cell tumors
35
common germ cell tumors
seminoma embryonal-NSGCT mixed (seminoma +NSGCT)
36
rare germ cell tumors
``` yolk sac tumor teratoma spermatocytic seminoma embyronal carcinoma choriocarcinoma all respond well to chemo with good prognosis ```
37
genetic marker of germ cell tumors
i(12p)
38
risk factors for germ cell tumor
``` cryptorchisdim prior GCT FHx- KIT & BAK whites>blacks 5:1 borthers 8-10x increased risk ```
39
pathogenesis of GCT
precursor malignant cell develops in fetus and is activated and puberty called intratubular germ cell neoplasia (ITGCN=CIS) -> progression mets to periaortic abdominal nodes
40
serum markers of GCT
seen in 60% HCG LDH alpha fetal protein
41
seminoma
most common 50% | slow growing late spread 75% stage I at Dx
42
serum markers of serminoma
LDH- nonspecific marker of tumor HCG- presence of synctiotrophoblasts AFP- never seen in pure seminoma, must be mixed or NSGCT
43
Tx of seminoma
sperm preserved stage radical orchiectomy with lymph node dissection if no mets (low risk) - radiation if mets (intermediate risk) - platinum based chemo
44
seminoma histo
fried eggs nested in fibrotic tissue admixed with lymphocytes
45
spermatocytic seminoma
``` rare tumor >65 slow growing no mets \ ```
46
non-seminomatous germ cell tumors (NSGCT)
50-60% mixed more aggressive then seminoma with worse prognosis may have hematogenous spread before lymph spread
47
leydig cell tumors
present as testicular masses in young adults produce sex hormones usually androgens and may produce estrogens 90%benign
48
sertoli cell tumor
present as scrotal masses in young adults 1/3 have gynecomastia benign
49
acute prostatitis
``` not very common same bacteria as acute ITIs throught to arise from reflux of urine or iatrogenic implant presents as fever and chills dysuria abx ```
50
chronic bacterial prostatitis
pts often have Hx of recurrent UTIs, dysuria, localized pain | Dx with PMNs in urine + culture
51
granulomatous prostatitis
most are secondary to ruptures acini | most common cause in BCG for TCC
52
BPH
enlargement of prostate in transition zone | stromal cells make 5hydroxy-reductase with converts T -> DHT -> increased GFs
53
Tx of BPH
alpha-blockers to decrease smooth mm tone 5-alpha reductase inhibitors tissue destruction
54
complications of BPH
obstruction of bladder (cystitis, peylonephritis, obstructive nephropathy) infection of internal genitalia urosepsis
55
adenocarcinoma of prostate
most common Dx non-cutaneous CA in men | 2nd leading cause of CA death
56
risk factors for adenocarcinoma of prostate
>50 african american FHx
57
pathogenesis of adenocarcinoma of prostate
androgen dependent multiplicity of genetic mutations prostatic intraepithlial neoplasm precursor lesion
58
screening for adenocarcinoma of prostate
DRE 70% of nodules are in post lobe | PSA
59
interpreting PSA values
PSA density- PSA increases with size of prostate PSA velocity- if changed significantly in 18 months more likely CA Free PSA- CA PSA usually binds proteins, therefore if most of PSA is free more likely benign
60
gleason grading system
tumor classified 1-5 with 5 worst
61
staging TMN system
T score- most important in extracapsular extension T2 confined 90% 5 yr T3 extracapsular T4 adjacent organs 10% 5 yr

Repro II (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions