Medications Encountered General Dermatology Flashcards

(83 cards)

1
Q

Bleaching of clothing and hair may occur with the use of what topical agent?

A

Benzoyl peroxide

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2
Q

Rosacea is an indication for which topical agent?

A

Metronidazole

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3
Q

Post-inflammatory pigmentation may be improved with application of what topical agents?

A

Azelaic Acid

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4
Q

Topical dapson may cause a non-permanent orange discoloration of the skin when combined with

A

Benzoyl peroxide

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5
Q

Which oral ABX may have a cross-reactivity with PCN allergy?

A

Cephalosporin

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6
Q

Medication of choice used to treat Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

A

Doxycycline

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7
Q

Ochronosis may be associated with long term use of

A

Minocycline

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8
Q

A potential serious side effect of oral Clindamycin is

A

C. Difficile diarrhea

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9
Q

A potential serious side effect of oral Clindamycin is

A

C. Difficile diarrhea

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10
Q

Inhibition of folic acid synthesis is the mode of action for?

A

Sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprin

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11
Q

Best class of medications to treat canidiasis

A

Azoles

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12
Q

Tavaborole 5% antifungal nail lacquer should be applied daily to affected nails for how long

A

48 weeks

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13
Q

The medication of choice to treat tinea capital caused by M. canis is?

A

Griseofulvin

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14
Q

The recommended terbinafine dosing for an individual weighing over 59 kilograms?

A

250mg/day

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15
Q

Oral antifungal have many medication interactions. Which one has the least interference with metabolism of other medications?

A

Terbanifine

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16
Q

Which oral antifungal medicatio. Is the drug of choice when treating candida infections?

A

Fluconazole

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17
Q

Recommended lab monitoring for the patient on an oral antifungal includes?

A

Liver enzymes

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18
Q

Which topical antiviral agents is available OTC?

A

Docosanol

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19
Q

Valacyclovir is often the preferred medication over acyclovir to treat HSV infections due to?

A

Less frequent dosing schedule

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20
Q

The recommended dosing schedule of famcyclovir for herpes zoster is?

A

500 mg every 8 hours x 7 days

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21
Q

Patients that have a hypersensitivity to ragweed and chrysanthemums may also have an allergic reaction to

A

Pyrethrin

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22
Q

Which topical antiparasitic agent has obicidal actions?

A

Malathion

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23
Q

Intake of alcoholic beverages may cause a potential disulfiram-like reaction with the topical use of?

A

Benzoyl alcohol

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24
Q

A pregnant woman has been diagnosed with scabies. Which antiparasitic agent would be appropriate?

A

Precipitated sulfur

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25
Which medication used to treat scabies has anti-pruritic actions?
Crotamiton
26
The available tables strength of Ivermectin?
3 mg
27
Albendazole is indicated for treatment of
Cutaneous larva migrans
28
Hydroxychloroquine sulfate is FDA indicated for the treatment of?
Lupus erythematous
29
The most common ocular side effect associated with hydroxychloroquine sulfate is?
Loss of accommodation
30
FDA indication for the use of Azathioprine is?
Solid organ transplant rejection prophylaxis
31
A thiopurine methyltransferase assay (TMPT) should be performed prior to the initial administration of what medication?
Azathioprine
32
Hydroxychloroquine sulfate recommended dosing is
200-400 mg/day
33
Methotrexate may be used to treat Bullous Pemphigoid, Atopic Dermatitis and pityriasis rubra pilaris. But only has FDA indications for
Sezary syndrome, severe psoriasis
34
A liver biopsy or liver scan is recommended when the total cumulative dosage of Methotrexate reaches
1.5 grams
35
Recommended dosage of oral dapsone is
100-200 mg/day
36
Oral dapsone often causes oxidative stress to the RBCs leading to?
Methemoglobin
37
Recommended baseline laboratory monitoring prior to starting a patient on oral dapsone is
G6PD
38
Recommended dosing for mycophenolate mofetil is
500 mg QID
39
Cyclosporine is FDA indicated for treatment of
Psoriasis
40
Cyclosporine can be most toxic to
Renal system
41
Can cyclosporine be used during pregnancy?
Yes
42
Prednisolone is preferred over prednisone in patients with
Liver dysfunction
43
Systemic corticosteroids may worsen which condition?
Psoriasis
44
The term tachyphylaxia is defined as
Rapid decrease to medication effectiveness after repeated administration
45
An appropriate topical steroid vehicle to treat scalp dermatitis is
Gel, liquid
46
Myopathies cab be a side effect of what
Systemic Corticosteroids
47
Acitretin should not be used in women of child bearing potential unless essential. Which pregnancy testing schedule should be followed when a woman of child bearing potential completes therapy?
Every 3 months x 3 years
48
Desired cumulative dosing of isotretinoin is
120-150 mg/kg
49
Crisaborole is classified as a
PDE4
50
Which biologic has an indication to treat psoriasis in children?
Etanercept (approved for 4 and older), Ustekinumab (approved for 13 and older), secukunumab (approved for 6 and older)
51
Which biologic has indication to treat hidradentitis suppurativa?
Adalimumab
52
Which biologic is associated with worsening inflammatory Bowel disease?
Ixekinumab, secukinumab, brodalumab
53
IL 17 biologics include
Secukinumab, ixekizumab, brodalumab
54
Which biologic is given as a maintenance dose subcutaneous every 12 weeks?
Ustekinumab (Stelara)
55
Which biologic medication has indication for chronic urticaria?
Omalizumab (Xolair)
56
Which biologic has an indication for atopic dermatitis?
Dupilumab (dupixent)
57
Which test must be obtained prior yo starting a biologic for treatment of psoriasis?
TB test
58
The mode of topical retinoids include
Increasing microcomedone formation, inhibition of keratinocyte over proliferation, reduction of inflammatory lesions
59
Which topical retinoids do not cause photosensitivity?
Adapalene
60
Which topical retinoid is approved for the treatment of psoriasis?
Tazarotene
61
Bexarotene is indicated for
CTCL stage 1A and 1B
62
Calcineurin inhibitors are FDA indicated for treatment of
Psoriasis
63
The usual dosing for topical vitamin D analogues is
BID
64
The MAJOR reaction of first-generation antihistamines that differs from 2nd generation os
Sedation
65
Macrolide antibiotics, azole antifungal and SSRIs may increase serum levels of 1st generation antihistamines creating potential risks of the
Cardiovascular system
66
The major advantage of prescribing second-generation antihistamines instead of first-generation antihistamines is
Very limited sedation and anticholinergic activity
67
Which is a tricyclic antidepressant that possesses potent H1 and H2 antihistamine properties?
Doxepin
68
The nurse administering omalizumab in the office monitors the patient for any signs of
Anaphylaxis
69
The recommendeded dosing of omalizumab is 150 mg to 300 mg SQ every
Month
70
Spironolactone improves acne by
Blocking androgen levels
71
Amitriptyline may be used off-label to treat post-herpetic neuralgia. Usual starting dose is
10 to 25 mg at HS
72
When should paroxetine be taken?
At night time
73
The mode of venlafaxine is to inhibit reuptake of
Dopamine, norepinephrine and serotonin
74
Bupropion is different from other antidepressants as its mode of action has no effect upon
Serotonin
75
The FDA indication for pimozide is
Tourette's syndrome
76
A patient taking pumozide develops involuntary rhythmic movements of the face. This is termed
Tardive dyskinesia
77
The FDA package labeling for Imiquimod 5% cream when used for actinic keratosis us to apply to lesions
2x weekly
78
Blocking the action of thymidylate synthetase is the mode of action for
5-flouracil
79
The mode of action for rituximab is binding to the B cell surface antigen of
CD20
80
Vismodegib is indicated for the treatment of
BCC
81
Dysguesia may be an adverse reaction of Vismodegib. This term describes
Distorted sense of taste
82
Guselkumab (tremfya) is effective in treating psoriasis by the following action:
Blocks IL23
83
Which of the TNFs has a negated arm which reduces transmission across the placental border?
Certolizumab (cimzia)