Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

MD2002 > MD2002 Week 7 > Flashcards

MD2002 Week 7 Flashcards

(56 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

4 methods of abortion

A
  1. medical (up to 13weeks)
  2. vacuum aspiration/suction (7-15weeks)
  3. surgical d and e (15 weeks onward)
  4. late abortion (20weeks onward)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

under Abortion Act of 1967, abortion permitted when…

A

24 weeks, when necessary to prevent permanent injury or child has substantial risk of serious handicap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

accompanying rules under Abortion Act

A
  • 2 doctors must agree on abortion
  • females under 16 don’t need parental consent if they are competent
  • you, as a health care provider, can object to directly participating in abortion
  • fetus acquires same legal rights as newborn once outside of uterus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

ethical difficulties with the Abortion Act

A
  • what is a serious handicap?
  • rights of father
  • can a woman be forced to undergo C-section?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

outline St. George’s Healthcare NHS Trust v S case

A

“S” diagnosed w/ pre-eclampsia but wanted baby born naturally regardless of life threat. “S” self-reported depression and was forcibly admitted under Mental Health Act 1983 to undergo C-section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what was dispensation in “S” case wrongly granted? (3)

A
  1. capacity is not automatically effected due to pregnancy
  2. fetus has no legal right to life
  3. forced treatment for mental disorders under Mental Health Act don’t include physical treatments outside scope of mental disorder
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the takeaway from the “S” case?

A

woman cannot be forced to agree to treatment even if thinking is irrational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

euthanasia

A

X intentionally kills or permits Y’s death for Y’s benefit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

passive euthanasia

A

euthanasia where X withholds life prolonging treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

non-voluntary euthanasia

A

euthanasia when Y isn’t competent to express a preference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

pyramid pain killing

A

increasing doses of pain killers to alleviate pain, but with possibility of causing death (doctrine of double effect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

reasons for allowing euthanasia (5)

A
  1. consistency (suicide legal - why not allow those incapable of suicide?)
  2. passive to active (passive is slow)
  3. painkillers to lethal injection (is L.I. so different from painkillers morally? DDE)
  4. mercy/compassion
  5. regulation (policing, doctors less vulnerable)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

reasons against euthanasia (5)

A
  1. respect for sanctity of life
  2. palliative care
  3. exploitation/manipulation
  4. contrary to aims of medicine
  5. slippery slope
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

euthanasia in Netherlands is allowed if… (4)

A
  1. patient is incurable
  2. patient is suffering
  3. patient has requested to die
  4. performed by patient’s doctor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

where is assisted suicide legal?

A

this is legal in Switzerland and Oregan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

two euthanasia organizations in Switzerland

A
  1. EXIT (only for nationals)

2. Dignitas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

basis of hospice movement

A

emphasis from care focusing on quantity of life, towards quality of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how are cyclin-cdk complexes activated?

A
  1. protein kinases prime it w/ 2 P

2. activating protein phosphatase removes inhibitory P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Wee1

A

a cyclin-cdk inhibitory kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

cdc25

A

a cyclin-cdk activating phosphatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

cyclin-cdk complex characteristic of M phase

A

B-CDC2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

cyclin-cdk complex characteristic of G1 phase

A

D-CDK4/6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

cyclin-cdk complex characteristic of G1/S phase

24
Q

cyclin-cdk complex characteristic of beginning of S phase

25
cyclin-cdk complex characteristic of S/G2 phase
A-CDC2
26
how is cyclin-cdk complex degraded?
cyclin is ubiquitylated, signalling degradation by proteasome
27
how is S-phase gene activated?
p16 is inactive, allowing D-CDK4 to inactivate Rb, releasing transcription factor E2F
28
how is DNA replication (S phase) restricted to once per cycle?
cdc6 is phosphorylated and degraded from the pre-replicative complex so origin recognition complex (ORC) is freed
29
p53
a tumour suppressor gene
30
stages of mitosis
``` P: chromosomes condense M: connect to spindle fibre A: begin separating T: separation complete C: cells move apart ```
31
what proteins condense DNA?
condensin
32
what form the spindle fibres?
centrosome and centriole pair
33
outline nuclear envelope breakdown
cdk phosphorylates lamin and they move into new cells
34
what protein holds sister chromatids together
cohesin
35
why can you trace paternal ancestry in males?
X and Y chromosomes are not homologous (except pseudoautosomal region) so Y chromosome stable
36
what type of disomy causes Prader-Willi/Angelman Syndrome?
uniparental disomy causes these syndromes
37
when does meiosis I end and meiosis II begin in oogenesis
MI finishes at puberty, MII starts at fertilization
38
outline intrinsic-triggered apoptosis
release of cytochrome c from mitochondria triggers caspase cascade
39
cause of follicular lymphoma
this cancer is caused by over triggered bcl2
40
term for death after losing contact w/ basement membrane
anoikis
41
pyroptosis
cell death triggered by salmonella and activates caspases but also pro-inflammatory
42
route of cholymicrons into liver
they transport TG/C from GI. Split by lipoprotein lipase to release free fatty acids. Remnants taken up by liver
43
ideal cholesterol level
44
colestyramine and what it does (4)
basic anion exchange resin that 1. sequesters bile acids 2. decrease exogenous C absorption 3. increase metabolism of endogenous C 4. increase LDL receptors
45
mechanism of statins
HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor prevents mevalonate synthesis
46
2 pathways of mevalonate
1. cholesterol synthesis | 2. protein prenylation
47
major side effects of lipid lowering drugs (2)
1 myositis | 2. GI disturbances
48
outline thymocyte education
double positive thymocytes (CD4 and CD8) express low levels of TcR. T cells w/ TcRs that have low affinity for MHC die off for lack of 'positive selection'. Remaining mature and lose either CD4 or 8. Negative selection eliminates T cells that see MHC w high affinity.
49
interleukin
cytokine secreted by leucocyte
50
IL8
chemokine that recruits neutrophils and T cells to infection
51
IL2
autocrine cytokine that activates T cells
52
IL4
cytokine that activates B cells to produce IgE
53
IL12
cytokine that differentiates CD4 cells
54
what cells express Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRR), members of the toll-like receptor family (TLR)?
what receptors do dendritic cells express?
55
where are class II MHC molecules found?
these MHC are found on lymphocytes and macrophages
56
which muscle prevents patella from dislocating?
vastus medialis prevents this bone from dislocating

MD2002 (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions