Memory Items Flashcards

(123 cards)

1
Q

Maximum limits instrument markings

A

Red Radial Line

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2
Q

Maximum Limits for Normal Takeoff (N1, N2 and EGT)

A

Orange Radial Line

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3
Q

Precautionary Ranges

A

Amber Arc

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4
Q

Normal Operating Ranges

A

Green Arc

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5
Q

Oil Temp Max limit (TWA)

A

Red Annunciator Light

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6
Q

Maximum Limit Oil Press Didgets (TWA)

A

Flashing Digits

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7
Q

Minimum Limits Oil Press (TWA)

A

Red Annunciatior Light

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8
Q

Precautionary Ranges Oil temp, press and Hyd quantity (TWA)

A

Amber Annunciatior Light

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9
Q

Max tailwind

A

10 Kts

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10
Q

Crosswind max demo

A

30 Kts

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11
Q

Turb penetration speed above 10, 000

A

275 to 285 kts or .75 to .79 mach

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12
Q

Turbpentration speed below 10,000

A

250 kts or min maneuvering speed whichever is greater

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13
Q

In turbulence do not fly less than _______ for existing configuration

A

mim maneuvering speed

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14
Q

Maximum landing weight

A

130,000

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15
Q

Maximum Zero Fuel weight

A

122,000

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16
Q

Max altitude for unpressurized flight following a rapid decompression is

A

14,000 ft May be exceeded for terrain

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17
Q

APU air switch but be in the off position for all

A

flight operations

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18
Q

____ must be disconnected if engine stall (serge) is detected during takeoff

A

autothrottle

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19
Q

Minimum altitude for use of the autopilot excluding approaches

A

500 ft

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20
Q

Minimum altitude for use of autopilot for automatic landings

A

none

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21
Q

Minimum altitude for use of autopilot for ILS coupled approaches IFR

A

70 ft AGL

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22
Q

Minimum altitude for use of autopilot for ILS coupled approaches VFR

A

50 ft AGL

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23
Q

Minimum altitude for use of autopilot for Non ILS/RNAV

A

50 ft below MDA

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24
Q

No auto landings if:

A

AAAREL
Align mode is not displayed on FMA by 100 ft radio altitude
Automatic Ground Spoilers are not armed and operational
Any unusual control position or other abnormal condictions in manual flight control system
Rudder Control = Manual
Either engine becomes inop at an altitude > 50ft AGL
Landing overweight

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25
Max starting EGT ground
500 C
26
Max starting EGT inflight
625
27
Max EGT takeoff reserve thrust _____ for ____ min or _______ radial line for ___ min
625; 5; red; 2
28
Max EGT for Maximum thrust ______ C for ____ min or ____ radial line for _____ min
590; 5; orange; 2 min
29
Max continuous EGT for climb is below ____ arc or _______ deg
amber; 580 deg
30
Max cruise EGT ____ C
540 C
31
Minimum oil quantity for 4 hour or greater flight
12 qts
32
Minimum oil quantity for flight less than four hours
4 qts plus 2 qts per hour
33
Can thrust reversers be operated inflight
No
34
When using reverse thrust for push back do not exceed ____ EPR
1.3
35
When conduting a second engine start attempt ensure ____ has decreased to ___ before attempt
N2; zero
36
Eng Stater duty cycle (first attempt)
90 sec on, five minutes off
37
Eng Starter duty cycle susequent attempts
30 sec on; five min off
38
Do not use flap settings between___ and ___ deg
13; 15
39
Do not arm spoiler lever prior to ______
gear extension
40
Use speed brakes only in __/___ or ___/____ configuration
UP/RET; 0/EXT
41
Can you operate the gear (up or down) with speed brakes deployed
No
42
Full aft speed brake position is for _________ use only
ground
43
Max fuel imbalance in wing tanks is
1500 lbs
44
Max fuel imbalance in aux tanks is
400 lbs
45
Ground Icing conditions are when RAT is __ deg or below and _________
6; visable moisture is present (clouds or surface snow, water etc.
46
Ground Icing conditions are defined as _____ deg C and temp - dew point spread is ____ deg or less
6; 3
47
Inflight icing conditions are defined as __ deg or less and ____ moisture is present
6; visable
48
For ground, takeoff and flight operations engine _____ must be on when icing conditions exist or are _____
anti-ice; anticipated
49
Inflight, aifoil anti-ice should be used when icing condtions exist or are _____________
anticipated
50
Do not use airfoil anti-ice until reaching _____ feet AFL after takeoff
1,000
51
Minimum duct pressure for airfoil anti-ice is ___ psi
20
52
To keep the ice protect time low light estinguished maintain ________
sufficient thrust
53
Application of tail de-ice is required every ____ min; _____min prior to extension of landing flaps or after leaving __________
20; one; icing conditions
54
Do not take off if any brake temp exceeds ____ deg C
205
55
The max tire speed is
195 kts
56
Max EGT Reserve Thrust T/O and time limit. Or _____ for ____ min
625 for 5 min; red radial line for 2 min
57
VMO/MMO =
340/.84M
58
Flaps limiting speed 13/mid slats
280
59
Flaps limiting speed 15 -20
240
60
Flaps limiting speed flaps 23
220
61
Flaps limiting speed flaps 28
195
62
Flaps limiting speed flaps 40
195
63
Max speed landing gear extend
300kts/ .70M
64
Max speed landing gear retract
250kts/.70M
65
Max speed landing gear extended (out)
300kts/.70M
66
APU Starter duty cycle
1 try/5 off/1 try/ 5 off/ 1 try/ 60 min off
67
Max APU rotor speed
108%
68
Eng gen load limits Normal ___; normal max ____; peak
1.0; 1.5 for 5 min/ >1.5 for 5 sec
69
Systems on left hyd system
LIE Left T/R; L&R inboard spoilers; elevator aug
70
Systems on right Hyd system
GRROS gear; rudder; right T/R; Outboard spoilers; stairs
71
Systems on both hyd systems
(key systems for stopping and directional control)steering; flaps/slats; brakes& ground spoilers
72
Systems with an accumulator
BEARR brakes; elevator boost; aft stairs/rudder; reversers
73
Eng start idle readings
N2-50-61%; EGT-300-500; FF 800-1100
74
Optimum air pressure for start
15-21
75
When does ART activate
N1 30%<;
76
Max pressurization differential is _______
8.07
77
Rudder travel unrestricted light goes out at what airspeed?
180/200
78
Tail deice timer is a _____ min cycle
2.5
79
Rudder throw limter limits rudder from ____ degrees to ______ degrees at 300 kts
22; 2.5
80
Max brake temp to set parking brake
300 deg
81
APU burns ____# per hour
300
82
Fire protection is on what bus
DC Transfer Bus
83
If you get a DC bus off light, how can you confirm it?
Check TRs for load on suspected bus
84
How can you confirm a DC Transfer Bus off light
check standby horizon for flags
85
How can you confirm an AC Emergency Bus off light
Check Capt instruments
86
A/C packs will shut down on engine failure on T/O until about ______ ft or _______cabin differential pressure
3,000; 1.3
87
Pressurization Flow light indicates what?
outflow valve is closed and cabin is climbing
88
Flap/Stab extend light indicates what?
Flaps selected greater than 6 and speed brakes out
89
Parking Brake light comes on inflight, what could you suspect
An antiskid fail light when gear is put down
90
What is max take-off weight?
149,500#
91
Max take off temp? Min?
+50; -54
92
What type fluid is normally used for deicing
Type I
93
What bus powers the #1 VHF Radio
Emergency DC Bus
94
When do the emergency lights activate?
When power is lost to Emergency DC Bus
95
When battery switch is turned on what busses are powered?
Battery bus and DC transfer Bus. Battery direct bus always powered
96
Does the cabin alt red light have an associated sound?
Modulating horn
97
When does yellow ART system light on panel mean?
ART has activated
98
What must be set up for ART ready light to activate?
NOGAS = N1 signal; Operational system (ART), Ground (on it); Auto selected on ART; Slats T/O.
99
Amber ART light means it has activated. What will cause it to activate
30% N1 difference; power interruption to FGP; wind shear encounter; or system has failed internally
100
Will the throttles move if ART activates?
No
101
When are you authorized to do a reserve power take off?
When TPS requires max power T/O and ART is inop
102
What does a no mode light mean
no power selected or uncertified bleed air configuration
103
What does eng anti ice and fuel anti ice lights indicate
all valves have moved to position
104
What do airfoil and tail anti ice lights indicate
switch position only
105
Is it normal to see both amber and blue engine anti ice right after system activation
yes
106
What light might you see when tail deice cycle ends and airfoil resumes
airfoil ice protect pressure abnormal until tail valve fully closes
107
What does ice protect pressure high light indicate?
airfoil anti ice pressure regulator valve has failed
108
What does ice protect temp hi mean
indicates 13th stage valve failure
109
What does ice protect temp low light indicate
You need to add power to get additional 13th stage air
110
What heaters have failed when pitot/stall heater fail light comes on
One of first six on rotor have failed
111
What conditions must be met for ATR system to be active?
ATR= Autothrottles on; Take off in FMLA window and radar alt > 350'; both engines below go-around thrust
112
When will ART activate?
One engine drops .25 EPR AND 7% N1 drop or vertical speed negative for 5 sec
113
What do zeros on TPS runway data indicate
Data for that runway/flap setting has not been loaded
114
What does N/A on TPS tailwind indicate
takeoff not authorized
115
What do zeros in tailwind mean
up to authorized tailwind (10 kts) OK
116
What is calculated based on the assume temp
Standard thrust EPR, N1
117
MEL bannered items on TPS, is it included on which runways?
All runways and all data on TPS. If done manualy then only on primary.
118
When do spoilers deploy landing. Ground spoilers?
Spoilers main gear spin or weigh on nose weight on wheels. Ground soilers on weight on mains and idle pwr
119
When do spoilers and ground spoiler deploy on abort
ALL Spoilers on T/R activation with throttles in idle.
120
Doppler turbulance is available in _____mile range
within 40 mile range and in weather turbulance mode
121
DC EMERGENCY BUS OFF light, how do you confirm
Capt Pitot heat and GFMS fail
122
Doppler turbulance is available in _____mile range
within 40 mile range and in weather turbulance mode
123
DC EMERGENCY BUS OFF light, how do you confirm
Capt Pitot heat and GFMS fail