Medium Difficulty 2 Flashcards
1
Q
What is Early Start Date (ES)?
A
In the critical path method, the earliest possible date on which a schedule activity can start without violating any schedule constraint.
2
Q
What is Late Finish Date (LF)?
A
In the critical path method, the latest possible date that a schedule activity can complete without delaying the project or violating any schedule constraint.
3
Q
What is Late Start Date (LS)?
A
In the critical path method, the latest possible date that a schedule activity can begin without delaying the project or violating any schedule constraint.
4
Q
What is a Near-Critical Activity?
A
A schedule activity that has low total float.
5
Q
What is Budget at Completion (BAC)?
A
The budget for all the work on the project. It is also the total planned value for the project.
6
Q
What is Cost Performance Index (CPI)?
A
A measure of cost efficiency on a project. It is the ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost (AC).
7
Q
What is Cost Variance (CV)?
A
It is the amount of budget deficit or surplus at a given point in time, and is expressed as the difference between earned value (EV) and actual cost (AC).
8
Q
What is a Schedule Performance Index (SPI)?
A
A measure of schedule efficiency expressed as the ratio of Earned Value (EV) to Planned Value (PV).
9
Q
What is Schedule Variance (SV)?
A
A measure of schedule performance expressed as the difference between the Earned Value (EV) and the Planned Value (PV).
10
Q
What is To-Complete-Performance-Index (TCPI)?
A
The cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a BAC (or EAC) target. It is the ratio of “remaining work” to the “funds remaining”.
11
Q
What is Actual Cost (AC)?
A
The “actual” cost incurred for the work accomplished. It is also referred to as the actual cost of work performed (ACWP).
12
Q
What is Earned Value (EV)?
A
The estimated (monetary) value of the work accomplished expressed in terms of the budget authorized for that work. It is also referred to as the budgeted cost of work performed (BCWP).
13
Q
What is Planned Value (PV)?
A
The authorized budget assigned to scheduled work.
14
Q
What is a Control Account?
A
A management control point in the WBS where Earned Value measurements take place. It is also known as a Cost Account.
15
Q
Define Earned Value Management (EVM).
A
A project management methodology that integrates scope, schedule and cost to measure project performance and progress in an objective manner.
16
Q
What are Activity Attributes?
A
Additional details to describe an activity, such as activity codes, predecessor activities, successor activities, logical relationships, leads and lags, resource requirements, imposed dates, constraints, and assumptions.
17
Q
What is an Approved Change Request?
A
A change request that has been processed through the integrated change control process and approved.
18
Q
What is a Change Request?
A
A formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline. It may include corrective actions, preventive actions, defect repairs, and updates to project documentation and plans.
19
Q
What is a Communications Management Plan?
A
A component of the project, program, or portfolio management plan that describes how, when, and by whom information about the project will be administered and disseminated.
20
Q
Define Contract.
A
A mutually binding agreement that obligates the seller to provide the specified product or service or result and obligates the buyer to pay for it.
21
Q
What is a Cost Management Plan?
A
A component of a project or program management plan that describes how costs will be planned, structured, and controlled.
22
Q
What is a Cost Baseline?
A
The approved time-phased budget of the project (excluding any management reserves) that is used to compare actual costs to planned costs in order to determine variance and need for preventive or corrective action.
23
Q
What is Estimate at Completion (EAC)?
A
The expected total cost of completing all the work on a project expressed as the sum of the actual cost to date and the estimate to complete.
24
Q
What is Estimate to Complete (ETC)?
A
The expected cost to complete all the “remaining work” on a project.
25
What is a Resource Management Plan?
A component of the project management plan that describes how project resources are acquired, allocated, monitored, and controlled.
26
What are Work Performance Reports?
The physical or electronic representation of work performance information compiled in project documents, intended to generate decisions, actions, or awareness.
27
What are Procurement Documents?
The documents utilized in bid and proposal activities, including Invitation for Bid, Invitation for Negotiations, Request for Information, Request for Quotation, Request for Proposal and seller's responses.
28
What is a Procurement Management Plan?
A component of the project or program management plan that describes how a project team will acquire goods and services from outside of the performing organization.
29
What is a Project Calendar?
A calendar of working and non-working days for a project. It typically defines holidays, weekends, and shift hours.
30
What is a Project Charter?
A document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the project. It outlines the project objectives, identifies the main stakeholders, and defines the authority of the project manager.
31
What is a Project Management Plan?
The document that describes how the project will be executed, monitored and controlled, and closed.
32
What is a Project Organization Chart?
A document that graphically depicts the project team members and their interrelationships for a specific project.
33
What is a Project Schedule?
An output of a schedule model that presents linked activities with planned dates, durations, milestones, and resources.
34
What is a Project Schedule Network Diagram?
A graphical representation of the logical relationships among the project schedule activities. Always drawn from left to right to reflect project work chronology.
35
What is a Project Scope Statement?
The description of the project scope, including major deliverables, and exclusions. It provides a basis for making future project decisions and provides a common understanding of project scope among the stakeholders.
36
What is a Quality Management Plan?
A component of the project or program management plan that describes how applicable policies, procedures, and guidelines will be implemented to achieve the quality objectives.
37
What is a Requested Change?
A formally documented change request that is submitted for approval to the integrated change control process.
38
What is a Risk Management Plan?
A component of the project, program, or portfolio management plan that describes how risk management activities will be structured and performed.
39
What is a Risk Register?
A repository in which outputs of risk management processes are recorded. It typically includes the list of identified risks along with their description, category, probability, impact, planned responses, owners and status.
40
What is a Schedule Baseline?
The approved version of a schedule model that can be changed only through formal change control procedures and is used as a basis for comparison to actual results.
41
What is a Schedule Management Plan?
A component of the project or program management plan that establishes the criteria and the activities for developing, monitoring, and controlling the schedule.
42
What is a Scope Management Plan?
A component of the project or program management plan that describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and validated.
43
What is a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?
A deliverable-oriented hierarchical breakdown of all the work that needs to be done in order to achieve the project objectives.
44
What is a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) Dictionary?
A document that provides additional details on each element of the WBS, such as a unique ID for each element, description of the work to be done, deliverables, assumptions, milestones, etc.
45
What are Accepted Deliverables?
The deliverables that meet the acceptance criteria and have been formally signed off by the customer or sponsor through the Validate Scope process. These deliverables may be reviewed by the customer before giving a final sign-off on the entire project.
46
Define Acquisition.
Obtaining human and material resources necessary to perform project activities.
47
What is Activity Duration Estimate?
A quantitative assessment of the likely amount of time required to complete an activity.
48
What are Resource Requirements?
The types and quantities of resources required for each activity in a work package.
49
What is an Agreement?
Any document or communication that defines the initial intentions of a project. This can take the form of a contract, memorandum of understanding (MOU), letters of agreement, verbal agreements, email, etc.
50
What is Basis of Estimates?
Supporting documentation outlining the details used in establishing project estimates such as assumptions, constraints, level of detail, ranges, and confidence levels.
51
What is a Business Case?
A documented economic feasibility study used to establish validity of the benefits of a selected component lacking sufficient definition, and that is used as a basis for the authorization of further project management activities. In simple terms, it's the justification for doing a project.
52
What are Closed Procurements?
Project contracts or other procurement agreements that have been formally acknowledged by the proper authorizing agent as being finalized and signed off.
53
What are Cost Forecasts?
An estimate or prediction of project's future cost performance based on information and knowledge available at the time of the forecast. These are typically expressed as estimate to complete (ETC), estimate at completion (EAC), budget at completion (BAC), and to-complete performance index (TCPI).
54
What are Quality Control Measurements?
The documented results of Control Quality activities.
55
What are Quality Metrics?
A description of a project or product attribute and how to measure it.
56
What is Schedule Data?
The collection of information for describing and controlling the schedule.
57
What are Schedule Forecasts?
An estimate or prediction of a project's future schedule performance based on information and knowledge available at the time of the forecast. These are typically expressed in terms of schedule variance (SV) and schedule performance index (SPI).
58
What are Seller Proposals?
Formal responses from sellers to a request for proposal or other procurement document specifying the price, commercial terms of sale, and technical specifications or capabilities the seller will do for the requesting organization that, if accepted, would bind the seller to perform the resulting agreement.
59
What are Source Selection Criteria?
A set of attributes desired by the buyer which a seller is required to meet or exceed to be selected for a contract.
60
What is a Benefits Management Plan?
The documented explanation defining the processes for creating, maximizing, and sustaining the benefits provided by a project or program.
61
What are Bid Documents?
All documents used to solicit information, quotations, or proposals from prospective sellers.
62
What is a Change Management Plan?
A component of the project management plan that establishes the change control board, documents the extent of its authority, and describes how the change control system will be implemented.
63
What is a Configuration Management Plan?
A component of the project management plan that describes how to identify and account for project artifacts under configuration control, and how to record and report changes to them.
64
What are Test and Evaluation Documents?
Project documents that describe the activities used to determine if the product meets the quality objectives stated in the quality management plan.
65
What is a Requirements Management Plan?
A component of the Project Management Plan that describes how project and product requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed throughout the project.
66
What are Project Funding Requirements?
Requirements that specify when funds need to be pumped into the project. They are derived from the cost baseline. Usually, funds are supplied in lump sum at specific times during the project.
67
What is a Change Log?
A document used for recording all the changes that occur during a project and their current status. It also includes the dates when changes were made and the corresponding impact to schedule, cost and risk.
68
What is an Issue Log?
A document used for recording and monitoring the resolution of issues.
69
What is a Stakeholder Register?
A document that contains the name and contact information of all the stakeholders, their assessment (major requirements, expectations, influence), and their classification (internal/external and supporter/neutral/resistor).
70
What is a Procurement Statement of Work?
A description of the procurement item in sufficient detail to allow prospective sellers to determine if they are capable of providing the products, services, or results. It includes specifications, quantity desired, quality levels, performance data, period of performance, work location, and other requirements.
71
What are Organizational Process Assets?
Plans, processes, policies, procedures, and knowledge bases that are specific to and used by the performing organization.
72
What is Contingency Reserve?
Time or money allocated in the schedule or cost baseline for known risks (or "known-unknowns") with active response strategies. It is also known as Contingency Allowance.
73
What is Leadership?
Leadership is the ability to lead a team and inspire them to do their jobs well.
74
What are Operations?
Ongoing activities that produce repetitive outputs (e.g. manufacturing, accounting, etc.).
75
Define Methodology.
A system of practices, techniques, procedures, and rules used by those who work in a discipline.
76
What is an Objective?
Something toward which work is to be directed, a strategic position to be attained, a purpose to be achieved, a result to be obtained, a product to be produced, or a service to be performed.
77
Define Portfolio.
Projects, programs, subsidiary portfolios, and operations managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives.
78
Define Practice.
A specific type of professional or management activity that contributes to the execution of a process and that may employ one or more techniques and tools.
79
Define Product.
An artifact that is produced, is quantifiable, and can be either an end item in itself or a component item. It is also described as material and goods.
80
Define Program.
A group of related projects, subprograms, and program activities managed in a coordinated way to obtain benefits not available from managing them individually.
81
What is Program Management?
The application of knowledge, skills, and principles to a program to achieve the program objectives and obtain benefits and control not available by managing program components individually.
82
Define Project.
A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result.
83
What is a Project Life Cycle?
A series of phases from concept to closure through which a project passes through. For example, phases for an IT project could be requirements, design, development, testing and implementation.
84
What is Project Management Body of Knowledge?
A term that describes the knowledge within the profession of project management. The project management body of knowledge includes proven traditional practices that are widely applied as well as innovative practices that are emerging in the profession.
85
What is a Project Management Office (PMO)?
A management structure that standardizes the project-related governance processes and facilitates the sharing of resources, methodologies, tools, and techniques.
86
Who is a Project Manager (PM)?
The person assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives.
87
Who is a Sponsor?
A person or group who provides resources and support for the project, program, or portfolio and is accountable for enabling success.
88
What is Business Value?
The tangible and intangible benefits from an investment.
89
What is a Sponsoring Organization?
The entity responsible for providing the project's sponsor and a conduit for project funding or other project resources.
90
What are Enterprise Environmental Factors?
The external or internal factors, not under the immediate control of the team, that influence, constrain, or direct the project, program, or portfolio. Examples include organizational culture, industry standards, existing infrastructure and human capital, marketplace conditions.
91
What is Progressive Elaboration?
Continuously improving and detailing a plan as more detailed and specific information is available, and thereby producing more accurate and complete plans.
92
What is McGregor's Theory X?
A theory that assumes that the average worker is inherently lazy, avoids work and responsibility, and requires supervision.
93
What is McGregor's Theory Y?
A theory that assumes that the average worker is willing to get the job done without constant supervision and seeks opportunity for personal improvement and self-respect.
94
What is McClelland's Theory of Needs?
A theory that says that an individual's needs are acquired over time and are shaped by his/her life experiences. Most of the needs can be classified into 3 categories - Achievement, Affiliation and Power. It is also known as Acquired Needs Theory, Three Needs Theory, or Learned Needs Theory.
95
What is the definition of Respect, in the context of ethics and professional conduct?
Our duty to show a high regard for ourselves, others, and the resources entrusted to us.
96
What is the definition of Fairness, in the context of ethics and professional conduct?
Our duty to make decisions and act impartially and objectively.
97
What is the definition of Honesty, in the context of ethics and professional conduct?
Our duty to understand the truth and act in a truthful manner both in our communications and in our conduct.
98
Define System.
A collection of various components that together can produce results not obtainable by the individual components alone.
99
Define Governance.
The framework within which authority is exercised in organizations.
100
Who is a Functional Manager?
Someone with management authority over an organizational unit (such as manufacturing, finance, IT, etc.) within a functional organization. The manager of any group that actually makes a product or performs a service. Sometimes called a Line Manager.
101
What is a Functional Organization?
An organizational structure in which staff is grouped by areas of specialization (such as engineering, marketing, IT, production, finance, etc.) and the project manager has limited authority to assign work and apply resources.
102
What is a Matrix Organization?
Any organizational structure, which is a hybrid of functional organization and projectized organization, where resources are controlled functionally by their functional manager, and for the project requirements by the project manager.
103
What is a Performing Organization?
An enterprise whose personnel are most directly involved in doing the work of the project or program.
104
What is a Projectized (or project-oriented) Organization?
An organizational hierarchy where resources are allocated on a dedicated basis to a project and are controlled by the project manager.
105
What are Regulations?
Requirements imposed by a governmental body.
106
What is a Weak Matrix Organization?
An organizational hierarchy that maintains many of the characteristics of a functional organization, and the project manager role is more of a coordinator or expediter than that of a true project manager.
107
What is a Strong Matrix Organization?
An organizational hierarchy that has many of the characteristics of the projectized organization, and can have full-time project managers with considerable authority and full-time project administrative staff.
108
What is a Balanced Matrix Organization?
An organizational hierarchy that recognizes the need for a project manager, but does not provide the project manager with the full authority over the project and project funding.
109
What is a Composite Organization?
An organizational hierarchy which may involve all structures (such as functional, matrix or projectized) at various levels.
110
What is the Acquire Resources process?
The process of obtaining team members, facilities, equipment, materials, supplies, and other resources necessary to complete project work.
111
What is the Control Procurements process?
The process of managing procurement relationships, monitoring contract performance, making changes and corrections as appropriate, and closing out contracts.
112
What is the Close Project or Phase process?
The process of finalizing all activities for the project, phase, or contract.
113
What is the Closing Process Group?
The process(es) performed to formally complete or close a project, phase, or contract.
114
What is the Collect Requirements process?
The process of determining, documenting, and managing stakeholder needs and requirements to meet project objectives.
115
What is the Conduct Procurements process?
The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract.
116
What is the Control Costs process?
The process of monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and manage changes to the cost baseline.
117
What is the Control Schedule process?
The process of monitoring the status of the project to update the project schedule and manage changes to the schedule baseline.
118
What is the Control Scope process?
The process of monitoring the status of project and product scope, and managing changes to the scope baseline.
119
What is the Create WBS process?
The process of subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components.
120
What is the Define Activities process?
The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables.
121
What is the Define Scope process?
The process of developing a detailed description of the project and product.
122
What is the Determine Budget process?
The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline.
123
What is the Plan Resource Management process?
The process of defining how to estimate, acquire, manage, and utilize physical and team resources.
124
What is the Develop Project Charter process?
The process of developing a document that formally authorizes the existence of a project and provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities.
125
What is the Develop Project Management Plan process?
The process of defining, preparing, and coordinating all plan components and consolidating them into an integrated project management plan.
126
What is the Develop Team process?
The process of improving competences, team member interaction, and overall team environment to enhance project performance.
127
What is the Develop Schedule process?
The process of analyzing activity sequences, durations, resource requirements, and schedule constraints to create the project schedule model for project execution and monitoring and controlling.
128
What is the Direct and Manage Project Work process?
The process of leading and performing the work defined in the Project Management Plan and implementing approved changes to achieve the project's objectives.
129
What is the Manage Communications process?
The process of ensuring timely and appropriate collection, creation, distribution, storage, retrieval, management, monitoring, and the ultimate disposition of project information.
130
What is the Estimate Activity Durations process?
The process of estimating the number of work periods needed to complete individual activities with the estimated resources.
131
What is the Estimate Activity Resources process?
The process of estimating team resources and the type and quantities of material, equipment, and supplies necessary to perform project work.
132
What is the Estimate Costs process?
The process of developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project work.
133
What is the Executing Process Group?
The processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project requirements.
134
What is the Identify Risks process?
The process of identifying individual risks as well as sources of overall risk and documenting their characteristics.
135
What is the Identify Stakeholders process?
The process of identifying project stakeholders regularly and analyzing and documenting relevant information regarding their interests, involvement, interdependencies, influence, and potential impact on project success.
136
What is the Initiating Process Group?
The processes performed to define a new project or a new phase of an existing project by obtaining authorization to start the project or phase.
137
What is the Manage Team process?
The process of tracking team member performance, providing feedback, resolving issues, and managing changes to optimize project performance.
138
What is the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?
The process of communicating and working with stakeholders to meet their needs and expectations, address issues, and foster appropriate stakeholder involvement.
139
What is the Monitor and Control Project Work process?
The process of tracking, reviewing, and reporting overall progress to meet the performance objectives defined in the project management plan.
140
What is the Monitor Risks process?
The process of monitoring the implementation of agreed-upon risk response plans, tracking identified risks, identifying and analyzing new risks, and evaluating risk process effectiveness throughout the project.
141
What is the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?
The processes that track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project against the Project Management Plan; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes.
142
What is the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
The process of reviewing all change requests, approving changes and managing changes to deliverables, organizational process assets, project documents, and the Project Management Plan, and communicating the decisions.
143
What is the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?
The process of prioritizing individual project risks for further analysis or action by assessing their probability of occurrence and impact as well as other characteristics.
144
What is the Manage Quality process?
The process of translating the quality management plan into executable quality activities that incorporate the organization's quality policies into the project.
145
What is the Control Quality process?
The process of monitoring and recording results of executing the quality management activities to assess performance and ensure the project outputs are complete, correct, and meet customer expectations.
146
What is the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?
The process of numerically analyzing the combined effect of identified individual project risks and other sources of uncertainty on overall project objectives.
147
What is the Plan Communications Management process?
The process of developing an appropriate approach and plan for project communication activities based on the information needs of each stakeholder or group, available organizational assets, and the needs of the project.
148
What is the Plan Procurement Management process?
The process of documenting project procurement decisions, specifying the approach, and identifying potential sellers.
149
What is the Plan Quality Management process?
The process of identifying quality requirements and/or standards for the project and its deliverables, and documenting how the project will demonstrate compliance with quality requirements and/or standards.
150
What is the Plan Risk Management process?
The process of defining how to conduct risk management activities for a project.
151
What is the Plan Risk Responses process?
The process of developing options, selecting strategies, and agreeing on actions to address overall project risk exposure, as well as to treat individual project risks.
152
What is the Planning Process Group?
The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project was undertaken to achieve.
153
What is the Sequence Activities process?
The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities.
154
What is the Validate Scope process?
The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.
155
What is the Monitor Communications process?
The process of ensuring that the information needs of the project and its stakeholders are met.
156
What is the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process?
The process of monitoring project stakeholder relationships, and tailoring strategies for engaging stakeholders through the modification of engagement strategies and plans.
157
What is the Plan Cost Management process?
The process of defining how the project costs will be estimated, budgeted, managed, monitored, and controlled.
158
What is the Plan Schedule Management process?
The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule.
159
What is the Plan Scope Management process?
The process of creating a scope management plan that documents how the project and product scope will be defined, validated, and controlled.
160
What is the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process?
The process of developing approaches to involve project stakeholders, based on their needs, expectations, interests, and potential impact on the project.
161
What is the Control Resources process?
The process of ensuring that the physical resources assigned and allocated to the project are available as planned, as well as monitoring the planned versus actual utilization of resources and performing corrective action as necessary.
162
What is the Implement Risk Responses process?
The process of implementing agreed-upon risk response plans.
163
What is the Manage Project Knowledge process?
The process of using existing knowledge and creating new knowledge to achieve the project's objectives and contribute to organizational learning.
164
What is the definition of a Process?
A systematic series of activities directed towards causing an end result such that one or more inputs will be acted upon to create one or more outputs.
165
What is Present Value (PV)?
The current value of future cash flow, discounted to reflect the time value of money and other factors such as investment risk.
166
What is Return on Investment (ROI)?
It is the ratio of the profit (or loss) to the amount invested in the project.
167
What is a Murder Board?
A group of people who try to find reasons to not pursue a project.
168
What is the Law of Diminishing Returns?
The theory that after a certain point, the increase in input of a process does not lead to a proportional increase in the output.
169
What is Working Capital?
Current Assets minus Current Liabilities.
170
Define Reward Power.
The power of directly or indirectly rewarding the team member. Rewards may be in the form of salary, promotion, bonus or better work assignments.
171
Define Expert Power.
The power derived from special knowledge or expertise.
172
Define Referent Power.
The power derived from personality traits or charisma. It is also known as Charisma Power.
173
Define Legitimate Power.
The formal authority or power derived from the position. Team members perceive the project manager as being officially empowered to issue orders. It is also known as Formal Power.
174
Define Coercive Power.
The power to invoke discipline or negative consequences. It may be in the form of suspension, reprimand, unpleasant assignments, etc. It is also known as Punitive or Penalty Power.
175
What is a Buffer?
A reserve in the Project Management Plan to account for cost and/or schedule risk. It is also known as Reserve.
176
What is a Common Cause?
A source of variation that is inherent in the system and predictable. On a control chart, it appears as random data points within the control limits. It is also referred to as random cause.
177
What is a Dependency?
A logical relationship between two activities, or between an activity and a milestone. The four possible types are: Finish-to-Start; Finish-to-Finish; Start-to-Start; and Start-to-Finish. It is also known as Logical Relationship.
178
What is Float?
The difference between the time available for performing an activity and the time required to complete it. It is also known as Slack.
179
What is a Precedence Relationship?
The term used for a logical relationship in the Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM). Also referred to as logical relationship, and dependency.
180
What is a Slack?
Another name for float.
181
What is a Summary Activity?
A group of related activities, which are displayed and reported as a single activity, between two milestones or in a given time period. Mainly used for management communication and better control. It is also known as Hammock Activity.
182
What is a Cause and Effect Diagram?
A decomposition technique that helps trace an undesirable effect back to its root cause. It is also known as Fishbone Diagram or Ishikawa Diagram.
183
What is Preferential Logic also known as?
Discretionary Dependency.
184
What is Preferred Logic also known as?
Discretionary Dependency.
185
What is the Deming Cycle?
The checklist of the four stages which you must go through to get from "problem-faced" to "problem solved". The four stages are Plan-Do-Check-Act. It is also known as Shewhart Cycle. It is used for continuous improvement.
186
What is a Pure Risk?
A risk that only provides a chance for a loss. It is also known as an Insurable risk.
187
What is a Non Disclosure Agreement (NDA)?
A legal agreement between parties that outlines confidential material, knowledge, or information that the parties wish to share with each other for certain purposes, but wish to restrict access to by third parties. It is also known as Confidentiality Agreement.
188
What is Analogous Estimating?
An estimating technique that uses duration or cost information from a previous, similar activity as the basis for estimating a future activity.
189
What is Bottom-up Estimating?
A method of estimating project duration or cost by aggregating the estimates of the lower-level components of the work breakdown structure (WBS) into an overall estimate for the entire activity or work package.
190
What is Brainstorming?
A group creativity technique by which a group tries to find a solution for a specific problem by gathering a list of ideas spontaneously contributed by its members. It is particularly useful for identifying risks.
191
What is a Change Control System?
A set of procedures for managing and controlling changes to the project documents and deliverables. It's a subset of the Configuration Management System.
192
What is Code of Accounts?
Any numbering system used to uniquely identify each component of the WBS.
193
What is a Configuration Management System?
A collection of procedures used to track project artifacts and monitor and control changes to these artifacts. It is a subsystem of the overall project management system.
194
What is a Control Chart?
A graphical display of the results of a process over time and against established control limits. Control Charts are used to determine whether a process is "in control" or in need of adjustment.
195
What is Cost of Quality (CoQ)?
The total cost of all quality related efforts throughout the product life cycle. It includes prevention and appraisal costs (cost of conformance), and failure costs (cost of non-conformance).
196
What is Crashing?
A schedule compression technique that involves determining an approach that brings maximum reduction in project duration with least incremental cost and risk, and without changing the scope.
197
What is Decision Tree Analysis?
A technique that employs decision trees to compare the outcomes of different scenarios in terms of their expected monetary values, in order to support decisions. It incorporates the probability and the cost or reward of each scenario to calculate the expected monetary value of the scenario.
198
What is Decomposition?
A technique for breaking down major project scope and deliverables into smaller, more manageable components.
199
What is Expert Judgment?
Judgment provided based upon expertise in an application area, knowledge area, discipline, industry, etc. as appropriate for the activity being performed. Such expertise may be provided by any group or person with specialized education, knowledge, skill, experience, or training.
200
What is Fast Tracking?
A schedule compression technique that reduces the project duration by performing critical path activities in parallel that were originally planned to be performed in sequence.
201
Define Inspection.
Examination of a work product to determine whether it conforms to documented standards.
202
What is a Lag?
A time delay between the start or finish of an activity and the start and finish of its successors in a schedule network.
203
What is a Lead?
The time period by which a successor activity is accelerated (or can start earlier) with respect to the predecessor on a schedule network.
204
What is a Milestone Schedule?
A project schedule in summary form that identifies major milestones.
205
What is an Organizational Breakdown Structure (OBS)?
A hierarchical structure of the organization that relates each project activity to the organizational unit responsible for it.
206
What is Parametric Estimating?
An estimating technique that uses a statistical relationship established based on historical data, to calculate an estimate for activity parameters, such as scope, cost, budget, and duration.
207
What is Precedence Diagramming Method (PDM)?
A technique used for constructing a schedule model in which activities are represented by nodes and are graphically linked by one or more logical relationships to show the sequence in which the activities are to be performed. It is also known as Activity-On-Node (AON) method.
208
What is a Probability and Impact Matrix?
A common way to categorize risks as low, moderate, or high by combining the two dimensions of a risk: its probability of occurrence and its impact on objectives, if it occurs.
209
What is a Project Management System?
The aggregation of the processes, tools, techniques, methodologies, resources, and procedures to manage a project.
210
What is Reserve Analysis?
An analytical technique to establish a contingency (or buffer) for project duration or budget to mitigate schedule or cost risks.
211
What is Resource Leveling?
A resource optimization technique to produce a resource-limited schedule. It alters the project schedule to reduce the extreme variations in resource usage, and achieve a more stable usage over the course of a project.
212
What is a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)?
A grid that shows the project resources assigned to each work package.
213
What is Risk Acceptance?
A risk response strategy whereby the project team decides to acknowledge the risk and not take any action unless the risk occurs.
214
What is Risk Avoidance?
A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to eliminate the threat or protect the project from its impact.
215
What is a Risk Breakdown Structure (RBS)?
A hierarchical organization of project risks by risk categories or sources of risks.
216
What is Risk Mitigation?
A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a threat.
217
What is Risk Transference?
A risk response strategy whereby the project team shifts the impact of a threat to a third party, together with ownership of the response.
218
What is Rolling Wave Planning?
A form of progressive elaboration planning where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while the work far in the future is planned at a relatively higher level.
219
What is Root Cause Analysis?
An analytical technique used to determine the basic underlying reason for a variance, defect or risk.
220
What is Schedule Compression?
A technique used to shorten the schedule duration without reducing the project scope. Examples include Crashing and Fast Tracking.
221
What is Schedule Network Analysis?
A technique to identify early and late start dates, as well as early and late finish dates, for the uncompleted portions of project activities. Examples include Critical Path Method, Critical Chain Method, What-If Analysis, and Resource Leveling.
222
What is a Technical Performance Analysis?
Technical performance analysis compares technical accomplishments against the targets during project execution. Technical performance measures such as system response time, data retrieval time, height, weight, number of errors per thousand transactions, etc. are used for the comparison.
223
What is Three-Point Estimating?
An estimating technique that uses three cost or duration estimates (optimistic, most likely, and pessimistic) to account for risk or uncertainty in an activity.
224
What is a Time-Scaled Schedule Network Diagram?
A project schedule network diagram in the form of a bar chart where bars represent activities, and the length of the bars represent activity durations.
225
What is Trend Analysis?
A technique used for identifying patterns (or trends) in historical information, in order to predict future events.
226
What is Variance Analysis?
A project management technique to assess the magnitude of variance (in scope, time, cost, quality, etc.) from the baseline and determine whether corrective or preventive action is required.
227
What is a Work Authorization System?
A system used by project managers to authorize the start of work packages or activities. It is subsystem of the project management system.
228
What is Adjusting Leads and Lags?
A technique used to find ways to bring project activities that are behind into alignment with plan during project execution.
229
What is Approved Change Requests Review?
A review of the change requests to verify that these were implemented as approved.
230
What is a Bar Chart?
A graphic display of schedule-related information. Schedule activities or work breakdown structure components are listed down the left side of the chart, dates are shown across the top, and activity durations are shown as date-placed horizontal bars.
231
What are Change Control Tools?
Manual or automated tools to assist with change and/or configuration management. At a minimum, the tools should support the activities of the Change Control Board (CCB).
232
What is Checklist Analysis?
A technique for systematically reviewing materials using a list for accuracy and completeness.
233
What are Checksheets?
Tally sheets that can be used as checklists when gathering data.
234
What is Claims Administration?
The process of processing, adjudicating, and communicating contract claims.
235
What are Communication Methods?
Systematic procedures, techniques, or processes used to transfer information among project stakeholders.
236
What are Communication Models?
Descriptions, analogies or schematics used to represent how the communication process will be performed for the project.
237
What is Communication Requirements Analysis?
An analytical technique to determine the information needs of the project stakeholders through interviews, workshops, study of lessons learned from previous projects, etc.
238
What is meant by Communication Technology?
Specific tools, systems, computer programs, etc., used to transfer information among project stakeholders.
239
What is Conflict Management?
Handling, controlling, and guiding a conflictual situation to achieve a resolution.
240
What are Contingent Response Strategies?
Response plans which may be used in the event that a specific trigger occurs.
241
What is a Contract Change Control System?
A system used to collect, track, adjudicate, and communicate changes to a contract.
242
What is Cost-Benefit Analysis?
A financial analysis tool used to determine the benefits provided by a project against its costs.
243
What is Dependency Determination?
A technique used to identify the type of dependency that is used to create the logical relationships between predecessor and successor activities.
244
What are Diagramming Techniques?
Approaches to presenting information with logical linkages that aid in understanding.
245
What are Documentation Reviews?
The process of gathering a corpus of information and reviewing it to determine accuracy and completeness.
246
What are Facilitated Workshops?
An elicitation technique using focused sessions that bring key cross-functional stakeholders together to define product requirements.
247
What are Facilitation?
The ability to effectively guide a group event to a successful decision, solution, or conclusion.
248
What is Mind Mapping?
Technique used to consolidate ideas created through individual brainstorming sessions into a single map to reflect commonality and differences in understanding and to generate new ideas.
249
What are Independent Estimates?
A process of using a third party to obtain and analyze information to support prediction of cost, schedule, or other items.
250
What are Information Management Systems?
Facilities, processes, and procedures used to collect, store, and distribute information between producers and consumers of information in physical or electronic format.
251
What are Management Skills?
The ability to plan, organize, direct, and control individuals or groups of people to achieve specific goals.
252
What is a Matrix Diagram?
A quality management and control tool used to perform data analysis within the organizational structure created in the matrix. The matrix diagram seeks to show the strength of relationships between factors, causes, and objectives that exist between the rows and columns that form the matrix.
253
What are Proposal Evaluation Techniques?
The process of reviewing proposals provided by suppliers to support contract award decisions.
254
What is a Quality Audit?
A structured, independent process to determine if project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures.
255
What is a Resource Optimization Technique?
A technique that is used to adjust the start and finish dates of activities by adjusting planned resource use to be equal to or less than resource availability.
256
What is a Risk Audit?
A type of audit used to consider the effectiveness of the risk management process.
257
What is Risk Categorization?
Organization by sources of risk (e.g., using the RBS), the area of the project affected (e.g., using the WBS), or other useful category (e.g., project phase) to determine the areas of the project most exposed to the effects of uncertainty.
258
What is Risk Data Quality Assessment?
Technique to evaluate the degree to which the data about risks is useful for risk management.
259
What is a Scheduling Tool?
A tool that provides schedule component names, definitions, structural relationships, and formats that support the application of a scheduling method.
260
What are Affinity Diagrams?
A business tool used for organizing a large number of ideas into logical groups for review and analysis.
261
What is Alternatives Analysis?
A technique used to evaluate identified options in order to select the options or approaches to use to execute and perform the work of the project.
262
What is Benchmarking?
Comparing the current project's processes to those of other comparable projects (within or outside the organization) in order to identify best practices, generate ideas for improvement, and provide a basis for measuring performance.
263
What is Communication Styles Assessment?
A technique to identify the preferred communication method, format, and content for stakeholders for planned communication activities.
264
What is Risk Enhancement?
A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to increase the probability of occurrence or impact of an opportunity.
265
What is Risk Escalation?
A risk response strategy whereby the team acknowledges that a risk is outside of its sphere of influence and shifts the ownership of the risk to a higher level of the organization where it is more effectively managed.
266
What is Risk Exploiting?
A risk response strategy whereby the project team acts to ensure that an opportunity occurs.
267
What is Risk Sharing?
A risk response strategy whereby the project team allocates ownership of an opportunity to a third party who is best able to capture the benefit of that opportunity.
268
What is Cost Aggregation?
Rolling up the cost estimates of individual work packages in the WBS into cost estimates for Control Accounts, and then further rolling up the estimates for Control Accounts into the cost estimates for the entire project.
269
What is Funding Limit Reconciliation?
A technique that compares the funding available in each time period (say a month) to the planned expenditure in that time period to ensure that the planned expenditure is within the available funding. It is used in the Determine Budget process.
270
What is Pareto's Law?
A relatively small number of causes will typically produce a majority of the problems or defects. It is commonly known as the 80/20 principle.
271
What is Statistical Sampling?
A quality control technique that involves choosing a random sample from a population of interest, for inspection. It is used when not many defects are expected, testing entire population would take too long, testing is destructive or testing is costly. The sample frequency and size are established in the Plan Quality Management process.
272
What are Quality Checklists?
Lists of components to inspect, or steps to perform. They are used to "check" whether deliverables conform to quality standards. Quality Checklists are defined during the Plan Quality Management process, and used in the Control Quality process.
273
What is Design for X?
A set of technical guidelines that may be applied during the design of a product for the optimization of a specific aspect of the design.
274
What is Pre-Assignment?
Team members selected in advance are considered pre-assigned. Sometimes, pre-assigned resources are listed in the project charter itself.
275
What is Stakeholder Analysis?
A technique used to identify the stakeholders, and their interest, experience and influence on the project.
276
What is Make-or-Buy Analysis?
A technique to determine whether to accomplish a particular work in-house (make) or procure it from an external organization (buy). Both direct and indirect costs should be considered while making such decisions.
277
What are Bidder Conferences?
The meetings with prospective sellers prior to the preparation of a bid or proposal to ensure all prospective vendors have a clear and common understanding of the procurement. Also known as contractor conferences, vendor conferences, or pre-bid conferences.
278
What is a Stakeholders Engagement Assessment Matrix?
A tool used to document the gap between the current and desired levels of stakeholder engagement.
279
What is Critical Path Method (CPM)?
A schedule network analysis technique used to determine the minimum project duration by analyzing the amount of schedule flexibility (or float) on various paths in the project schedule network.
280
What are Interpersonal Skills?
Skills used to establish and maintain relationships with other people.
281
What are Interpersonal and Team Skills?
Skills used to effectively lead and interact with team members and other stakeholders. They are also known as Soft Skills.
282
What is Portfolio Management?
The centralized management of one or more portfolios to achieve strategic objectives.
283
What are Ground Rules?
A set of rules that establish clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by project team members. Ground rules are very important in any professional setup.
284
What is a Project Management Information System (PMIS)?
An information system consisting of the tools and techniques used to gather, integrate, and disseminate the outputs of project management processes. It is used to support all aspects of the project from initiating through closing, and can include both manual and automated systems.
285
What is a Gantt Chart?
A time-phased graphic display of activity durations. It is also referred to as a Bar Chart. Activities are plotted on the vertical axis, dates are plotted on the horizontal axis, and activity durations are shown as horizontal bars.
286
What is a Master Schedule?
A project schedule in summary form that identifies major deliverables and milestones. It is also referred to as Milestone Schedule.
287
What are the key elements of Leadership?
Respect and Trust
288
What are the different aspects of Emotional Intelligence?
- Inbound (e.g., self-management and self-awareness) - Outbound (e.g., relationship management)
289
What are the benefits of developing emotional intelligence in project teams?
- Reduced staff turnover - Less tension and more cooperation among team members - Increased effectiveness of the team
290
What are the soft skills that can help a project manager manage a project team more effectively?
- Conflict management - Decision making - Emotional intelligence - Influencing - Leadership
291
Under what circumstances is a project terminated?
When the project's objectives will not or cannot be met, or when the need for the project no longer exists.
292
What are the five Project Management Process Groups?
1. Initiating 2. Planning 3. Executing 4. Monitoring and Controlling 5. Closing
293
What are the main competing project constraints?
- Scope - Schedule - Cost - Quality - Resources - Risk
294
What is the purpose of Portfolio Management?
The purpose of Portfolio Management is to ensure that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation, and are aligned to organizational strategies.
295
What is the role of an Operations Manager in an enterprise?
To manage business operations (such as R&D, design, manufacturing, testing, maintenance, customer service, etc.) efficiently.
296
What are the Critical Success Factors (CSF) of a project?
- Within time - Within cost - Within quality limits - Accepted by the customer
297
What are the traits of a good Project Manager?
- Honesty and integrity - Adaptability and flexibility - Good communication skills - Leadership skills - Technical knowledge of the project - Enthusiasm - Decision-making ability - Empathy
298
The PMBOK® Guide provides a common methodology for managing projects. True or False?
False. The PMBOK® Guide provides guidelines (not methodology) for managing individual projects.
299
The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements is known as ___________________.
The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements in known as Project Management.
300
How does Portfolio Management different from Program and Project Management in terms of focus?
Program and Project Management focus on doing programs and projects the "right" way, whereas, Portfolio Management focuses on doing the "right" programs and projects.
301
When is the Benefits Management Plan developed?
The Benefits Management Plan is developed prior to project initiation.
302
Give two examples of business documents used on projects?
- Business Case - Benefits Management Plan
303
Name the five different types of development life cycles.
- Predictive - Iterative - Incremental - Adaptive (Agile, iterative, or incremental) - Hybrid (predictive and adaptive)
304
In which type of development life cycle are key stakeholders involved at specific milestones only?
Predictive
305
In which type of development life cycle are changes incorporated in real-time during delivery?
Agile
306
In which type of development life cycle(s) is delivery divided into subsets of the overall product?
Iterative and Incremental
307
Strategy is concerned with day-to-day business issues. True or False?
False. Strategy is concerned with long term vision, whereas operations or tactics are concerned with day-to-day issues.
308
How is the success of a program measured?
A program's success is measured by the program's ability to deliver its intended benefits to an organization, and by the program's efficiency and effectiveness in delivering those benefits.
309
How is the success of a portfolio measured?
Success of a portfolio is measured in terms of the aggregate investment performance and benefit realization of the portfolio.
310
The project management processes are repeated in each phase of a project. True or False?
True.
311
What is a common life cycle structure of all projects?
- Starting the project - Organizing and preparing - Carrying out the project work - Closing the project
312
Which factors are greatest at the start of the project and decrease over the life of the project?
Stakeholder influences, risk, and uncertainty
313
Which factors are low at the start, peak as the work is carried out, and drop rapidly as the project draws to a close?
Cost and staffing levels
314
Which factor is lowest at the start of the project and increases over the life of the project?
Cost of changes
315
What is generally the last phase of a product life cycle?
Product's retirement
316
What are three types of phase-to-phase relationships in a project?
- Sequential - Iterative - Overlapping
317
What are the desirable characteristics of a project manager?
- Honesty and integrity - Adaptability and flexibility - Good communication skills - Leadership skills - Technical knowledge of the project - Enthusiasm - Decision-making ability - Empathy
318
What are the main responsibilities of a project manager?
- Plan the project - Manage the project in terms of scope, schedule, cost, quality, risks, etc. - Report project progress and performance - Manage communication with all stakeholders
319
Project phases can overlap. True or False?
True.
320
What are Adaptive Life Cycles also known as?
Agile or Change-driven life cycles
321
What are the two common types of project life cycles?
- Predictive - Adaptive
322
What is the relationship between project life cycle and product life cycle?
A product life cycle may involve one or more project life cycles.
323
What is the difference between operations and projects?
Operations are ongoing and produce repetitive outputs. Projects are temporary, produce unique outputs, and have a definite end.
324
What are the other common names for a Project Management Office (PMO)?
- Project Office - Program Management Office - Project Management Center of Excellence
325
Which process produces the Requirements Management Plan?
Plan Scope Management
326
Which process generates the Work Performance Data?
Direct and Manage Project Work
327
Which Project Integration Management processes use Project Management Information System as a tool?
- Direct and Manage Project Work - Manage Project Knowledge (under Information Management technique) - Monitor and Control Project Work
328
In which processes are inspections performed?
- Validate Scope - Control Quality - Control Procurements
329
Why is requirements documentation needed for scope validation?
Deliverables are verified against the requirements and acceptance criteria specified in the requirements documentation.
330
In which process are prototypes useful?
Collect Requirements
331
What is SWOT Analysis used for in the context of project management?
Identifying risks (SWOT Analysis is a technique for the Identify Risks process)
332
Name the Process Groups which have the Project Management Plan or one of its subsidiary plans as an input to all their processes.
- Executing - Monitoring and Controlling - Closing
333
What are the two key items that you need in order to collect project requirements?
- Project Charter - Stakeholder Register
334
Which two project management processes use the Decomposition technique?
- Create WBS - Define Activities
335
What are the two main outputs of the Validate Scope process?
- Accepted Deliverables - Change Requests
336
Which processes employ the Bottom-up Estimating technique?
- Estimate Activity Durations - Estimate Costs - Estimate Activity Resources
337
List the processes that have Resource Calendars as output.
- Control Schedule - Acquire Resources - Develop Team - Conduct Procurements
338
List the processes that use Resource Breakdown Structure as an input.
- Manage Project Knowledge - Estimate Activity Durations - Control Resources
339
Resource Breakdown Structure is a primary output of which process?
Estimate Activity Resources
340
Which processes employ Parametric Estimating technique?
- Estimate Activity Durations - Estimate Costs - Estimate Activity Resources
341
Name two processes which use Three-Point Estimating?
- Estimate Activity Durations - Estimate Costs
342
Name any three estimation techniques used for estimating activity durations?
- Analogous Estimating - Parametric Estimating - Three-Point Estimating - Bottom-Up Estimating
343
What are the four main outputs of Develop Schedule process?
- Schedule Baseline - Project Schedule - Schedule Data - Project Calendars
344
Name any five tools and techniques of the Develop Schedule process.
- Schedule Network Analysis - Critical Path Method - Resource Optimization - Data Analysis - Leads and Lags - Schedule Compression - PMIS - Agile Release Planning
345
In which processes do you apply leads and lags?
- Sequence Activities - Develop Schedule - Control Schedule
346
What are the main inputs of the Control Schedule process?
- Schedule Management Plan - Schedule Baseline - Scope Baseline - Project Schedule - Work Performance Data - Project Calendars - Resource Calendars - Organizational Process Assets
347
Name at least three Executing processes that can result in change requests.
- Direct and Manage Project Work - Manage Quality - Acquire Resources - Manage Team - Implement Risk Responses - Conduct Procurements - Manage Stakeholder Engagement
348
Which two scope management processes produce Work Performance Information?
- Validate Scope - Control Scope
349
Communication Methods are used as tools in Planning and Executing processes. Name the Executing process(es) which use Communication Methods as tools.
Manage Communications
350
Verified Deliverables are an input to this process and Accepted Deliverables an output. Which process is this?
Validate Scope
351
Which Enterprise Environmental Factors may be used in Estimate Activity Resources?
Resource availability and skills
352
Why is Risk Register an input to Estimate Costs?
Risk mitigation costs need to be considered while estimating project costs.
353
Which processes employ the Analogous Estimating technique?
- Estimate Activity Durations - Estimate Costs - Estimate Activity Resources
354
Which components of the Project Management Plan are used in the Control Costs process?
- Cost Management Plan - Cost Baseline - Performance Measurement Baseline
355
Which process uses the Funding Limit Reconciliation technique?
Determine Budget
356
Name at least 3 tools and techniques used in the Determine Budget process.
- Expert Judgment - Cost Aggregation - Reserve Analysis - Historical Information Review - Funding Limit Reconciliation - Financing
357
Which are the 4 estimation techniques used in the Estimate Costs process?
- Analogous Estimating - Parametric Estimating - Bottom-Up Estimating - Three-Point Estimating
358
Scope Baseline is created in which process?
Create WBS
359
Quality Metrics are an input to which process(es)?
- Manage Quality - Control Quality
360
Quality Metrics are developed in which process?
Plan Quality Management
361
Test and Evaluation Documents are an input to which process(es)?
Control Quality
362
Which process is used to compare the cost of quality activities with the expected benefits?
Plan Quality Management
363
Which quality related plan is included in the Project Management Plan?
Quality Management Plan
364
Which project documents may get updated as a result of the Manage Quality process?
- Issue Log
- Lessons Learned Register
- Risk Register
365
Change Requests are an input to this process and Approved Change Requests are an output. Which process is this?
Perform Integrated Change Control
366
Which project management process uses the Process Analysis technique?
Manage Quality
367
Deliverables are an input to this process and Verified Deliverables an output. Which process is this?
Control Quality
368
Deliverables are an output of which process?
Direct and Manage Project Work
369
Accepted Deliverables are an input to which process?
Close Project or Phase
370
Which process uses the Pre-Assignment technique?
Acquire Resources
371
Pre-Assignment and Negotiation are two tools and techniques of the Acquire Resources process. Name at least one more technique of this process.
- Virtual teams - Multicriteria Decision Analysis
372
Issue Log, which is used for documenting and tracking project issues, is first created in this process. Which process is this?
Direct and Manage Project Work
373
Name at least 3 tools and techniques used in the Develop Team process.
- Interpersonal and team skills - Training - Virtual Teams - Meetings - Colocation - Recognition and rewards - Individual and Team Assessments
374
In which process(es) would you employ Networking?
- Manage Project Knowledge - Manage Communications - Manage Stakeholder Engagement
375
In which process are Ground Rules laid out for the project team members?
Manage Stakeholder Engagement
376
In which process are project team assignments done?
Acquire Resources
377
What are the three main outputs of the Acquire Resources process?
- Physical Resource Assignments - Project Team Assignments - Resource Calendars
378
What is the main output of the Develop Team process?
Team Performance Assessments
379
Name at least 3 interpersonal and team skills to manage a project team.
- Conflict Management - Decision Making - Emotional Intelligence - Influencing - Leadership
380
Which Enterprise Environmental Factors are likely to be updated as part of the Manage Team process?
- Organization's performance appraisal database - Employee skills database
381
Which components of the Project Management Plan can get updated as a result of the Manage Team process?
- Resource Management Plan - Schedule Baseline - Cost Baseline
382
Name the two Initiating processes.
- Develop Project Charter - Identify Stakeholders
383
Name any one data analysis tool used in the Identify Stakeholders process.
- Stakeholder Analysis - Document Analysis
384
Which process takes Project Management Plan and Stakeholder Register as inputs and formulates a strategy to manage stakeholders?
Plan Stakeholder Engagement
385
Name the quality management process which takes the Stakeholder Register as an input.
Plan Quality Management
386
Why is the Stakeholder Engagement Plan an input to the Plan Quality Management process?
The stakeholder engagement plan provides the method for documenting the stakeholders' needs and expectations that provide the foundation for quality management.
387
Which project document is the key source of information for identifying project stakeholders?
Requirements documentation
388
Which Organizational Process Assets are likely to be used in the Identify Stakeholders process?
- Stakeholder register templates - Lessons learned from previous projects - Stakeholder registers from previous projects
389
Communication Models and Communication Methods are used in which process?
Plan Communications Management
390
In which process are Work Performance Reports generated?
Monitor and Control Project Work
391
Name at least 2 processes which use Work Performance Reports as an input.
- Perform Integrated Change Control - Manage Team - Manage Communications - Monitor Risks
392
What are the 2 key inputs from stakeholder management processes to the Manage Communications process?
- Stakeholder Register - Stakeholder Engagement Plan
393
Project Communications are an output of which process?
Manage Communications
394
If you are establishing a contingency for project duration to mitigate schedule risks, what process are you in?
Estimate Activity Durations is the process and Reserve Analysis is the technique.
395
Why is Project Management Plan an input to the Monitor and Control Project Work process?
Project Management Plan provides information on the project baselines, which are used to measure project performance, and take corrective and preventive actions if required.
396
What are the tools and techniques for the Plan Risk Management process?
- Expert Judgment - Stakeholder Analysis - Meetings
397
What are the inputs of the Plan Risk Management process apart from Enterprise Environmental Factors and Organizational Process Assets?
- Project Charter - Project Management Plan - Stakeholder Register
398
Which Enterprise Environmental Factors can influence the Plan Risk Management process?
The risk appetite, attitudes and tolerances of the organizations.
399
Which process uses the SWOT Analysis technique?
Identify Risks
400
What are the main outputs of the Identify Risks process?
Risk Register and Risk Report
401
Why is Stakeholder Register an input to the Identify Risks process?
Stakeholder Register provides information on key stakeholders, whose input should be solicited for identifying project risks. It also details those stakeholders who can act as risk owners.
402
Which data gathering techniques are commonly used in identifying project risks?
- Brainstorming - Checklists - Interviews
403
Which process uses Checksheets?
Control Quality
404
Which processes use the Assumption and Constraint Analysis technique?
- Identify Risks - Plan Stakeholder Engagement
405
Which process uses the Risk Data Quality Assessment technique?
Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
406
Which process uses Influence Diagrams?
Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
407
What is the output of Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis?
Updates to Assumptions Log, Issue Log, Risk Register and Risk Report
408
What is the output of Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?
Risk Report updates
409
What are the common inputs to Plan Qualitative Risk Analysis, Plan Quantitative Risk Analysis, Plan Risk Responses, Implement Risk Responses, and Monitor Risks?
- Risk Management Plan - Risk Register
410
Which process uses the Expected Monetary Value (EMV) Analysis technique?
Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
411
Independent Cost Estimates are an input to which process?
Conduct Procurements
412
If you are reassessing project risks, which process are you in?
Monitor Risks
413
Why are Work Performance Reports an input to the Monitor Risks process?
Variance data, earned value measurements and forecasting data from the Performance Reports are monitored to look for symptoms or warning signs of risks.
414
Status Meetings are particularly useful in which process?
Monitor Risks
415
Procurement Statement of Work is an input to which process(es)?
Conduct Procurements and Control Procurements (as Procurement Documentation)
416
Why is the Risk Register an input to Plan Procurement Management?
Procurements are a risk mitigation tool. Many of the procurement decisions are made based on the risks that exist on the project.
417
Why is Requirements Documentation an input to Plan Procurement Management?
Requirements on products, services or results to be delivered by the project need to be reviewed when making procurement decisions. Requirements can also have implications on the contract terms and conditions. For example, one of the requirements for a US Defense contract could be that all the personnel employed by the contractor must be US citizens.
418
Which Enterprise Environmental Factors can influence the Plan Procurement Management process?
- Marketplace conditions - Suppliers in the market - The products or services available in the market - The terms and conditions for the industry - Contracts management system
419
Which Organizational Process Assets can affect the Plan Procurement Management process?
- Policies, procedures and guidelines related to procurements - Prequalified sellers
420
In which process are Source Selection Criteria established?
Plan Procurement Management
421
Which process applies the Source Selection Criteria to select sellers?
Conduct Procurements
422
Are Seller Proposals an input or an output of the Conduct Procurements process?
Input
423
Procurement Documentation is an input to this process, and Procurement Documentation updates are an output. Which process is this?
Control Procurements
424
Procurement negotiations are done in which process(es)?
Conduct Procurements
425
In which process(es) would you use Contract Management Systems?
- Plan Procurement Management - Conduct Procurements
426
Work Performance Information is an output of ___________ Process Group.
Work Performance Information is an output of Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.
427
In which processes are simulations and modeling techniques used?
- Develop Schedule - Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
428
Scope Baseline is an input to this process and Cost Baseline an output. Which process is this?
Determine Budget
429
Agreements are an input to Determine Budget. True or False?
True.
430
If you are using a payments system to pay invoices, which process are you in?
Control Procurements
431
Name the process that uses the Information Management technique.
Manage Project Knowledge
432
Which Enterprise Environmental Factors are used as inputs to the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process?
1. Organizational culture, political climate, and governance framework; 2. Personnel administration policies; 3. Stakeholder risk appetites; 4. Established communication channels.
433
Which process initially creates the Milestone List for the project?
Define Activities
434
In which process are Individual and Team Assessments conducted?
Develop Team
435
Change Log is an output of which process(es)?
- Perform Integrated Change Control - Manage Stakeholder Engagement
436
In which process would you use Context Diagrams?
Collect Requirements
437
If you are using Cost Aggregation, which process are you in?
Determine Budget
438
In which process are approved change requests reviewed?
Control Quality
439
Which components of the project management plan are inputs to the Manage Project Knowledge process?
All components of the project management plan are inputs to the Manage Project Knowledge process.
440
In which process is the Team Charter developed?
Plan Resource Management
441
Which project management process implements the approved changes?
Direct and Manage Project Work
442
In which process is the Assumption Log initially created?
Develop Project Charter
443
In which process is the Issue Log initially created?
Direct and Manage Project Work
444
In which process is the Lessons Learned Register first created?
Manage Project Knowledge
445
What are the two outputs of the Develop Project Charter process?
- Project Charter - Assumption Log
446
Name the four tools and techniques used in the Manage Project Knowledge process.
1. Expert judgment 2. Knowledge management 3. Information management 4. Interpersonal and team skills
447
In which process(es) is Cost of Quality considered?
- Estimate Costs - Plan Quality Management
448
In which process is Decision Tree Analysis used?
Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
449
What is required to develop a detailed Project Scope Statement?
- Project Charter - Scope Management Plan - Assumption Log - Requirements Documentation - Risk Register - Enterprise Environmental Factors - Organizational Process Assets (such as procedures, policies, project scope statement template, project files and lessons learned from previous projects)
450
What is required to develop a WBS?
- Scope Management Plan - Project Scope Statement - Requirements Documentation - Enterprise Environmental Factors (such as industry-specific WBS standards) - Organizational Process Assets (such as procedures, policies, WBS template, project files and lessons learned from previous projects, etc.)
451
Name an enterprise environmental factor that may help in the Develop Schedule process.
Communication Channels
452
Which process(es) use(s) the What-if Scenario Analysis technique?
- Develop Schedule - Control Schedule
453
The Control Costs process has 3 outputs apart from Project Management Plan updates and Project Documents updates. Work Performance Information and Cost Forecasts are two of them. Name the missing output.
Change Requests
454
Why is Cost Management Plan an input to Identify Risks process?
The way costs are managed on the project could in itself be a source of risk on the project.
455
In which process would you use an Influence Diagram?
Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
456
What are the commonly used data analysis techniques in quantitative risk analysis?
- Simulation - Sensitivity Analysis - Decision Tree Analysis - Influence Diagrams
457
Which documents can help a project manager identify the project stakeholders?
- Project Charter - Business Case - Benefits Management Plan - Requirements documentation - Agreements
458
Deliverables produced in the Direct and Manage Project Work process are an input to which process?
- Manage Project Knowledge - Control Quality
459
What is the output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process that goes as an input to the Control Costs process?
Work Performance Data
460
What are the outputs of the Determine Budget process that go as inputs to the Control Costs process?
- Cost Baseline - Project Funding Requirements
461
What is the input to the Acquire Resources process from Determine Budget?
Cost Baseline
462
What is the output from Risk Management that goes as an input to Estimate Costs process?
Risk Register
463
What are the outputs from Control Quality that go as inputs to Manage Quality?
Quality Control Measurements
464
What comes as an output from Manage Quality process and goes as an input to Perform Integrated Change Control process?
Change Requests
465
What comes as an output from the Perform Integrated Change Control process and goes as an input to Control Quality?
Approved Change Requests
466
What are the inputs from the Plan Quality Management process into the Manage Quality process?
- Quality Management Plan - Quality Metrics
467
What are the inputs from the Plan Quality Management process into the Control Quality process?
- Quality Management Plan - Quality Metrics
468
What is the common input to Manage Quality and Control Quality, from Plan Quality Management?
- Quality Management Plan - Quality Metrics
469
What comes as an output from Control Quality and goes as an input to Validate Scope?
Verified Deliverables
470
What are the inputs from Project Schedule Management processes into the Plan Procurement Management process?
Milestone List (this list of major milestones show when the sellers are required to deliver their results)
471
What inputs does the Plan Procurement Management process provide to the Conduct Procurements process?
- Procurement Management Plan - Bid Documents - Procurement Statement of Work - Independent Cost Estimates - Source Selection Criteria
472
What is the input to Monitor Stakeholder Engagement, from Manage Communications?
Project Communications
473
Which process ensures the timely implementation of Approved Change Requests?
Control Quality
474
Which technique examines the effectiveness of risk responses?
Risk Audits
475
In which process(es) are you likely to use Affinity Diagrams?
- Collect Requirements - Manage Quality
476
Agreements are an output of Plan Procurement Management. True or False?
False. Agreements are an output of Conduct Procurements.
477
Expert Judgment is a Tool and Technique in the Collect Requirements process. True or False?
True.
478
What are the two theories advocated by Douglas McGregor to categorize workers?
Theory X and Theory Y
479
What are the five levels of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs?
- Self-actualization (highest level) - Esteem - Social - Safety - Physiological (lowest level)
480
What is the first level of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs?
Physiological
481
What are the physiological needs as defined in Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs?
Food, water, clothing, shelter, sleep, and sexual satisfaction
482
Which levels of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs must be achieved before achieving self-esteem?
Physiological, Safety and Social
483
What are the three needs in McClelland's Theory of Needs?
1) Achievement
2) Affiliation
3) Power
484
According to McClelland's theory, what are the characteristics of people with need for achievement?
- Seek recognition - Prefer challenging but achievable work - Avoid low-risk and high-risk situation - Prefer to work alone or with other high-achievers
485
According to McClelland's theory, what kinds of people make effective leaders?
People whose need for power is socially-oriented (institutional power).
486
Which organizational theory deals with hygiene factors and motivating agents?
Herzberg's Theory
487
Which levels of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs are the Hygiene Factors in the Herzberg's theory?
Physiological, Safety and Social
488
Which levels of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs are the Motivating Factors in the Herzberg's theory?
Esteem and Self-actualization
489
What does the Herzberg's theory say about Hygiene Factors?
Poor hygiene factors may demotivate people, but improving the hygiene factors is not likely to motivate people.
490
What does the Herzberg's theory say about Motivating Factors?
What motivates people is the work itself.
491
What are the hygiene factors according to Herzberg?
- Working conditions - Salary - Personal life - Relationships with co-workers - Physical safety - Status
492
What are the motivating factors according to Herzberg?
- Work - Achievement - Recognition - Responsibility - Promotion - Growth
493
Who proposed the Expectancy Theory?
Victor Vroom
494
What is the Acquired Needs Theory also known as?
McClelland's Theory of Needs
495
What is McClelland's Theory of Needs also referred to as?
- Acquired Needs Theory
- Three Needs Theory
- Learned Needs Theory
496
Which standards describe the conduct that we as project management professionals should strive to uphold?
Aspirational Standards
497
Which standards describe firm requirements that we as project management professionals must adhere to?
Mandatory Standards
498
What are the 4 core values that are most important to the project management community?
- Responsibility - Respect - Fairness - Honesty
499
Are the aspirational and mandatory standards mutually exclusive?
No. It means a particular breach may violate both the standards.
500
What is the definition of Responsibility, in the context of ethics and professional conduct?
Our duty to take ownership for the decisions we make or fail to make, the actions we take or fail to take, and the consequences that result.
