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Micro Flashcards

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1
Q

What is diptheria casued by? Where are the primary manifestations?

A

Cor-y-ne-bacterium Diphtheriae…NASO AND OROPHARYNX!!

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2
Q

What are the three sequential treatments for the treatment of acute diptheria?

A

1.Diptheria antitoxin (passive immunization) 2.Penicillin or erythromycin 3.DPT vaccine (active immunization)

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3
Q

What is the 3 stage life cycle of HEP B?

A

DS DNA –> +RNA template –> DS DNA progeny

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4
Q

What is the 3 stage replication cycle of HERPES?

A

DS DNA–>DS DNA template–>DS DNA progeny

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5
Q

Gram negative coccobacilli causing swelling of the right knee..what bacterium and what is its main virulence factor?

A

H. Influenzae and a CAPSULE

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6
Q

Haemophilus influenzae LOVES ______ and it requires both ___ factor and ___ factor to grow

A

BLOOD. X factor and V factor

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7
Q

What is the most common cause of ASEPTIC meningitis? what are the typical CSF protein and glucose levels?

A

Enteroviruses…modestly elevated protein, normal glucose

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8
Q

In bacterial meningitis, what are the two main bugs causing it in ADULTS? What are the CSF glucose and protein levels like?

A

Strep Pneumo and N. Meningitidis…elevated protein, low glucose

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9
Q

If I use cardiolipin, lecithin and cholesterol and observe extensive flocculation, what bug am I testing for?

A

Treponema pallidum (syphilis)

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10
Q

What virus is notorious for outbreaks in crowded quarters? What is the main clinical presentation? What type of DNA/RNA does it have?

A

ADENOVIRUS..pharyngo-conjunctival fever…DS-DNA

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11
Q

COOL: What species of bug causes terminal hematuria, dysuria, and frequent urination, hydronephrosis, pyeloneprosis, and SSC of the bladder? Found in Africa and Mid-East? UH. WHAT ORGANISM INFECTS HUMANS?

A

SCH-IS-TO-SO-MIA-SIS Hae-mat-o-bi-um..Freakin freshwater snails bro

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12
Q

What about the Hep C genome yields genetic variation in its envelope antigen?

A

Hep C is RNA and has no proofreading mechanism

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13
Q

What component of the human cell is the target for C. Diff’s toxins A and B?

A

the cytoskeleton (toxins distrupt actin cytoskeleton structure)

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14
Q

What is the main lab tool used to differentiate Strep and Staph?

A

STREP=catalase NEGATIVE…Staph = catalase POSITIVE

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15
Q

AWESOME, you got the association between S. Aureus and yellow-honey crust on a cutaneous wound…but now…what is this condition called?

A

IMPETIGO

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16
Q

What bug is most commonly associated with intraabdominal abscesses following abdominal trauma or surgery? (endometriosis and complications of gynecologic procedures)

A

Bacterioides Fragilis

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17
Q

What are the three most common associated diseases with GROUP B Strept?

A

1.Neonatal Sepsis 2.Chorioamnionitis 3.Endometriosis (ALL BIRTHING THINGS!)

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18
Q

What bug underlies skin diseases like ecthyma gangrinosum, HOT TUB folliculitis (lol), pyoderma, green nail syndrome, and botryomycosis?

A

Pseudonomas Aeruginosa (aeruginosa means copper-green rust) (look up in latin book at home lol)

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19
Q

COOL! A bug NOT trying to kill us! _______ is a normal component of skin flora and if found in wound culture is considered a contaminant

A

Staphylococcus Epidermidis

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20
Q

INTERESTING! Mechanism of Action for Antibiotic Resistance…In general most ABX freely cross bacterial membranes, so what is the most common method for resistance?

A

Bacterial ability to PUMP (through H+, ATP, or Na+ gradient channels)

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21
Q

DNA viruses have diploid or haploid DNA?

A

haploid

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22
Q

________ are very small bacteria that have single, circular DNA genomes…INTERESTING, research has shown that these MAY have evolved from gram + bacteria!

A

MYCOPLASMAS

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23
Q

Since one mechanism of APOPTOSIS is the inability to perform new translation of proteins, the proteins that are required to be translated need an alternate method WHICH IS….???

A

INTERNAL RIBOSOME ENTRY

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24
Q

Which sequence (hint-someone’s name) helps initiate translation in EUKARYOTES?

A

KOZAK consensus sequence

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25
Which sequence (hint-scientist names) helps initiate translation in PROKARYOTES?
Shine-DalGARno sequence
26
Papallomaviruses: small or large?
small
27
Papallomaviruses: enveloped or nonenveloped?
nonenveloped
28
Papallomavirus: what type of genome?
CIRCULAR, DOUBLE-STRANDED DNA
29
Viral proteins inactivate ____ and ___ proteins, thus causing the cell to enter S-phase
p53 and Rb
30
OOOO INTERESTING!!! _____ viruses (((***EXCEPT FOR ______***))) replicate in the NUCLEUS
DNA....except for POXVIRUSES
31
OOOO INTERESTING!!! _____ viruses ((** EXCEPT FOR ________ and ________**)) replicate in the CYTOPLASM
RNA...except ORTHO-MYXO-VIRUSES and RETROVIRUSES
32
Paramyxoviruses: enveloped or nonenveloped?
enveloped
33
Paramyxoviruses: what type of genome?
single-stranded RNA
34
Togavirus: enveloped or nonenvelopled?
enveloped (WEARING A TOGA!!)
35
Togavirus: what type of genome?
Single-stranded RNA virus
36
PicoRNAvirus: enveloped or nonenveloped?
naked
37
PicoRNAvirus: what type of genome?
single-stranded RNA
38
Poxvirus: large or small??
large
39
Poxvirus: what type of genome?
Double-stranded DNA genome
40
What organism causes VALLEY FEVER?
Cocci-DI-oides IMMITIS (a DI morphic fungus)
41
WHAT IS THE CLASSIC presentation of a KLEBSIELLA PNEUMONIAE infection in EtOHlics?
currant JELLY hemotysis
42
Legionella PenumoPHILA is a gram ______ bacillus that causes disease when areosolized organisms are inhailed from __________
gram NEGATIVE....contaminated WATER
43
What are the two possible outcomes from a Legionella PneumoPHILA infection? (hint-one mild, one severe)
Mild: PONTIAC fever (flu-like illness) SEVERE: Legionnaire disease)
44
Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a SMALL, atypical bacterium (NO ______) that causes "_________"
(no cell wall)...."WALKING PNEUMONIA"
45
Pneumo-cys-its Jir-OV-Eci is an atypical _____ organism known for causing WHAT? WHAT IS THE HALLMARK SIGN?
Fungal...opportunistic pneumonia in HIV+ pt's with <200mm3 CD4 counts...Hallmark: GROUND GLASS appearance on chest xray
46
Which opportunistic fungal infection in HIV+ pt's with CD4's <200mm3 appears with a GROUND GLASS appearance on a chest x-ray?
PNEUMO-CYS-TIS JI-RO-VEC-I
47
What class of viruses (first BROAD class, then subdivision, THEN 4 examples in the subdivision!!!) account for 90% of VIRAL MENINGITIS??
PICO-RNA-VIRIDAE--->ENTEROVIRUSES--->1.Enterovirus 2.Coxsackie A and B 3.Echovirus 4. Poliovirus
48
All pico-RNA-viruses are _____, icosahedral, _____-standed, and POSITIVE-sense RNA viruses
NAKED, SINGLE-stranded
49
Besides the Enteroviruses of the PicoRNAviridae family, what are two other common viruses in this family?
Hepatovirus (Hep A) and Rhinovirus
50
Huh GROSS... ______virus are NEGATIVE-sense, SINGLE-stranded RNA viruses that cause HEMORRHAGIC fever when dirt or dust contaminated by RODENT URINE is inhailed
ARENAviruses
51
_____viruses are positive-sense, SINGLE-stranded RNA viruses. The most common is the NOROvirus which is a COMMON CAUSE OF ________
CALI-ci-viruses...GASTROENDERITIS
52
CORONAvirus is a _____-sense, _____-stranded, (RNA or DNA??) virus that is a major cause for the common cold
POSITIVE-sense, SINGLE-stranded, RNA
53
PARAmyxOviruses are _____-sense, ____-stranded (RNA or DNA??) viruses that include ______, _____, and respiratory syncytial viruses
NEGATIVE-sense, SINGLE-stranded, RNA...MUMPS, MEASLES
54
Members of the REOvirus family have DOUBLE-stranded RNA genomes, ____virus is a common cause of GASTROENTERITIS in infants
ROTAvirus
55
Macrophages, dendritic cells, and B-cells: During Antigen processing, the ______ chain brings the alpha and beta chains together in the RER.
invariant chain
56
What type of cell recognizes the MHC Class II antigen?
CD4+ T helper cells
57
CD4+ T helper cells recognize MHC Class __ antigens
Class II
58
________ is a STAIN commonly used to identify FUNGAL elements in histologic sections of tissue
METH-EN-AMINE SILVER
59
ASPERGILLUS fumigatus has a "_________-like" appearnce
BROOM-like
60
Patients with a Hx of TB can develop WHICH FUNGAL infection (in the old cavities caused by the TB..GROSS)
Aspergillus fumigatus
61
________ is a GRAM POSTIVIE bacteruim that classically causes MOUTH (WHEELHOUSE) or GI tract abscesses following TRAUMA...YELLOW "SULFUR" GRANULES!!!
Actino-myces ISRAELII
62
What is responsible for the removal of RNA primers and the synthesis of new DNA in its place during Prokaryotic DNA syntesis?
DNA polymerase I
63
What is the key factor for N. Gonorrhoeae establishment and infection?
PILI...they help adhere
64
What is the key factor for N. Meningitidis establishment and infection?
a CAPSULE that is anti-phagocytic
65
Ok, so I KNOW that Pneumocystis JiroVecii occurs in HIV+ pts with less than 200 CD4s, but WHICH VIRUS causes problems in pts with less than 20 CD4s??
CMV
66
Holy shit! ORAL POLIO VACCINE contains attinuated live virus that can revert to a virulent form and cause vaccine-associated PARALYTIC _________..whereas INACTIVATED polio vaccine contains killed virus that can't revert...FASCINATING!!
PolioMyelitis (its 3:1,000,000 odds)
67
Which virus is famous for Negri bodies in Hippocampal neurons and painful pharyngeal spasms??
Rabies virus
68
Fresh stool exam reveals occasional TROPHOZOITES with phagocytosed RBCs...what bug?
Enantomoeba Histo-Lytica
69
Woah, dont be fooled-stool exam reveals trophozoites WITHOUT RBCs
Giardia Lamb-Lia
70
Naegleria FOWLERI can colonized nasal passages and invade the brain resulting in fatal __________
meningoencephalitis
71
WHICH BUG can you NOT treat with cell wall synthesis inhibitor drugs?
Chlamydia trachomatis...it has an unusual cell wall!
72
Mycobacterium Tuberculosis osteomyelitis (Pott disease) is a potential cause of a Psoas abscess...where will the pt have symptoms?
groin
73
________ is a NON-lactose fermenting, oxidase negative, gram negative rod and is a common cause of OSTEOMYELITIS in patients with SICKEL CELL DISEASE
Salmonella
74
ACUTE Hep A infection will have which antibody produced? What antibody will develop later?
IgM...IgG will come later

CBSE (9 decks)

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