MICRO Flashcards

1
Q

which bugs cause genital ulcers? (4)

A

HSV-2
Primary syphilis: Treponema pallidum
LGV: Chlamydia trachomatis (L1-L3)
Chancroid Haemophilis ducreyi

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2
Q

which subtypes of chlamydia cause genital ulcers?

A

L1-L3

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3
Q

which subtypes of chlamydia cause drips?

A

D-K

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4
Q

which bugs cause drips? (6)

A

Chlamydia Trachomatis (D-K)
GC
Ureaplasma urelyticum

Trichomonas
Candidiasis
Bacterial vaginosis

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5
Q

what causes the chancroid?

A

Haemophilis ducreyi (G- rod) in poor people

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6
Q

what is the main bug that causes bacterial vaginosis?

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

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7
Q

which 3 bugs commonly cause warts?

A

HPV (6,11 for genital warts)
secondary syphilis
Molluscum contagiosum (pox)

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8
Q

how do we diagnose HSV today?

A

BLOOD PCR

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9
Q

which bug is gram neg and oxidase +?

A

GC

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10
Q

which bug requires growth on Thayer martin medium?

A

GC

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11
Q

which bug looks like 2 kissing kidney beans?

A

GC

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12
Q

which bug is AKA the clap?

A

GC

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13
Q

what is the gold standard diagnosis for GC?

A

gram stain

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14
Q

what is the gold standard diagnosis for chlamydia trachomatis?

A

NAAT (PCR)

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15
Q

how do you treat GC if you see it on gram stain?

A

ceftriaxone plus azithromycin (treat for both GC & CT)

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16
Q

which microbe looks like cottage cheese?

A

candidiasis

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17
Q

which bug has clue cells?

A

bacterial vaginosis (classically Gardnerella)

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18
Q

what kind of genome does HPV have?

A

nonenveloped, circular dsDNA virus

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19
Q

what kind of genome does HSV have?

A

large dsDNA w/ lipid envelope

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20
Q

where is the genome of HPV in benign cells?

A

extrachromosomal

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21
Q

where is the genome of HPV in malignant cells?

A

within the host genome

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22
Q

what might happen to the fetus if mom has syphilis?

A

still birth or spontaneous infection

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23
Q

which pathology causes these symptoms:

-frontal bossing, saddle nose, notches in incisors

A

congenital syphilis

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24
Q

what 2 bugs can cause opthalmia neonatorum?

A

GC & Chlamydia

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25
how do we diagnose HSV1 or 2 today?
PCR
26
is Neisseria gonorrhoeae oxidase positive or negative?
oxidase positive
27
which STD microbe has characteristic antigenic variation?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
28
name the microbe: 2 kidney been shaped bacteria touching each other in a neutrophil?
Neisseria gonorrhoeae
29
is HPV enveloped or non-enveloped?
non-enveloped
30
how are laryngeal papillomas transmitted?
at birth in up to 50% of cases
31
what are the EBs in chlamydial infections?
they are infectious and metabolically inert
32
what are the RBs in chlamydial infections?
reticulate bodies, that grow within a membrane bound vacuole (inclusion body) in the CYTOPLASM of mucosal epithelial cells
33
does Neisseria Gonorrhoeae have a capsule?
no capsule
34
what are the 2 mechanisms which are responsible for antigenic variation in GC infection?
``` pilus variation (various silent peptide encoding loci with no promoter into an expression locus with a promoter) outer membrane surface protein variation ```
35
name the STD microbial bug that is restricted to mucosal epithelial cells and can't disseminate to the blood or lymph
chlamydia trachomatis
36
name the STD microbe that causes genital tract infections and totally lacks cell walls?
ureaplasma
37
which bug which often causes urethritis is most likely to disseminate causing sepsis with rash, sometimes aseptic arthritis, rarely endocarditis, and very rarely meningitis?
GC
38
what are some of the signs/symptoms of pelvic inflammatory disease?
dull to severe lower abdominal pain, signs/symptoms of cervicitis, adnexal tenderness, cervical motion tenderness, fever
39
what are some of the complications of PID?
sterility, ectopic pregnancy, chronic pelvic pain
40
which STD microbe can cause infant pneumonia?
chlamydia trachomatis
41
name the microbe: causes repetitive staccato cough with tachypnea in 1-4 months baby
chlamydia trachomatis
42
is the gram stain STD exudates more accurate in males or females?
more accurate in males
43
name the type of chocolate blood agar growth medium used to grow GC
Thayer-Martin
44
what is the MC way to diagnose GC or chlamydia?
NAAT on urine or cervical/urethral exudates
45
what is the purpose of the immediate early HSV protein expression?
has transcriptional regulators that redirect the host to preferentially transcribe viral genes over host genes
46
what are the important components of the early genes made by HSV?
thymidine kinase is made as a part of the early proteins, components of virally-encoded DNA polymerase
47
what are the HSV late proteins responsible for?
late genes make capsomeres, envelope glycoproteins, and other structural proteins (syncytia form as a result of cell to cell fusion)
48
what is the name of the only viral product that is expressed during the maintenance phase of HSV infection?
Latency associated transcript (LAT) | -RNA that silences genes to prevent apoptosis of the infected neuron
49
where does virus assembly happen in HSV infected cells?
nucleus (explains why there are intranuclear inclusion bodies)
50
what is the name of the old school test that allows you to see HSV syncitia formations?
Tzanck Smear
51
about how long after initial HSV infection will the multiple blisters show up?
2 weeks
52
which type of HSV genital infection is has more frequent recurrence HSV1 or HSV2?
HSV2
53
What are some of the prodromal symptoms of HSV genital infections?
muscle aches of the legs and BUTT
54
what are some of the ocular infections that are caused by HSV?
primary: blepharitis & conjunctivitis (children) recurrent: keratitis (corneal scarring)
55
what are some of the CNS infections that are caused by HSV?
Encephalitis: recurrent HSV1 in adults, primary HSV2 in neonates meningitis: 10% of HSV2 cases
56
if mom presents with herpetic lesions at the time of delivery, what do you do?
C/S
57
a normal EEG rules out encephalitis caused by what microbe?
HSV
58
what are some of the agents of bacterial vaginosis?
Anaerobes: Gardnerella vaginalis, Mobiluncus
59
what fungi can cause candidiasis?
candida albicans, C.glabrata
60
what are the 2 different kind of microbes that can cause the pH of the vagina to become greater than 4.5?
``` trichomoniasis Bacterial vaginosis (gardnerella vaginalis) ```
61
which two types of microbes can cause a positive whiff test (fishy odor with 10% KOH)
trichomonas | gardnerella
62
how could you distinguish trichomonas vaginitis from gardnerella vaginosis?
trichomoniasis has yellow//green/frothy discharge | bacterial vaginosis has white or gray discharge (with clue cells)
63
how would you definitively diagnose trichomoniasis?
wet mount showing trichomonads
64
describe the inner membrane and outer membrane of syphilis?
inner membrane-->a periplasm w/ peptidoglycan | outer membernae/sheath
65
name the structure in the periplasm of spirochetes which make them motile?
axial filaments
66
about how many weeks after initial infection will primary syphilis show up?
2-3 wk incubation with symptoms resolving in 3-6 wks
67
when does secondary syphilis typically show up after the initial infection?
a month or two
68
name for syphilitic infection where the mucous membrane patches in mouth and genitals and sometimes on togue
snail track lesions
69
where would you find condylomata lata anatomically?
moist skin folds in perineum and anal regions
70
how can a baby get congenital syphilis?
transmitted transplacentally after first trimester via blood
71
what are some of the late congenital syphilis signs/symptoms?
saber shins, frontal bossing vision defects (gun barrel sight) Hutchison's triad: screwdriver teeth, keratitis, deafness
72
what is hutchison's triad?
screwdriver teeth keratitis deafness
73
what is the antigen in the RPR/VDRL test?
beef heart mitochondria cardiolipin
74
what is the name of the test which is specific for treponemes?
Fluorescent treponemal antigen-absorbed Test (FTA-ABS)