Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Designated study period: daily cards > March 14 - Heme/onc > Flashcards

March 14 - Heme/onc Flashcards

(62 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Haldane effect

A

O2 affects affinity of hemoglobin for CO2/H+. Serves to increase CO2 delivery to lungs. Increase in PO2 increases CO2 and H+ offloading from Hb.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

LMWH compared with UH

A 
Better bioavailability
Can give SC
Less monitoring
Longer half half
Less easily reversible
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Direct thrombin inhibitors

A

Argatroban, dabigatran, bivalirudin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Direct factor Xa inhibitors

A

Apixaban, rivaroxaban. Oral, don’t require monitoing but not as easily reversible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Fondaparinux

A

Factor Xa inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Antiemetics used for chemo-induced vomiting

A

1) 5-HT3 antagonists: ondansetron and granisetron
2) Dopamine antagonists: metoclopromide, prochlorperazine
3) Neurokinin1 antagonists which prevent substance P release: aprepitant, fosaprepitant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Mutation in polycythemia vera (specifics)

A

Mutation in JAK2, which is involved in EPO signaling.

Normal pathway: EPO binds receptor. Receptor interacts with JAK2, which is a cytoplasmic tyrosine kinase receptor. Leads to downstream signling and activation of STATs.

Mutated pathway: JAK2 constitutively active resulting in overproduction of red cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Labs in sickle cell trait

A

Normal retic count, HGB, RBC indices and morphology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Integrins

A

Bind collagen, laminin, and fibronectin in the ECM to facilitate adhesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Acute intermittent porphyria: presentation, pathophysiology, prevention, treatment of acute attacks

A

Presentation: episodes of abdominal pain, N/V, peripheral neuropathy, neuropsych derancements, red urine that darkens on exposure to light and air due to exccess PBG

Pathophys: AD defect in porphobilinogen deaminase in heme synthesis pathway. Causes early heme intermediates to accumulate and cause NS damage.

Prevention: avoid alcohol, smoking, and CYP inducing drugs which increase ALA synthase activity

Treatment : dextrose and IV heme which decrease ALA synthase activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cutaneous porphyrias

A

Caused by defect later in pathway than AIP. Photosensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Heme synthesis pathway

A 
Glycine and succinyl coA 
ALA
Porphobiolinogen
many steps
Porphyrin IX
Heme
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Osteoblastic vs osteolytic bone mets: which cancers

A

Osteoblastic: prostate, small cell lung, hodgkin
Osteolytic: multiple myeloma, non-small cell lung, non-hodkin lymphoma, RCC, melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Congenital parvovirus B infection, type of virus

A

Mom: arthritis
Fetus: hydrops fetalis due to interruption of erythropoiesis in bone marrow
Virus type: ssDNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Congenital infections causing chorioretinitis

A

CMV or toxoplasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Congenital infections causing sensorineural hearing loss

A

Rubella, CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Presentation of follicular lymphoma

A

Indolent, waxing and waning course. Painles LAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Auer rods

A

Indicate myeloid differentation. Stain for peroxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

RhoGAM: MOA

A

Anti-Rh(D) IgG pooled from donor plasma (polyclonal antibody). Binds to Rh-pos fetal RBCs that enter maternal circulation to prevent them from interacting with the maternal immune system and being sequestered in the spleen. Amount given is small enough that there is no significant transplacental fetal hemolysis.

IgG is given because that is what is produced against Rh antigens (vs IgM made against ABO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Stop codons

A

UAA, UAG, UGA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Sickle cell mutation

A

Valine sub for glutamic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

HMP shunt: location, products, key enzymes

A

In cytoplasm.
Produces ribose 5-phosphate and NADPH
Enzymes: transaldolase and transketolase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Blood cells in EBV infectious mono

A

Infects B cells by binding CD21 receptor
CD8+ cells clonally expand to kill the virus-infected cells. Appear larger than usual with abundant cytoplasm, eccentrically placed nuclei, membrane that appears to adhere to neighboring cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Cyanide poisoning: pathophys, presentation, treatment

A

Pathophysiology: binds iron-containing cytochrome enzymes, inhibiting aerobic metabolism

Presentation: flushing, increased RR and HR, headache

Antidote: nitrites which induce formation of methemoglobin. Methemoglobin has high affinity for cyanide and sequesters it in blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Beta thalassemia: mutation
Multiple mutaitons that affect mRNA
26
Abciximab
GPIIb/IIIa receptor antagonist. Used for acute coronary syndrome, especially if undergoing percutaneous intervention
27
Aspirin OD treatment
Alkalinize urine with sodium bicarb
28
ADP receptor inhibitors: names, MOA, kinetics
Names: clopidogrel, ticagrelor, ticlopidine MOA: block ADP receptor preventing GIIb/IIIa expression Kinetics: prodrugs with slow onset of action, with exception of ticagrelor
29
Phosphodiesterase III inhibitors: names, effects
Names: cilostazol, dipyridamole Effects: inhibit platelet aggregation, vasodilate
30
Inflammatory carcinoma: presentation and pathophys
Presentation: itchy, generalized erythematous rash on breast with thick and coarse skin texture and breast edema. Underlying mass may or may not be present. Pathophys: cancer cells obstructing lymphatic drainage
31
Cryoprecipitate vs fresh frozen palsma
FFP has all coag factors; cryoprecipitate only has cold-soluble proteins
32
5-fluorouracil: MOA
pyrimidine analog that inhibits DNA synthesis by inhibiting thymidylate synthetase
33
Leucovorin: MOA and effects
Tetrahydrofolate derivative that doesn't require dihydrofolate reductase. USed to rescue normal cells from methotrexate. Can potentiate effects of 5-fluorouracil which uses THF as cofactor
34
Vinca alkyloids: MOA and toxicity
MOA: M phase specific, inhibit microtubule formation Toxicity: peripheral neuropathy
35
G2 phase cancer drugs
Bleomycin and doxorubicin
36
Why mature RBCs can't make heme
Heme occurs partly in cytoplasm, partly in mitochondria. Mautre red cells have lost their mitochondria
37
Warfarin induced skin necrosis
Complication seenin first few days of warfarin therapy due to transident hypercoagulable state
38
Hairy cell leukemia: presentation and diagnosis
Presentation: pancytopenia and massive splenomegaly in middle aged male Diagnosis: often a dry tap due to bone marrow fibrosis, massive splenomegaly due to cancer in the reticuloendothelial system as well as the marrow
39
Ringed sideroblasts
Seen in myelodysplastic syndrome due to mitochondrial iron accumulaiton around the nucleus
40
Tumor lysis syndrome
Emergency seen during chemo treatment of leukemia/lymphoma. Destroy a ton of cells at once resulting in release of ions and nucleic acids into the blood. Prevent with aggressive hdyration and medications.
41
Rasburicase
Recombinant urate oxidase. Promotes conversino of uric acid to soluble metabolites that are excreted in urine.
42
Translocation seen in burkitt lymphoma
t(8;14), c myc and IgH
43
desmopressin: two uses
1. Hemophilia A and von willebrand disease: increases factor VIII and vWF to stop bleeding 2. Central DI: binds V2 receptors on renal tubular cells, increasing water reabsorption and decreasing urine production
44
Leukemoid reaction
Benign leukocytosis in response to severe infection, malignancy, acute hemolysis. Presents with normal to elevates leukocyte alk phosphatase and basophilic granules in neutrophils on smear
45
Myoglobin O2 binding curve
Monomeric without cooperative binding. Saturates at much lwoer pO2 than HGB (higher O2 affinity)
46
Basis for hemoglobin electrophoresis: looking for HbS and HbC
Distinguishes based on charge. HbA has neg charged glutamate, HbS has nonpolar valine. HbC has pos charged lysine. Thus, HbA migrates farthest, HbC migrates the least toward the pos end of gel.
47
6-mercaptopurine
Inactivated by xanthine oxidase. Azathioprine is pro-drug
48
Distinguishing three types of childhood brain tumors
1. Pilocytic astrocytoma: low grade, usually in cerebellum, presents with headache and balance problems, solid and cystic components on imaging, rosenthal fibers on path 2. Medulloblastoma: high grade, always in cerebellum, solid mass, sheets of small blue cells 3. Ependymoma: obstructive hydrocephalus, rosettes
49
N-myc: what associated with
neuroblastoma, small cell lung cancer
50
Bleomycin MOA
Forms radicals that damage DNA and produce double strand breaks; acts in G2
51
Thyroid cancer with psammoma bodies
papillary carcinoma
52
cancer associated with myasthenic syndrome
small cell lung cancer
53
cancer associated with paraneoplastic hypercalcemia
squamous cell carcinoma
54
cisplatin toxicity
Nephrotoxicity, acoustic nerve damage. Prevent nephrotoxicity with aggressive hydration
55
von hippel lindau disease: cause and manifestationa
Caused by AD mutation on chromosome 3 Causes hemangioblastomas of retina, cerebellum, medulla; renal cell carcinoma
56
Meningioma vs ependymoma (path and population(
Meningioma: psammoma bodies, middle aged woman Ependymoma: perivascular pseeudorosettes, kids
57
Sacrococcygeal teratoma
Most common fetal neoplasm, benign, primitive streak remnant
58
Wilms tumor
Arises from embryonic renal cells due to WT del on chromosome 11. Presents as large palpable flank mass that distorts renal calyces
59
Doxorubicin MOA
DNA intercalater
60
Raltegravir MOA
integrase inhibitor for HIV
61
DIC in pregnancy
mediated by tissue factor release from placental trophoblasts
62
Metalloproteinases
enzymes that degrade ECM and basement membrane

Designated study period: daily cards (32 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions